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NGN-NCLEX 2024 > Maternity Rationales > Flashcards

Maternity Rationales Flashcards

1
Q

_____ movements in one hour is considered typical fetal movement.

A

10 movements

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2
Q

epigastric pain and a frontal headache not relieved with acetaminophen is a sign of _____ _______.

A

severe preeclampsia

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3
Q

Severe preeclampsia manifest as ______ to right-upper quadrant pain suggestive of a _____ injury.

A

epigastric / liver

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4
Q

physiological anemia of pregnancy is a result of increase in ______.

A

plasma

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5
Q

The classic signs of abrupt placentae are _____ _____ and _____ ______.

A

severe pain and vaginal bleeding

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6
Q

Abruptio placentae is the premature separation of a _____ ______ from the uterus.

A

implanted placenta

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7
Q

Oxytocin should always be administered ____ as a _______ infusion pump.

A

IV as a piggyback infusion

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8
Q

By 20 weeks gestation, the fetus is approximately _____ cm long or _____ inches.

A

20 cm long or 7 1/2 inches

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9
Q

Fetal Heart tones cannot be heard with the doppler until about ____ - _____ weeks.

A

10-12 weeks

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10
Q

If the fetal HR decreases following a uterine contraction it’s considered a _____ ______.

A

late deceleration

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11
Q

Vitamin _____ increases the absorption of _____.

A

Vitamin C / iron

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12
Q

Take an iron supplement with ____ juice.

A

orange juice

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13
Q

A normal FHR typically ranges between ____ - ____ BPM.

A

120 - 160 BPM

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14
Q

A FHR or _____ - ____ bpm may indicate fetal distress.

A

90-100 bpm

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15
Q

A client admitted with placenta prevue should be on ____ _____.

A

bed rest ( to help reduce bleeding)

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16
Q

______ fetal monitoring is key in managing placenta prevue as bleeding episodes may trigger fetal distress. .

A

external fetal monitoring

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17
Q

_____ is an infusion fro correct fetal heart rate changes caused by umbilical cord compression.

A

Amnioinfusion

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18
Q

Several hours after birth the fund will be _____ or _____ _____ the umbilicus.

A

level or slightly above the umbilicus

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18
Q

After an hour the fundus should be ____, ______, and at the level of the _____.

A

hard, midline, and at the level of the umbilicus.

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19
Q

_____ ______ is a broad term indicating difficult labor that is not progressing.

A

Labor dystocia

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20
Q

______ is used in labor dystocia.

A

Oxytocin

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21
Q

Levonorgestrel is available over the counter for emergency _______.

A

emergency contraception

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22
Q

Clients with systolic HF have ______ heart tones and ____ _____.

A

S3 heart tone & peripheral edema

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23
Q

Clients with iron-deficiency anemia have a HA and _____ _____.

