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GOP Flashcards

1
Q

According to Conduct of Shift Operations, a minimum of ___(1)___ reactor operator(s) and ___(2)___ auxiliary operators shall be present within each unit at all times.
A. (1) one; (2) three
B. (1) one; (2) four
C. (1) two; (2) three
D. (1) two; (2) four

A

C

40DP-9OP02 Conduct of Shift Operations

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2
Q

Control Room Advisors shall normally communicate directly with the
A. Shift Manager ONLY.
B. Control Room Supervisor or Shift Manager ONLY.
C. Reactor Operator or Control Room Supervisor ONLY.
D. RO, CRS, or SM.

A

A

40DP-9OP02 Conduct of Shift Operations

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3
Q 
A Senior Reactor Operator must stand \_\_\_(1)\_\_\_ licensed shifts each calendar quarter to maintain an active license.  Of those shifts, at least \_\_\_(2)\_\_\_ must be as the Control Room Supervisor or Shift Manager.
A. (1) four; (2) one
B. (1) four; (2) two
C. (1) five; (2) one
D. (1) five; (2) two
A

C

40DP-9OP02 Conduct of Shift Operations

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4
Q

In order to maintain a valid NRC operator license, if any LOCT training material is missed by a license holder, make-up training shall be completed no later than:
A. the end of the current calendar quarter.
B. the end of the current training cycle.
C. six weeks after the training was missed.
D. six weeks after the end of the current training cycle.

A

D

40DP-9OP02 Conduct of Shift Operations

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5
Q 
According to Conduct of Shift Operations, the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ or Management Designee shall observe reactor startups and power ascensions from commencing CEA withdrawal until the unit is at 100% power or at the desired power level.
A. Chief Nuclear Officer
B. Plant Manager
C. Operations Director
D. Unit Operations Manager
A

D

40DP-9OP02 Conduct of Shift Operations

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6
Q

Who is required to be the Emergency Coordinator for the following events?

(1) A Vertical Concrete Cask, originally from Unit 2, falls off the train and breaks open on the way to the ISFSI.
(2) A Vertical Concrete Cask, originally from Unit 2, falls and breaks open one week after being place on its pad location in the ISFSI.

A. (1) Unit 1 SM; (2) Unit 1 SM
B. (1) Unit 1 SM; (2) Unit 2 SM
C. (1) Unit 2 SM; (2) Unit 1 SM
D. (1) Unit 2 SM; (2) Unit 2 SM

A

C

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7
Q 
A Main Turbine journal bearing temperature must not be \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ higher than Main Turbine Lube Oil cooler outlet temperature.
A. 10 degrees
B. 20 degrees
C. 45 degrees
D. 50 degrees
A

D

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8
Q

The preferred method to shutdown the reactor is to down power and then trip at 20% power because:
A. It prevents uncontrolled transients due to power reduction through feedwater swapover.
B. It prevents high pressure turbine vibrations at low power.
C. It maintains adequate suction pressure to the running main feed pump.
D. The turbine is less likely to overspeed if tripped at a lower load.

A

A

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9
Q 
Main Turbine journal bearing maximum temperature is \_\_\_(1)\_\_\_.  Main Turbine thrust bearing maximum temperature is \_\_\_(2)\_\_\_.
A. (1) 190F; (2) 190F
B. (1) 190F; (2) 250F
C. (1) 250F; (2) 190F
D. (1) 250F; (2) 250F
A

C

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10
Q

Unit 1 has just tripped from 100% power.
The Main Turbine has tripped and is currently at 1700 RPM and slowing.
The CO notes Main Turbine Journal Bearing #6 is at 7 mils.
What action should be taken?
A. Immediately break vacuum.
B. If vibration remains at 7 mils, allow the turbine to coast down without breaking vacuum.
C. If vibration slowly rises, break vacuum at 12 mils, regardless of turbine speed.
D. If vibration remains at 7 mils, immediately break vacuum once turbine speed lowers to 1200 RPM.

