EXAM 4 TOPICS Flashcards

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1
Q

What is MIC

A

minimum inhibitory concentration

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2
Q

How do you determine MIC

A

where there is no growth

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3
Q

What does the kirby bauer tells us

A

which has the zone of inhibition and therefore is susceptible to being treated

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4
Q

Define intrinsic resistance

A

cells have an innate or natural resistance to a drug

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5
Q

Define tolerance or situational resistance

A

a usually susceptible cell is in an environmental situation where it is no longer as susceptible to the drug

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6
Q

Define aquired resistance

A

permanent, genetically encoded resistance to an antimicrobial drug

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7
Q

How does acquired resistance occur

A

through natural selection and mutations

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8
Q

What type of pathogen is S. aureus

A

human oppurtonistic pathogen

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9
Q

What’s a human oppurtonistic pathogen

A

can cause disease by penetrating a break in the skin or through mucous membrane

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10
Q

What is S. aureus susceptible to

A

penicillin

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11
Q

What is MRSA resistant to all

A

beta lactams AKA nosocomial

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12
Q

what are the two mechanisms of resistance to beta lactams by MRSA and other bacteria

A
  1. alternative enzyme PBPZA –> Marjority of MRSA
  2. Beta lactamases inactivating enzymes
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13
Q

What is PBP2

A

new transpeptidase that helps form the bacterial cell wall; has low affinity for antibiotics so it enables normal cell wall synthesis even in the presence of penicillin and the bacteria can grow and replicate as normal

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14
Q

PBP2–>

A

alternative enzyme: expression of new transpeptidase PBP2 with LOW affinity to beta lactams

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15
Q

What do beta lactamases –>

A

inactivating enzymes; enzymatic inactivation of drug by beta lactamases

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16
Q

What is beta lactamases

A

enzyme produced that secreted by bactera that degrade all beta lactam structure; so cells are resistant to its affects on cell wall synthesis

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17
Q

What are the treatment options for bacterial infections with beta lactamases resistance

A

cocktail treatmetn with Clavulanate, an inhibitor of beta lactamses

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18
Q

What are the 5 mechanisms for microbes to acquire antibiotic resistance

A

prudent antibiotic prescription and patient compliance
surveillance to limit spread, prevention measures
development of new drug
combo therapy
infection control by other methods

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19
Q

What are the 5 ways that microbes get acquired resistance

A

increase efflux
decrease uptake
target alteration
alternative enzyme
inactivating enzymes

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20
Q

What is the significance of vitamin deficiency in some animals

A

microbes can be a significant nutritional source of vitamin

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21
Q

What is the significance of underdevelopment of immune system in most animals

A

microbes are needed to stimulate development of certain host defenses

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22
Q

What is the significance of heightened susceptibility to enteric pathogens and fungal infections

A

normal bacterial residents are antagonistic against pathogens

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23
Q

What is the significance of less body fat

A

normal microbiota help to break down indigestible carbohydrates and increased fat storage in the body

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24
Q

What are the phases of infection

A
  1. portal of entry
  2. attach to host
  3. invading host
  4. infection
  5. portal of exit
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25
Q

What is the incubation period

A

time from initial contact with the infectious agent to the appearance of first symptoms; agent is multiplying but damage is insufficient to cause symptoms

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26
Q

What is the prodromal stagw

A

vague feelings of discomfort; nonspecific complains

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27
Q

What is the period of invasion

A

multiplies at high levels, becomes well established, more specific signs and symptoms

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28
Q

What is the covalescent period

A

as person begins to respond to the infection, symptoms decline.

