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Mammalian Physiology > Exam 2 Info - Slides > Flashcards

Exam 2 Info - Slides Flashcards

1
Q 
skeletal muscle tissue: 
attached to ... and ... 
.... 
... (i.e. conscious control) 
powerful
A

bones; skin;
striated;
voluntary

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2
Q

cardiac muscle tissue:
only in the ..
…
…

A

heart
striated
involuntary

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3
Q 
smooth muscle tissue: 
in the walls of ... (e..g stomach, urinary bladder, and airways) 
not ... 
... 
... to act compared to striated muscle
A

hollow organs;
striated;
involuntary;
slower

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4
Q

special characteristics of muscle tissue:
… (… or …): ability to receive and respond to stimuli
…: ability to shorten when stimulated
…: ability to be stretched
…: ability to recoil to resting length

A

excitability; responsiveness; irritability;
contractility;
extensibility;
elasticity

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5
Q 
muscle functions: 
... of bones/fluids (e.g. blood) 
maintaining ... and ... 
... 
... (especially skeletal muscle)
A

movement;
posture; body position;
stabilizing joints;
heat generation

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6
Q

(skeletal muscle) each muscle is served by one …, one …, and one or more …

A

artery; nerve; veins

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7
Q

(skeletal muscle)
connective tissue sheaths of skeletal muscle:
…: dense regular connective tissue surrounding entire muscle
…: fibrous connective tissue surrounding fascicles (groups of muscle fibers)
…: fine areolar connective tissue surrounding each muscle fiber

A

epimysium;
perimysium;
endomysium

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8
Q

(skeletal muscle)
muscles attach:
directly – … of muscle is fused to the … of bone or … of cartilage

A

epimysium; periosteum; perichondrium

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9
Q

(skeletal muscle)
muscles attach:
indirectly - connective tissue wrappings extend beyond the muscle as a … or …

A

ropelike tendon; sheetlike aponeurosis

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10
Q

(skeletal muscle)

periosteum: double layered connective tissue that … and … bone
perichondrium: fibrous, connective membrane covering the …. of … structures

A

covers; nourishes;

external surface; cartilaginous

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11
Q 
(skeletal muscle) 
skeletal muscle fiber: 
... cell 10-100 micrometers in diameter, up to 30 cm long 
multiple ... 
many ...
A

cylindrical;
peripheral nuclei;
mitochondria

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12
Q

(skeletal muscle)
skeletal muscle fiber:
… for glycogen storage, … for oxygen storage

A

glycosomes; myoglobin

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13
Q 
(skeletal muscle) 
skeletal muscle fiber:
also contain: 
... 
...
...
A

myofibrils;
sarcoplasmic reticulum;
T tubules

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14
Q

(skeletal muscle)
myofibrils:
densely packed, … elements
about …% of cell volume

A

rodlike; 80

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15
Q 
(skeletal muscle) 
myofibrils:
exhibit ...: perfectly aligned repeating series of dark A bands and light I bands 
A bands = ... filaments 
I bands = ... filaments
A

striations;
myosin thick;
actin thin

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16
Q

(skeletal muscle)
sarcomere:
smallest …. (… unit) of a muscle fiber
the region of a myofibril between two successive … (…)
composed of … and … filaments

A

contractile unit; functional unit;
Z discs; alpha-actinin;
thick; thin

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17
Q

(skeletal muscle) …: run the entire length of an an A band (dark)
…: run the length of the I band (light) and partway into the A band

A

thick filaments; thin filaments;

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18
Q

(skeletal muscle) …: coin shaped sheet of proteins that anchors the thin filaments and connects myofibrils to one another (protein is …)
…: line of protein … that holds adjacent thick filaments together

A

Z disc; alpha-actinin

M line; myomesin

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19
Q

(thick filament)
composed of the protein myosin
myosin tails contain: 2 interwoven, …

A

heavy polypeptide chains

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20
Q 
(thick filament) 
myosin heads contain:
2 smaller, ... that act as cross bridges during contraction 
binding sites for ... of thin filaments 
binding sites for ... 
... enzymes
A

light polypeptide chains;
actin;
ATP;
ATPase

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21
Q

(thin filament)

twisted double strand of fibrous protein … (…)

A

F actin; filamentous

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22
Q

(thin filament)

F actin consists of … subunits

A

G (globular) actin

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23
Q

(thin filament)
G actin bears active sites for … attachment during contraction
… and …: regulatory proteins bound to actin

A

myosin head;

tropomyosin; troponin

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24
Q

(tropomyosin and troponin) several regulatory proteins are also present in the thin filament
two strands of …, a rod-shaped protein, spiral about the actin core and help … it. Successive … molecules are arranged end to end along the actin filaments, and in a relaxed muscle fiber, they block … on actin so that the myosin heads cannot …

A 
tropomyosin; 
stiffen; 
tropomyosin; 
myosin binding sites; 
bind to the thin filaments
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25
Q