A

B

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11
Q

Unit 2 has just tripped from 100% power.
The Main Turbine has tripped and is currently at 1700 RPM and slowing.
The CO notes Main Turbine Journal Bearing #7 is at 12 mils and rapidly rising.
What action should be taken?
A. Immediately break vacuum regardless of turbine speed.
B. Immediately break vacuum once turbine speed lowers to 1200 RPM.
C. If vibration rises to 14 mils, immediately break vacuum, regardless of turbine speed.
D. If vibration rises to 14 mils, immediately break vacuum once turbine speed lowers to 1200 RPM.

A

A

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12
Q

When minimizing ASI oscillations, the RO should:
A. borate as ASI becomes more negative when passing through ESI.
B. dilute as ASI becomes more negative when passing through ESI.
C. withdraw Reg Group 5 CEAs at 130” withdrawn as ASI becomes more negative when passing through ESI.
D. insert Reg Group 5 CEAs at 30” withdrawn as ASI becomes more positive when passing through ESI.

A

B

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13
Q

Unit 3 is downpowering in preparation for a refueling outage.
During the downpower, condenser backpressure will be maintained:
A. less than 2” HgA to minimize monoblock rotor vibrations.
B. between 2” and 4” HgA to minimize monoblock rotor vibrations.
C. less than 2” HgA to maximize turbine efficiency.
D. between 2” and 4” HgA to maximize turbine efficiency.

A

B

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14
Q

Unit 1 is at 100% power with all systems in a normal lineup.
A calibration problem causes the feed water ultrasonic flowmeter to slowly read less than actual flow. This problem will cause indicated JSCALOR power to read ___(1)___ than actual power. If the operators adjust turbine load to maintain JSCALOR at 100%, as the calibration degrades, ___(2)___.
A. (1) greater; (2) an ERFDADS alarm will sound on turbine first stage pressure.
B. (1) greater; (2) a COLSS margin alarm will sound.
C. (1) less; (2) an ERFDADS alarm will sound on turbine first stage pressure.
D. (1) less; (2) a COLSS margin alarm will sound.

A

C

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15
Q 
Chemistry must be notified of power changes greater than \_\_\_(1)\_\_\_, because they are required by technical specifications to sample the \_\_\_(2)\_\_\_ 2 to 6 hours afterward.
A. (1) 10%; (2) primary coolant
B. (1) 10%; (2) steam generators
C. (1) 15%; (2) primary coolant
D. (1) 15%; (2) steam generators
A

C

40OP-9ZZ05 Power Operations
This ensures compliance with TS 3.4.17 Surveillance Requirement 3.4.17.2 for verifying RCS specific activity Between 2 and 6 hours after a thermal power change of ≥15% RTP within a 1 hour period.

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16
Q

Unit 1 is in Mode 4, cooling down in preparation for a refueling outage.
Actual Pressurizer Level is 50%. Tc is 300F.
Pressurizer Level Indicator RCA-LT-110X currently reads ___(1)___ than actual level.
Pressurizer Level Indicator RCN-LT-103 currently reads ___(2)___ than actual level.
A. (1) lower; (2) lower
B. (1) lower; (2) higher
C. (1) higher; (2) lower
D. (1) higher; (2) higher

A

C

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17
Q

Unit 1 is in Mode 6. The first head bolt has just been detensioned.
‘A’ Shutdown Cooling loop is in service with 4200 gpm of flow through the RCS.
SID-HV-654, Shutdown Cooling suction isolation valve, has seized in the closed position.
The pressurizer manway has been removed.
What is the current status of compliance with LCO 3.4.13, Low Temperature Overpressure Protection System?
A. In compliance, because the one required LTOP relief is in service.
B. In compliance, because the required RCS vent is established.
C. Not in compliance, because two required LTOP reliefs are not in service.
D. Compliance is irrelevant, as the condition does not apply in this mode.