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29
Q

What is measles portal of entrance

A

respiratory

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30
Q

What is small pox portal of entrance

A

respiratory

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31
Q

What is the portal of entrance for anthrax

A

respiratory; cutaneous

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32
Q

What is the portal of entrance for salmonella

A

ingestion

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33
Q

________ _____ not only contribute to the ability of microbes to evade host defense and enter into the host tissue to grow and become establish

A

virulence factors

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34
Q

Virulence factors directly contribute to wha

A

tissue damage hence the severity of disease

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35
Q

What can microbes encounter resistance from

A

host defenses and human microbiota

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36
Q

What is the initial response when someone invades the host

A

WBC called phagocytes

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37
Q

What occurs with blocked phagocytic response

A

a bacterial cell will excrete surface slime layer that makes it physically difficult for phagocyte to engulf them

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38
Q

What does the portal of exit mean

A

transmission of disease to a new host

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39
Q

What is an incubation carrier

A

spread during the incubation period

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40
Q

What is a convalescent carrier

A

recuperating without symptoms

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41
Q

what is a chronic carrier

A

individual who shelters the infectious agent for a long period

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42
Q

What are the direct transmission of infectious disease

A

contact
respiratory droplet
vertical (mother to child)
biological vector

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43
Q

What are the indirect transmission of infectious disease

A

fomites
food and waste
airborne (droplet or aerosols)

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44
Q

where does ebola replicate in the host cell

A

cytoplasm–ssrNA virus that infects human cells

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45
Q

How does ebola spread

A

through direct contact with fluids

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46
Q

What is the portal of entry for ebola

A

mucous membranes
skin
cuts

47
Q

What needs to occur before the nurses can release a patient from ebola isolation

A

microbial load must be below a threshold detection level

symptom free

48
Q

What is a nosocomial infection

A

infection acquired during a hospital visit that was not there originally

49
Q

What are the physical barriers of innate immunity

A

skin cemented together with keratin
mucous membranes
flushing

50
Q

What do lysozymes do

A

antimicrobial because they cleave PT resulting in osmotic lysis of bacterial cells

51
Q

What does dermicidin do for chemical innate defens

A

skill cells produce dermicidin that helps eliminate bacteria

52
Q

What are cytokines

A

signalling proteins for immune system

53
Q

What are the 3 types of cytokines

A

interluekins
chemokines
interferons

54
Q

What are interleukins

A

modulate almost every function of the immune system

55
Q

What are chemokines

A

recruit leukocytes to the site of infection, tissue damage, and inflammation

56
Q

What do interferons do

A

important in our defense against viruses by interfering with viral replication

57
Q

What are the 3 things the stem cells differentiate into for blood

A

RBC
WBC
platelets

58
Q

What do WBC differentiate into further

A

monocytes
neutrophils
immune cells involved in adaptive immunity (B, T, and NK cells)

59
Q

What is the purpose of neutrophils

A

phagocytes that are active engulfers and killers of bacteria

60
Q

What do monocytes further differentiate into

A

macrophages and dendritic cells

61
Q

What are macrophages and dendritic cells also

A

Antigen-presenting cells

62
Q

Are WBC non specific

A

yes

63
Q

Malaria spreads via vector; what is that

A

an animal or insect that transmit a pathogen from host to host

64
Q

What is the mechanism of paslmodium flaciparum aka malaria

A

infect RBC

65
Q

What group has natural immunity to malaria

A

sickle cell trait

66
Q

What are the challenges of treating malaria

A

control mosquito
control parasite growth

67
Q

Leukocytes display special molecules on their membranes known as PRRs which recognize what

A

PAMP

68
Q

What do PAMPs act as

A

a red flag to signal WBC

69
Q

What is phagocytosis

A

ingestion and destruction by WBC

70
Q

What is thymus and bone marrow

A

primary lymph tissue

71
Q

What is the spleen responsible for

A

filtering blood

72
Q

What is the function of the lymph nodes

A

to filter the lymph fluid

73
Q

How does lymph get into the systemic system

A

lymph continues to trickle from the lymph nodes via efferent ducts into system of larger drainage vessels, which connects to large veins near the heart

74
Q

Cells and products of immunity can do what due to the close relationship of lymphatic system and circulatory system

