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NGN-NCLEX 2024 > Final Pharmacology > Flashcards

Final Pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

What type of vaccine is rotavirus?

A

live attenuated

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2
Q

What is the preferred IM injection site for a newborn 12 months and under?

A

vastus lateralis (thigh)

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3
Q

Should you use the ventrogluteal site for injection in babies and kids?

A

no

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4
Q

Opthamalic drops should be deposited where?

A

lower conjunctival sac

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5
Q

Morphine and fentanyl are ____ ?

A

opiods

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6
Q

What is the antidote for opiod toxicity?

A

naloxone

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7
Q

Name some signs of opioid toxicity….

A
  1. pupillary constriction
  2. bradypnea
  3. hypotension
  4. decreased GI motility
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8
Q

Can you suction a trach cath in a swirling motion?

A

yes

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9
Q

Do you inflate a trach cath with oxygen?

A

no

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10
Q

Name some key vasopressors?

A

epi
norepi
dobutamine
dopamine
vasopressin

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11
Q

Vasopressors are used for what key thigs?

A

hypotension
shock
cardiac arrest
anaphylaxis

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12
Q

alphas constrict what?

A

blood vessels

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13
Q

The most severe side effect of aspirin is?

A

anaphylaxis

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14
Q

The most severe side effect of acetaminophen is?

A

hepatic toxicity
kidney damage
hepatic failure

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15
Q

what is the most severe side effect of ibuprofen?

A

gastric ulcers

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16
Q

Is the MMR vaccine safe to admin to breastfeeding clients?

A

yes

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17
Q

INH is also known as?

A

Isoniazide

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18
Q

Isoniazid is prescribed for?

A

TB

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19
Q

What is the most common adverse effect of TB drugs such as INH?

A

Hepatic toxicity - looks for signs of jaundice, clay colored stools, etc….

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20
Q

INH depletes vitamine ____?

A

B6

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21
Q

isosobidide is a ____?

A

nitrate (vasodilation)

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22
Q

Metformin depletes what vitamin?

A

B12

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23
Q

When prescribed enoxaparin a client should monitor what lab value?

A

platelets

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24
Q

Is ABO compatibility with platelets required?

A

no

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25
Q

when applying a fentanyl patch use ____ and ___ sites.

A

gloves / rotate

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26
Q

Buprenorphine is given to prevent ____ withdrawal.

A

opioid

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27
Q

hydromorphone, methadone, and oxycodone are ____.

A

Opioids

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28
Q

name some side effects of morphine (opioid)

A

pruritis
constipation
urinary retention
emesis
pupil construction

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29
Q

Ibuprofen, naproxen, ketorolac, celecoxib, indomethacin are _____.

A

NSAIDs

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30
Q

Acetylasalicylic Acid is also known as _____.

A

Aspirin

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31
Q

should you discontinue aspirin before surgery?

A

yes (5-7 days)

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32
Q

When is aspirin used in kids?

A

Kawasaki Disease

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33
Q

Name some signs of aspirin toxicity?

A

nausea
tinnitus
pulmonary edema
hyperventilation

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34
Q

What is Reyes syndrome?

A

It causes brain & liver damage.

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35
Q

______ is no anti-inflammatory action.

A

acetaminophen (used for mild to moderate pain and fever)

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36
Q

what is the treatment for acetaminophen toxicity?

A

activated charcoal
n-acetylcysteine (antidote)
gastric aspiration & lavage

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37
Q

whats the max daily acetaminophen dose?

A

3 grams

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38
Q

pril is ____

A

ace

39
Q

sartan is ____

A

ARBs

40
Q

mil is ______

A

CCBs

41
Q

hydralazine is a ____

A

dilator

42
Q

Name some side effects of ARBs

A

angioedema
dry cough
HA

43
Q

name some nursing considerations of angioedema.

A

report dry cough
stop ace inhibitors for at least 36 hours before taking other meds

44
Q

sartans are good for?

A

CHF
DM
neuropathy

45
Q

You do not give a CCB to a patient with a _____ block.

A

AV block because it slows the AV node

46
Q

What is a main side effect of a CCB? ‘mil’ ‘zem’.

A

Constipation (increase dietary fiber / fluid intake)

47
Q

Caution CCB’s ‘mil’ / ‘zem’ in ___ ___.

A

heart failure

48
Q

Do calcium channels endng in ‘pine’ cause constpation?

A

no

49
Q

what is the main side effect of CCB’s that end in ‘pine’.

A

gingival hyperplasia
don’t interact with grapefruit juice.

50
Q

CCB’s are great for clients with ____ or _____.