A

B

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18
Q

Which of the following running RCP combinations shall be avoided to minimize RCP pump bearing damage?
A. 1A and 1B
B. 1A and 2A
C. 1B and 2A
D. 1B and 2B

A

C

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19
Q

Which is the preferred method for depressurizing the RCS?
A. Maintain main spray valves in a throttled position, open more as necessary as pressure lowers.
B. Maintain auxiliary spray valves in a throttled position, open more as necessary as pressure lowers.
C. Close main spray valves, then lower temperature to gain saturation margin, then open main spray valves. Repeat until the desired pressure is achieved.
D. Close auxiliary spray valves, then lower temperature to gain saturation margin, then open auxiliary spray valves. Repeat until the desired pressure is achieved.

A

A

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20
Q

For maximum SDC pump seal life, long term operation of shutdown cooling above ___(1)___ should be avoided. If operating SDC for longer than 4 days, the RCS should be maintained less than ___(2)___.
A. (1) 300F; (2) 180F
B. (1) 300F; (2) 135F
C. (1) 180F; (2) 135F
D. (1) 180F; (2) 115F

A

C

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21
Q

In Mode 5, the HPSI pumps are:
A. disabled by tripping their breakers’ 86 relays. An inadvertent start may overpressurize the RCS.
B. disabled by racking out their breakers. An inadvertent start may overpressurize the RCS.
C. disabled by jumpering field contacts for SIAS. An inadvertent start may overpressurize he RCS.
D. required to be left aligned to automatically start in the case of an RCS leak. The LTOP relief is designed to prevent RCS overpressurization.

A

A

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22
Q

The maximum allowable RCS heatup rate is ___(1)___. The maximum allowable pressurizer heatup rate is ___(2)___.
A. (1) 75F/hr; (2) 100F/hr
B. (1) 100F/hr; (2) 100F/hr
C. (1) 75F/hr; (2) 200F/hr
D. (1) 100F/hr; (2) 200F/hr

A

C

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23
Q

The maximum allowable RCS cooldown rate is ___(1)___. The maximum allowable pressurizer cooldown rate is ___(2)___.
A. (1) 75F/hr; (2) 100F/hr
B. (1) 100F/hr; (2) 100F/hr
C. (1) 75F/hr; (2) 200F/hr
D. (1) 100F/hr; (2) 200F/hr

A

D

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24
Q

Unit 1 is in Mode 5. ‘A’ train of SDC is in operation.
RCPs 1A and 1B are operating.
RCA-TT-115, Loop 1A temperature, reads 130F.
RCB-TT-125, Loop 2B temperature, reads 128F.
SIA-TT-351X, ‘A’ SDCHX inlet temperature, reads 129F.
SIA-TT-351Y, ‘A’ SDCHX outlet temperature, reads 125F.
Which indicator should be used to control RCS cooldown rate in accordance with 40ST-9RC01?
A. RCA-TT-115
B. RCB-TT-125
C. SIA-TT-351X
D. SIA-TT-351Y

A

A

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25
Q

Unit 1 is in Mode 5. ‘A’ train of SDC is in operation.
All RCPs are secured.
RCA-TT-115, Loop 1A temperature, reads 130F.
RCB-TT-125, Loop 2B temperature, reads 128F.
SIA-TT-351X, ‘A’ SDCHX inlet temperature, reads 129F.
SIA-TT-351Y, ‘A’ SDCHX outlet temperature, reads 125F.
Which indicator should be used to control RCS cooldown rate in accordance with 40ST-9RC01?
A. RCA-TT-115
B. RCB-TT-125
C. SIA-TT-351X
D. SIA-TT-351Y

A

D

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26
Q

Unit 3 is in Mode 3. The RCS is being cooled down and depressurized in preparation for a refueling outage.
Tc is 540F and lowering.
All 4 RCPs are running.
The RO is tracking the RCS cooldown using 40ST-9RC01 and desires to reduce pressurizer pressure.
If the RO cycles the main spray valves, it ___(1)___ required to be tracked. If the RO cycles an auxiliary spray valve, it ___(2)___ required to be tracked.
A. (1) is; (2) is
B. (1) is; (2) is not
C. (1) is not; (2) is
D. (1) is not; (2) is not