A

continually enter the regular circulation

75
Q

Cells involved in innate immunity are called _______ and form

A

WBC or leukocytes; stem cells

76
Q

WBC have ________ on their surface that recognize many microbes by their PAMP

A

PRR

77
Q

Through the process __________ the WBC internalizes foreign material or pathogens and destroy them

A

phagocytosis

78
Q

After phagocytosis, ___________ expel debris and die, whereas ______________ present an antigen derived from the degraded material

A

neutrophils; macrophages and dendritic cells

79
Q

What will reset the hypothalamus to increase body temperature

A

pyrogen

80
Q

What are the two benefits of fever

A

increase temp to make the growth conditions less favorable

stimulates immune system further

81
Q

Unlike innate immunity adaptive immunity responses are tailored to

A

specific threats that are not self–antigens

82
Q

Unlike innate immunity adaptive immunity response time ________ with subsequent exposure to a pathogen while innate is the _______ everytime

A

shortens; same

83
Q

The cardinal signes of inflammation: what does SHARP stand for

A

SWELLING
HEAT
ALTERED FUNCTION
REDNESS
PAIN

84
Q

________ immunity discriminates well between self and non-self while ________ acts indiscriminately

A

adaptive; innate

85
Q

______ is made up of classes of identical cells; ________ enormous diversity that can recognize trillions of antigens

A

innate; adaptive

86
Q

_________ is made of the same type of response to each pathogen; ________ is specific and unique response to each pathogen

A

innate; adaptive

87
Q

________ remembers previous exposure to antigens to mount stronger subsequent response while _________ has no memory of previous exposure

A

adaptive; innate

88
Q

What are the two features of adaptive immunity that is very different from innate immunity

A

specificity and memory

89
Q

_________ help with specificity

A

antibodies

90
Q

_____ help with memory

A

lymphocytes

91
Q

Define antigen

A

molecules that are recognized by T cells or B cells and have very specific interaction

92
Q

Good antigens tend to be _________ while poor antigens include

A

complex molecule; small, simple molecules not attached to a carrier molecule and simple large molecules

93
Q

What do b cells do in the cooperation between lymphocytes during antigen presentation

A

B cells assist in the production and actions of antibodies in response to the antigen–APC

94
Q

what do t cells do in the cooperation between lymphocytes during the antigen presentation

A

respond to the APC’s

95
Q

B cell receptors are called ________ and they bind __________

A

antibodies; antigens

96
Q

T cell receptors bind _________ molecules that present antigens

A

MHC–2 receptors with an antigen

97
Q

What do t cells release

A

cytokines, can induce lysis or apoptosis, can stimulate beta cell maturation

98
Q

Where do t cells mature and then migrate

A

full maturation in the thymus gland, then migrate to the lymphoid organs

99
Q

Where are CD4 on

A

t helper cells

100
Q

Where are CD8 on

A

T cytotoxic cells

101
Q

What are the examples of antigen presenting cells

A

dendritic cells
macrophages
B cells

102
Q

What do CD8 cytotoxic t cells do

A

recognize MHC 2 and antigen and target the cell for destruction

103
Q

What do CD4 t helper cells do

A

recognize MHC-2 and antigen to trigger cytokine production

104
Q

What do CD4 T memory cells do

A

protect against future encounters with the same antigen

105
Q

What is natural immunity

A

acquired as part of normal life experience

106
Q

What is artificial immunity

A

acquired through medical procedures like a vaccine (also called immunization)

107
Q

What is active immunity

A

a person develops their own immune response to an antigen that stimulates production of antibodies to create memory cells and takes time but is lasting

108
Q

What is passive immunity

A

pre formed antibodies are made by one individual and donated to another individual; does not create memory, acts immediately and is short term

109
Q

What do vaccines do

A

train our body to recognize and fight the disease if we encounter it in the future

110
Q

If only a portion of a pathogen is being used as the basis for a vaccine, it would be an

A

acellular vaccine

111
Q

What is a recombinant vaccine

A

from genetic material

112
Q

What is a killed vaccine

A

from killed cell or inativated virus

113
Q

What is an attenuated vaccine

A

live cells and viruses