A

HA and restless legs

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24
A client taking Ferrou Sulfate should be encouraged to increase her _____ _____.
water intake
25
A biophysical profile is commonly performed if a ___ ____ ___ is positive or a NST is non-reactive.
CST is positive
26
Ferrous Sulfate may cause _______.
constipation
27
CST requires the client to have contractions through oxytocin administration or _____ ______.
nipple stimulation
28
_____ ______ interval is a severe side effect of Ondansetron.
Prolonged QT interval
29
_____ ____ can cause the formation of valvular lesions, which can lead to cardiac stress during pregnancy.
Rheumatic Fever
30
_______ results from severe reduction in the amount of amniotic fluid.
Oligohydraminos
31
Oligohydramnios results in less than expected _____ ____.
fetal growth
32
_______ is defined a new born that I significantly larger than average.
Macrosomia
33
______ is a condition in which excessive amounts of amniotic fluid accumulates during pregnancy.
Hydramnios
34
______ ____ ______ is an acute collapse of mother and baby due to an allergic-type response to amniotic fluid entering the mother's circulatory system.
Amniotic fluid embolism
35
Tamsulosin treats BPH and causes vasodilation. The biggest side effect is _____ _____.
orthostatic hypotentsion (change positions slowly)
36
Do you need to delay dental care when a woman is pregnant?
NO (second trimester is best though)
37
CVS is a test used to determine the presence of ______ abnormalities. And it involves the aspiration of small samples from the placenta.
chromosomal abnormalities
38
When doing a CVS test you should not empty your _____.
bladder
39
What is the priority nursing action when there is a prolapsed umbilical cord?
apply pressure to the presenting fetal part
40
With a prolapsed cord what position should the mother be in to keep the fetus off the cord and blood flow to the fetus continues?
Trendelenburg's or knees to chest position.
41
A spinal change that is common I spregancy is _______.
lordosis
42
Most women see a decrease in their ___ & ___ levels during the pregnancy. It's due to increased plasma volume in the maternal bloodstream.
Hgb & Hmct
43
High Alpha-fetoprotein level may indicate possible ____ _____ _____.
neural tube defect
44
Terbutaline may increase the clients _____ level.
BG level
45
The normal pad count after birth is ____ pad every ____ hours.
1 pad every 2 hours
46
Sexual pleasure is heightened during the _____ trimester of pregnancy.
2nd trimester
47
The mucus plug is passed?
several weeks before the onset of labor
48
Placenta Prevue typically manifests as ______ vaginal bleeding after 20 weeks gestation.
painless
49
When a FHM is showing late decels 1st the nurse should ____ _____ _____ before notifying the HCP.
reposition the client (left side-lying)
50
Nifedipine is a CCB that can be used for clients in _____ labor.
preterm
51
A client recovering from Preeclampsia will show signs of _____.
diuresis (excess fluid volume is now depleting)
52
Caffeine intake should be less than ____ mg/ day.
200 mg/ day
53
Can you take pictures of visitors coming to the nursery?
yes
54
The average weight gain during pregnancy with a normal BMI is _____ to _____ pounds.
25 to 35 pounds
55
One of the most accurate ways to determine gestational age during the 1st trimester is with an _________.
Ultrasonography
56
_____ is a maternal infection that is known to increase the risk that the fetus will have a congenital heart defect.
Rubella
56
A positive pregnancy test is a _____ sign.
probable sign
57
A ______ non stress test is a reassuring finding.
positive
58
Does a client have to fast prior to a NST?
No
59
Prolapsed cord also means ______ ______.
Cord compression
60
Early decels is a ______ response.
normal response
61
The expulsion of the placenta causes a ____ in ______ levels.
a decrease in progesterone levels
62
A seperation of the placenta prior to the delivery is known as _____ ______.
placental abruption
63
Name 3 signs of placental abruption.
1. painful vaginal bleeding 2. Hypotension - d/t bleeding 3. Rigid Abdomen - d/t blood accumulation in the abdomen.
64
_____ _____ is an obstructed labor. The baby can not exit the fetus.
Labor Dystocia
65
______ is when the uterus fails to contract & return to its nonpregnant size & location.
Subinvolution
66
_____ decels, _____ _____ decels, and _____ are ok.
early decels, mild variable decels, and accelerations.
67
_____ does not cause the expulsion of the placenta.
oxytocin
68
_______ is indicated when the mom is undergoing chorionic villus sampling.
Rho (D)
69
The second stage of labor is known as the _____ stage.
pushing stage
70
Fetal tachycardia is a HR > _____.
160
71
Fetal Bradycardia is a HR <______.
110
72
______ is one of the causes labor dystocia because of the maternal fatigue it induces.
Hypoglycemia
73
Magnesium sulfate ______ the uterus and may decrease the intensity of _____ ______.
relaxes the uterus / uterine contractions
74
Obesity is a risk for ______.
PPH
75
When dealing with mastitis the mother should ______ each breast at each finding & complete an entire course of the prescribed _____.
Empty / ATB
76
________ is inflammation of the uterine endometrium.
endometritis
77
A client with ______ has fever, pelvic tenderness, malaise, anorexia, and foul-smelling lochia.
endometritis
78
Treatment of endometritis is with _____ antibiotics and antipyretics.
IV
79
RHo (D) Immune Globulin therapy is administered at _____ weeks of pregnancy and within ____ hours of delivery.
28 weeks / 72 hours of delivery

NGN-NCLEX 2024 (62 decks)

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