A

C

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27
Q

Unit 3 is in Mode 3. The RCS is being cooled down and depressurized in preparation for a refueling outage.
Tc is 450F and lowering.
The RO is tracking the RCS cooldown using 40ST-9RC01 and desires to reduce pressurizer pressure.
If the RO cycles the main spray valves, it ___(1)___ required to be tracked. If the RO cycles an auxiliary spray valve, it ___(2)___ required to be tracked.
A. (1) is; (2) is
B. (1) is; (2) is not
C. (1) is not; (2) is
D. (1) is not; (2) is not

A

A

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28
Q

Unit 1 tripped from 100% power 15 hours ago.
The condition that caused the reactor trip has been repaired, and management desires to restart the reactor as soon as possible.
An Estimated Critical Condition is calculated for a start-up 100 hours after the trip.
If this ECC is used to perform a reactor startup in the next five hours, then the reactor…
A. will achieve criticality at a CEA position later than previously estimated.
B. will achieve criticality at a CEA position earlier than previously estimated.
C. will achieve criticality around the CEA position previously estimated.
D. will be unable to achieve criticality.

A

A

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29
Q

Unit 1 tripped from 100% power 15 hours ago.
The condition that caused the reactor trip has been repaired, and management desires to restart the reactor as soon as possible.
An Estimated Critical Condition is calculated for a start-up 48 hours after the trip.
If the startup is delayed beyond those 48 hours, and a new ECC is not calculated, then when CEAs are pulled to bring the reactor critical, the reactor…
A. will achieve criticality at a CEA position later than previously estimated.
B. will achieve criticality at a CEA position earlier than previously estimated.
C. will achieve criticality around the CEA position previously estimated.
D. will be unable to achieve criticality.

A

B

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30
Q

The Estimated Critical Condition calculated for a reactor startup must be performed for a time that is…
A. within one hour of the estimated time of criticality if the reactor has been shutdown for 48 hours.
B. within 24 hours of the estimated time of criticality if the reactor has been shutdown for 48 hours.
C. within 36 hours of the estimated time of criticality if the reactor has been shutdown for 120 hours.
D. within 48 hours of the estimated time of criticality if the reactor has been shutdown for 120 hours.

A

A

31
Q

The Estimated Critical Condition calculation is performed by ___(1)___. It is required to be approved by the ___(2)___
A. (1) a qualified Reactor Operator; (2) Control Room Supervisor
B. (1) a qualified Reactor Operator; (2) Shift Manager
C. (1) Reactor Engineering; (2) Control Room Supervisor
D. (1) Reactor Engineering; (2) Shift Manager

A

D

32
Q

During RCS heatup, RCS flow through the SDC system shall be stopped before the RCS temperature reaches…
A. 300F to prevent thermal binding of LTOP isolation valves.
B. 300F to prevent degradation of LPSI pump seals.
C. 350F to prevent thermal binding of LTOP isolation valves.
D. 350F to prevent degradation of LPSI pump seals.

A

A

33
Q

Unit 1 is in Mode 5.
A steam bubble is being established in the pressurizer with heaters and venting to the RDT.
Which of the following events indicate the steam bubble has been established?
A. RDT level rises, and RDT pressure rises faster
B. RDT level remains constant, and RDT pressure remains constant
C. RDT level rises, and RDT pressure rise slows down
D. RDT level remains constant, and RDT pressure rises faster

A

C

34
Q 
When performing an RCS heatup, the third RCP may be started when RCS temperature is greater than \_\_\_(1)\_\_\_.  The fourth RCP may be started when RCS temperature is greather than \_\_\_(2)\_\_\_.
A. (1) 200F; (2) 400F
B. (1) 200F; (2) 500F
C. (1) 300F; (2) 400F
D. (1) 300F; (2) 500F
A

B

35
Q

Unit 2 is in Mode 3. A mid-cycle reactor startup is in progress.
All shutdown and part-strength CEAs are fully withdrawn.
All regulating group CEAs are fully inserted.
Startup channels are both reading 70 cps.
The RO begins withdrawing CEAs in Manual Sequential to the first hold point, Group 2 at 12 inches.
As CEAs pass through Group 1 at 81 inches, the RO notes that Startup channels are reading 150 cps.
What is the required action?
A. Stop moving CEAs, allow power to stabilize, evaluate ACP.
B. Trip the reactor and emergency borate.
C. Trip the reactor and ensure adequate shutdown margin.
D. Continue withdrawing CEAs to the hold point.