(tropomyosin and troponin)
the other major protein in the thin filament, …, is a three polypeptide complex. one of these polypeptides (…) is an … subunit that binds to actin; another (…) binds to tropomyosin and helps … on actin
the third (…) binds …
Both troponin and tropomyosin help control the myosin-actin interactions involved in contraction

A

troponin;
Tnl; inhibitory;
TnT; position it;
TnC; calcium ions;

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26
Q

in the center of the sarcomere, the thick filaments lack …
These are present only in areas of …

A

myosin heads;

myosin-actin overlap

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27
Q

(sarcoplasmic reticulum) network of … surrounding each myofibril
pairs of terminal cisternae form …
functions in the regulation of … levels

A

smooth endoplasmic reticulum;
perpendicular cross channels;
intracellular Ca2+

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28
Q

(T tubules) continuous with the ….
penetrate the cell’s interior at the …
associate with the paired terminal cisternae to form … that encircle each sarcomere

A

sarcolemma;
A band- I band junction;
triads

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29
Q

(triad relationships)
T tubules … deep into muscle fiber
… protrude into the intermembrane space from T tubule and SR cisternae membranes
T tubule proteins: …
…: gated channels that regulate calcium release from the SR cisternae

A

conduct impulses;
integral proteins;
voltage sensors;
SR foot proteins

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30
Q

(contraction)
the …
does not necessarily cause … of the fiber

A

generation of force; shortening

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31
Q

(contraction) shortening occurs when tension generated by cross bridges on the thin filaments …

A

exceeds forces opposing shortening

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32
Q

(sliding filament model of contraction) in the relaxed state, thin and thick filaments … only slightly
during contraction, myosin heads bind to …, …, and … again, to propel the thin filaments toward the …

A

overlap;

actin; detach; bind; M line

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33
Q

(sliding filament model of contraction)

as H zones shorten and disappear, … shorten, … shorten, and the …shortens

A

sarcomeres; muscle cells; whole muscle

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34
Q

(requirements for skeletal muscle contraction) activation: neural stimulation at a …
excitation-contraction coupling:
generation and propagation of an … along the …; final trigger: a brief rise in … levels

A

neuromuscular junction;
action potential; sarcolemma;
intracellular calcium

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35
Q

(events at the neuromuscular junction) skeletal muscles are stimulated by …
axons of motor neurons travel from the … via nerves to …

A

somatic motor neurons;
central nervous system;
skeletal muscles

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36
Q

(events at the neuromuscular junction) each axon forms … as it enters a muscle
each axon ending forms a … with a single muscle fiber

A

several branches;

neuromuscular junction

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37
Q

(neuromuscular junction) situated midway along the length of a …
axon terminal and muscle fiber are separated by a gel-filled space called the …

A

muscle fiber;

synaptic cleft

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38
Q

(neuromuscular junction) synaptic vesicles of axon terminal contain the neurotransmitter …
junctional folds of the sarcolemma contain …

A

acetylcholine (ACh);

ACh receptors

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39
Q

(neuromuscular junction)
nerve impulse arrives at …
ACh is released and binds with receptors on the …
electrical events lead to the generation of an …

A

sarcolemma;

action potential

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40
Q

(destruction of acetylcholine) ACh effects are quickly terminated by the enzyme …
Break ACh into … and …

A

acetylcholinesterase;

choline; acetic acid

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41
Q

(destruction of acetylcholine)
choline will get recycled back to … in the NMJ …
prevents continued … in the absence of additional stimulation

A

ACh; axon terminal;

muscle fiber contraction

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42
Q

(events in generation of an action potential)
1. local depolarization (…):
ACh binding opens …
simultaneous diffusion of … and …

A

end plate potential;
chemically (ligand) gated ion channels;
Na+ (inward); K+ (outward)

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43
Q

(events in generation of an action potential)

more … diffuses, so the interior of the sarcolemma becomes …
… - …

A

Na+; less negative;

local depolarization. - end plate potential

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44
Q

(events in generation of an action potential)
generation and propagation of an action potential:
… spreads to adjacent membrane areas
… open
Na+ influx decreases the membrane voltage toward a …
if threshold is reached, an … is generated

A

end plate potential
voltage-gated Na+ channels;
critical threshold;
action potential

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45
Q

(events in generation of an action potential)
local depolarization wave continues to spread, changing the …. of the sarcolemma
… open in the adjacent patch, causing it to depolarize to threshold

A

permeability;

voltage-regulated sodium channels

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46
Q

(events in generation of an action potential)
repolarization:
sodium channels close and … open
… rapidly restores the resting polarity
fiber cannot be stimulated and is in a … until repolarization is complete
ionic conditions of the resting state are restored by the …

A

voltage-gated K+ channels;
K+ efflux;
refractory period;
Na+-K+ pump

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47
Q

(excitation contraction (E-C) coupling) sequence of events by which transmission of an AP along the sarcolemma leads to …
… period: time when E-C coupling events occur; time between … and the beginning of …