A

HF or AV block

51
Q

isosorbidide is a _____ and used to prevent ____.

A

vasodilator / angina

52
Q

cilostazol is used to treat?

A

intermittent claudication from peripheral arterial disease.

53
Q

Nitroglycerin is given every ___ minutes for ___ doses max.

A

5 / 3 doses max

54
Q

betablockers mask symptoms of what?

A

hypoglycemia

55
Q

Amiodarone, lidocaine, procainamide are _____.

A

antiarrhythmics

56
Q

Don’t give atropine (Cholinergic) to patients with ______.

A

glaucoma

57
Q

adenosine indicated for _____.

A

SVT

58
Q

What are some nursing considerations of Adenosine?

A

*a period of systole
*RAPID push or it will not work
*It will feel like someone kicked them in the chest.

59
Q

Digoxin lowers the _____.

A

HR

60
Q

Digoxin toxicity over 2.0 causes?

A

N/V
Dizzy
Vision (yellow green halos)
Anorexia

61
Q

What is the antidote for digixine?

A

digoxin immune FAB

62
Q

Potassium below ____ is a risk for digoxin toxicity.

A

3.5

63
Q

Is licorice extract bad for clients taking digoxin?

A

yes

64
Q

What are H1 antagonists drugs?

A

a class of drugs that treat allergic reactions by blocking histamine receptors in the central nervous system

65
Q

H1 antagonist drugs end in?

A

(ine) diphenhydramine , chlorpheniramine , hydroxyzine etc…..

66
Q

Do not give anticholinergics (ine) with other CNS depressants such as?

A

alcohol & opioids

66
Q

Be extremely cautious giving anticholinergics to what two types of patients?

A

Glaucoma & BPG (cant urinate)

67
Q

What are Glucocorticoids?

A

a class of steroid hormones produced by the adrenal cortex

68
Q

Name some glucocortiod drugs?

A

drugs ending in solone, sone, etc….

69
Q

budesonide, ciclesonide, fluticasone are all inhaled _____.

A

inhaled glucocorticoids

70
Q

Which glucocorticoids cause oral fungal infections?

A

Budenoside, ciclesonide, fluticasone. Rinse after use.

71
Q

What are some side effects of glucocorticoids?

A

fluid retention, muscle wasting, immunosuppression, metabolic disturbances.

72
Q

Zafirlukast & montelukast are what type of anatgonist?

A

block the action of leukotrienes, inflammatory chemicals released by the body.

73
Q

Is montelukast for short term or longterm use?

A

longterm - do NOT use for attacks

74
Q

What lab do you need to monitor when taking ‘lukast’ drugs?

A

monitor ALT (can cause liver injury)

75
Q

Beta 2 agonists open the airway. The drugs end in ‘___’?

A

rol (albuterol) good for asthma attacks

76
Q

respiratory drugs ending in ‘pium’ are what type of drugs?

A

anticholinergics

77
Q

drugs ending in ‘Phylline’ are fast or slow acting bronchodilators?

A

slower bronchodilators

78
Q

How long of an interval between inhalations?

A

at least 1 minute

79
Q

If a client is experiencing respiratory distress give _____ 1st.

A

Albuterol

80
Q

What do B2 agonists (erol) mask signs of?

A

hypoglycemia (also don’t give to glaucoma clients.)

81
Q

Do not give theophylline with _____, it can cause CNS stimulation & seizures.

A

ciprofloxacin

82
Q

What is the therapeutic level for Phenytoin?

A

10-20

83
Q

What are some signs of phenytoin toxicity?

A

Nystagmus (involuntary eye movements) , gait issues, mental status changes & slurred speech

84
Q

Are routine labs needed for phenytoin?

A

yes (because of narrow therapeutic level)

85
Q

type of toothbrush to use for phenytoin?

A

soft bristle brush d/t gingival hyperplasia *don’t stop taking the drug its expected.

86
Q

What is the antidote for lorazepam?

A

flumazenil

87
Q

what are some adverse effects of phenytoin?

A

new rash (new / painful)
suicidal ideation

88
Q

low dopamine =

A

low movement

89
Q

what are some side effects of carbidopa/ levodopa?

A

hallucinations (psychosis) o
orthostatic hypotension

90
Q

When does carbidopa / levodopa take a full therapeutic effect?

A

a few months

91
Q

_______ interferes with the absorption of levodopa.

A

protein (so low protein meals) *carbs are ok :)

92
Q

donepezil, rivastigmine and galantamine are used to improve the symptoms of? *cholinergic side effects

A

Alzheimer’s

NGN-NCLEX 2024 (63 decks)

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