A

C

36
Q

Unit 2 is in Mode 3. A mid-cycle reactor startup is in progress.
All shutdown and part-strength CEAs are fully withdrawn.
Regulating Group CEAs are at the second hold point, Group 2 at 45 inches.
Startup channels are both reading 150 cps.
The RO begins withdrawing CEAs in Manual Sequential to the third hold point, Group 3 at 12 inches.
As CEAs pass through Group 2 at 81 inches, the RO notes that Startup channels are reading 310 cps.
What is the required action?
A. Stop moving CEAs, allow power to stabilize, evaluate ACP.
B. Trip the reactor and emergency borate.
C. Trip the reactor and ensure adequate shutdown margin.
D. Continue withdrawing CEAs to the hold point.

A

A

37
Q

Unit 2 is in Mode 3. A mid-cycle reactor startup is in progress.
All shutdown and part-strength CEAs are fully withdrawn.
Regulating groups have been withdrawn in Manual Sequential to Group 3 at 60”.
Regulating groups 1 and 2 are at the UEL.
Startup channels are both reading 300 cps.
The RO begins withdrawing CEAs to the next hold point, Group 4 at 12 inches.
As CEAs pass through Group 3 at 81 inches, the RO notes that Startup channels are reading 610 cps.
What is the required action?
A. Stop moving CEAs, allow power to stabilize, evaluate ACP.
B. Trip the reactor and emergency borate.
C. Trip the reactor and ensure adequate shutdown margin.
D. Continue withdrawing CEAs to the hold point.

A

A

38
Q

Unit 3 is in Mode 3. A mid-cycle reactor startup is in progress.
Mode 2 will be declared…
A. When calculated effective multiplication factor (keff) exceeds 0.99.
B. When CEAs reach the ECRP -750 pcm position.
C. When CEAs reach the ECRP -500 pcm position.
D. When the reactor is critical.

A

C

39
Q

Unit 2 is in Mode 3. A mid-cycle reactor startup is in progress.
All shutdown and part-strength CEAs are fully withdrawn.
Regulating Group CEAs are at the second hold point, Group 2 at 45 inches.
Startup channels are both reading 150 cps.
The RO begins withdrawing CEAs in Manual Sequential to the third hold point, Group 3 at 12 inches.
Rod motion is stopped once the RO notes Startup channels reading 300 cps.
Regulating group 2 is at 81 inches.
Power continues to rise at an exponential rate.
What is the required action?
A. Allow power to stabilize, evaluate ACP.
B. Trip the reactor and emergency borate.
C. Trip the reactor and ensure adequate shutdown margin.
D. Continue withdrawing CEAs to the hold point.

A

B

40
Q

Unit 2 is in Mode 2. A mid-cycle reactor startup is in progress.
All shutdown and part-strength CEAs are fully withdrawn.
Regulating groups have been withdrawn in Manual Sequential to Group 4 at 75”.
Regulating groups 1 and 2 are at the UEL.
Startup channels are de-energized. Log power is 1.5e-05%.
The last ACP calculated there is 140 pcm left to criticality.
The RO begins withdrawing CEAs to the next hold point, Group 4 at 90 inches.
As CEAs pass through Group 4 at 81 inches, the RO notes that Log Power reads 3.0e-05%.
What is the required action?
A. Stop moving CEAs, allow power to stabilize, evaluate ACP.
B. Trip the reactor and emergency borate.
C. Trip the reactor and ensure adequate shutdown margin.
D. Continue withdrawing CEAs to the hold point.

A

D

41
Q 
Maximum allowed deviation between pressurizer level instruments is:
A. 1%
B. 3%
C. 5%
D. 7%
A

B

42
Q

Cooldown of the pressurizer is accomplished by:
A. Maintaining level constant with continuous main spray flow
B. Maintaining level constant with continuous auxiliary spray flow
C. Raising and lowering level with continuous main spray flow
D. Raising and lowering level with continuous auxiliary spray flow

A

D

43
Q

Unit 1 is in Mode 6. Refueling is in progress.
The containment hatch is closed.
Refueling purge is in service.
If a Refueling Purge Exhaust Fan were to trip…
A. Spent Fuel Pool and Refuel Pool level will go down
B. Spent Fuel Pool and Refuel Pool level will go up
C. Spent Fuel Pool level will rise, and Refuel Pool level will go down
D. Spent Fuel Pool level will lower, and Refuel Pool level will go up

A

C

44
Q 
Partial Drain is defined as an RCS level of:
A. 114’ to 117’
B. 111’ to 114’
C. 103’1” to 111’
D. 101’6” to 103’1”
A

A

45
Q 
Lowered Inventory is defined as an RCS level of:
A. 114’ to 117’
B. 111’ to 114’
C. 103’1” to 111’
D. 101’6” to 103’1”
A

B

46
Q 
Reduced Inventory is defined as an RCS level of:
A. 114’ to 117’
B. 111’ to 114’
C. 103’1” to 111’
D. 101’6” to 103’1”
A

C

47
Q 
Mid-loop is defined as an RCS level of:
A. 114’ to 117’
B. 111’ to 114’
C. 103’1” to 111’
D. 101’6” to 103’1”
A

D

48
Q 
Allowable shutdown cooling flow rates based on time after shutdown, as well as RCS time-to-boil values following loss of shutdown cooling, are found in:
A. Core Operating Limits Report
B. Improved Technical Specifications
C. Safety Analysis Operational Data
D. Technical Requirements Manual
A

C

49
Q 
Unit 1 is in Mode 6.  RCS level is 116’.
RWLIS channels A and B are in service.
‘A’ train of SDC is in service with ‘A’ LPSI pump at 4200 gpm.
RWLIS compensation switch is in NONE.
Currently, ‘A’ RWLIS reads \_\_\_(1)\_\_\_ than ‘B’ RWLIS.  If ‘A’ SDC flow is raised, ‘A’ RWLIS will \_\_\_(2)\_\_\_.
A. (1) higher; (2) rise
B. (1) higher; (2) lower
C. (1) lower; (2) rise
D. (1) lower; (2) lower
A

D

50
Q

Unit 3 is in Mode 6. RCS level is 102’.
‘A’ train of SDC is in service with ‘A’ LPSI pump at 4600 gpm.
The RO notes oscillating amps on the ‘A’ LPSI pump.
Which of the actions will correct the problem?
A. Realign ‘A’ CS pump to shutdown cooling.
B. Place ‘B’ LPSI pump on shutdown cooling in parallel with ‘A’ LPSI pump.
C. Secure ‘A’ LPSI pump, and realign shutdown cooling using ‘B’ LPSI pump.
D. Reduce ‘A’ LPSI pump flow to 4100 gpm.

A

D

51
Q 
Whose authorization is required to open the Containment Equipment Hatch when the RCS is in Reduced Inventory?
A. Operations Director
B. Unit Department Leader
C. Shift Manager
D. Control Room Supervisor
A

B

52
Q 
Whose authorization is required to open the Containment Equipment Hatch when RCS level is greater than 117’?
A. Operations Director
B. Unit Department Leader
C. Shift Manager
D. Control Room Supervisor
A

C

53
Q

Unit 3 is in Mode 6 and in Reduced Inventory.
The _______ is required to notify ECC in order to restrict unnecessary work in the SRP switchyard.
A. The Unit 3 Shift Manager
B. The Unit 3 Unit Department Leader
C. The Unit 1 Unit Department Leader
D. The Unit 1 Shift Manager

A

D

54
Q

Which of the following duties does NOT qualify as covered work per 01DP-0AP17, Managing Personnel Fatigue?
A. Performing VPI calibration of a steam bypass control valve.
B. Performing routine radiological area surveys during normal dayshift hours, not as the on-shift radiological technician.
C. Serving as a member of the on-shift Security Force.
D. Acting as Fire Team Advisor during a shift, with no other concurrent duties.

A

B

55
Q 
The maximum number of hours a covered worker is permitted to work in a rolling 48 hour period is:
A. 24 hours
B. 26 hours
C. 28 hours
D. 30 hours
A

B

56
Q 
In addition to a ten-hour break between normal shifts, a minimum break of \_\_\_(1)\_\_\_ continuous hours is required every \_\_\_(2)\_\_\_ days.
A. (1) 36; (2) 8
B. (1) 36; (2) 9
C. (1) 34; (2) 8
D. (1) 34; (2) 9
A

D

57
Q

A licensed reactor operator is working as the ATC operator during dayshift in Unit 1.
Which of the following activities, conducted immediately prior to the shift, must be tracked as working hours per 01DP-0AP17, Managing Personnel Fatigue?
A. Shift turnover
B. Thirty minutes of transit time from the parking lot to Unit 1
C. Responding to company e-mail while snacking prior to taking the shift
D. Studying for the upcoming cycle exam at home prior to leaving for work

A

C

58
Q 
Who, by title, is authorized to approve a waiver to exceed work hour requirements per 01DP-0AP17, Managing Personnel Fatigue?
A. Unit Department Leader
B. Shift Manager
C. Control Room Supervisor
D. Operations Director
A

B

59
Q

A RO who normally works in Unit 3 has been medically disqualified from licensed duties. What action is required?
A. The Unit 3 Shift Manager will make an entry in the Unit 3 log.
B. The Unit 1 Shift Manager will make an entry in the Unit 1 log.
C. The Unit 3 CRS will make an entry in the Unit 3 log.
D. The Unit 1 CRS will make an entry in the Unit 1 log.

A

B

60
Q

In accordance with 40DP-9OP22, Operations Logkeeping, the Reactor Operator is responsible for logging which of the following?
A. Compliance with REQUIRED ACTIONS in Technical Specifications
B. Energy Control Center directives
C. Entry into a Chemistry Action Level
D. Unexpected alarms for which the cause has not been discovered

A

B

61
Q 
The Reactor Operator logs which of the following to maintain power less than the licensed power limit? (assume JSCALOR is in service)
A. JSCALORC every 10 minutes
B. JSCALOR every 15 minutes
C. JSCALOR every 60 minutes
D. JSCALORH every 60 minutes
A

D

62
Q

Unit 1 is at 100% power with all systems in a normal lineup.
A steam pressure transmitter failure renders JSCALOR out of service.
The RO notes that NKBDELTC reads 99.0%
What action is required?
A. Maintain NKBDELTC less than 99.0% power indefinitely.
B. Maintain NKBDELTC less than 100.0% power indefinitely.
C. Maintain NKBDELTC less than 99.0% power for the next four hours, then maintain NKBDELTC less than 96.6% power.
D. Maintain NKBDELTC less than 100.0% power for the next four hours, then maintain NKBDELTC less than 96.6% power.

A

C

63
Q

If a surveillance test also performs an in-service test of a class pump, within how much time does the CRS have to perform the leader review?
A. 48 hours after the pump run
B. 48 hours after the ST acceptance review
C. 96 hours after the pump run
D. 96 hours after the ST acceptance review

A

D

64
Q

Unit 1 is at 100% power with all systems in a normal lineup.
A 200 gpd steam generator tube leak develops on the #1 steam generator.
40DP-9ZZ14, Contaminated Water Management, has been implemented.
Which of the following plant evolutions in Unit 1 should be stopped?
A. Processing TDS tanks with the LRS Evaporator.
B. Processing the CVCS HUT with the Boric Acid Concentrator.
C. Regenerating Condensate Demineralizer resin.
D. Release of CWNTs to the Retention Tanks.

A

C

65
Q

Unit 1 is at 100% power with all systems in a normal lineup.
It is currently 2000, and night shift work is in progress.
Which of the following conditions require generation of a Technical Specification Component Condition Record (TSCCR)?
A. ‘A’ Condensate Transfer Pump trips during performance of a surveillance test.
B. ‘A’ Charging Pump is isolated for pulsation dampener adjustments, due to be completed by midnight.
C. Performance of 40ST-9RC02 discovers 0.1 gpm plunger leak from the ‘E’ Charging Pump.
D. ‘B’ Diesel Generator ‘A’ air compressor and dryer are tagged out for maintenance to be performed the following day.

A

C

66
Q

Unit 1 is performing a periodic surveillance test on the ‘B’ HPSI pump.
‘B’ HPSI pump was OPERABLE prior to the start of the surveillance test.
A valve was opened to install M&TE, rendering ‘B’ HPSI INOPERABLE.
The pump was run, and all data was collected. All data and calculations are within the required tolerances.
At what point may the CRS declare the ‘B’ HPSI pump OPERABLE?
A. As soon as all test equipment is removed.
B. As soon as all test equipment is removed and all valves are returned to their normal position.
C. As soon as all test equipment is removed, all valves are returned to their normal position, and all manipulated valves have been independently verified.
D. As soon as all test equipment is removed, all valves are returned to their normal position and independently verified, and the surveillance test has been acceptance reviewed.

A

C

67
Q

When operating a motor-operated throttle valve, how is the valve ensured to be fully closed?
A. Green light is on, red light is off
B. Board indication that flow past the valve is 0 gpm
C. Locally verify the valve position indicator is at the closed position
D. Maintain the handswitch in the closed position for 5 seconds beyond the time when full closed indication was received.

A

D

68
Q 
How is a manually seated motor operated valve identified in the control room?
A.	CRDL
B.	Equipment Status Tag
C.	Permanent label
D.	Yellow CAUTION tag
A

B

69
Q

Which of the following records are required to be reviewed by the oncoming CRS prior to taking the shift?
A. Unit logs from the previous seven days
B. Standing Orders
C. Night Orders
D. Control Room Turnover Comments

A

C

70
Q

Which of the following records are required to be reviewed by an oncoming RO prior to taking the shift?
A. Chemistry Control Instructions
B. Effluent Release Permits
C. Unit logs from the previous three days
D. TSCCR log

A

C

71
Q

A mode or condition change should be made within 24 hours of ___(1)___ the Mode Change Checklist. If this time is exceeded, the ___(2)___ may authorize extension of the checklist to make the mode or condition change.
A. (1) starting; (2) SM
B. (1) starting; (2) CRS
C. (1) completing; (2) SM
D. (1) completing; (2) CRS

A

A

72
Q

A Mode Change Checklist exists for all of the following condition changes EXCEPT:
A. Raising RCS pressure to greater than or equal to 385 psia
B. Raising Reactor Power greater than 50%
C. Movement of irradiated fuel in the spent fuel pool
D. Closing Reactor Trip breakers

A

B

73
Q

How much load is picked up on the Main Generator immediately after syncing to the grid?

A

As soon as the breaker is closed, getting load on the machine keeps it away from the reverse power trip region.
Once the generator load has been raised above 50 MWe (for 30 seconds), the reverse power relay will not cause a trip unless a reverse power condition subsequently occurs. (e.g. load could be reduced to 40 MWe without causing a reverse power trip).

74
Q

What is the minimum generator load for normal operaions?

A

The minimum generator load for normal operations is approximately 5% of rated load. Operation below the minimum recommended load may result in higher moisture erosion rates of the last stage buckets. Exhaust hood sprays must be used in this condition because of the reduction in flow of low temperature exhaust steam which normally provides cooling for the last rows of turbine blades.

LOIT 2024 (69 decks)

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