A

sliding of the myofilaments;

latent; AP initiation; contraction

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48
Q

(excitation contraction (E-C) coupling) AP is propagated along the sarcomere to …
voltage-sensitive proteins stimulate … from SR –> … is necessary for contraction

A

T tubules; Ca2+ release; Ca2+

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49
Q

(role of calcium in contraction) at low intracellular Ca2+ concentration:
… blocks the active sites on actin
…. cannot attach to actin
muscle fiber …

A

tropomyosin;
myosin heads;
relaxes

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50
Q

(role of calcium in contraction) at higher intracellular Ca2+ concentrations:
calcium binds to …, which changes shape and moves … away from active sites
events of the … occur

A

troponin; tropomyosin; cross bridge cycle

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51
Q

(role of calcium in contraction)
at higher intracellular Ca2+ concs:
when nervous stimulation ceases, … is pumped back into the … and contraction ends

A

Ca2+; SR

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52
Q

(cross bridge cycle) continuous as long as the … and … are present
… - high energy myosin head attaches to thin filament
… - myosin head pivots and pulls thin filament toward M line

A

Ca2+ signal; adequate ATP;
cross bridge formation;
working (power) stroke

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53
Q

(cross bridge cycle)
…: ATP attaches to myosin head and the cross bridge detaches
… - energy from … cocks the myosin head into the high-energy state

A

cross bridge detachment;
“cocking” of the myosin head;
hydrolysis of ATP

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54
Q

(muscle metabolism) … only source used directly for contractile activities –> move and detach …, … pumps in SR, return of … and … after excitation-contraction coupling
available stores of ATP depleted in … seconds

A

ATP; cross bridges; calcium; Na+; K+;

4-6

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55
Q 
(muscle metabolism) 
ATP regenerated by: 
1. direct ... of ADP by ... 
2. ... (... --> ...) 
3. ...
A

phosphorylation; creatine phosphate (CP);
anaerobic pathway; glycolysis; lactic acid;
aerobic respiration

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56
Q

(anaerobic pathway)
glycolysis: does not require oxygen
glucose degraded to … molecules
normally enter mitochondria –> …

A

2 pyruvic acid;

aerobic respiration

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57
Q

(anaerobic pathway) at 70% maximum contractile activity:
bulging muscles …; … is impaired
pyruvic acid converted to …

A

compress blood vessels; oxygen delivery;

lactic acid

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58
Q

(anaerobic pathway) lactic acid:
diffuses into bloodstream
used as fuel by …, …, and …
converted back into … or … by liver

A

liver; kidneys; heart;

pyruvic acid; glucose

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59
Q

(anaerobic pathway) lactic acid:

anaerobic respiration yields only … as much ATP as aerobic respiration, but produces ATP … times faster

A

5%; 2.5

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60
Q

(aerobic pathway) produces 95% of ATP during … and …; …

A

rest and light to moderate exercise; slow

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61
Q

(aerobic pathway) series of chemical reactions that require …; occur in …
breaks glucose into …, …, and large amount of …

A

oxygen; mitochondria;

CO2; H2O; ATP

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62
Q

(aerobic pathway) fuels- stored …, then bloodborne …, … from glycolysis, and …

A

glycogen; glucose; pyruvic acid; free fatty acids

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63
Q

…: length of time muscle contracts using aerobic pathways

…: point at which muscle metabolism converts to anaerobic

A

aerobic endurance;

anaerobic threshold

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64
Q

(muscle fatigue) physiological inability to … despite …

A

contract; continued stimulation

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65
Q

(muscle fatigue)
occurs when:
… (K+, Ca2+, Pi) interfere with E-C coupling
prolonged exercise damages … and interferes with … and …

A

ionic imbalances;

SR; Ca2+ regulation and release

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66
Q

(muscle fatigue) total lack of ATP occurs rarely, during states of …, and causes … (continuous contractions)

A

continuous contraction; contractures

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67
Q

(excess postexercise oxygen consumption) to return muscle to resting state
.. reserves replenished
… converted to …
… stores replaced
… and … reserves replenished
all require extra oxygen; occur post exercise

A

oxygen;
lactic acid; pyruvic acid;
glycogen;
ATP; creatine phosphate

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68
Q

(heat production during muscle activity) about …% of energy released in muscle activity useful as work
remaining energy given off as …
dangerous heat levels prevented by … from skin and sweating
… - result of muscle contractions to generate heat when cold

A

40;
heat;
radiation of heat;
shivering

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69
Q 
(blood composition) 
blood: a fluid connective tissue composted of 
... 
formed elements: 3 types 
... (..)
... (...) 
...
A

plasma;
erythrocytes; RBCs
leukocytes; WBCs
platelets

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70
Q

(blood composition)
….: percent of blood volume that is RBCs
…% +- …% for males
…% +- …% for females

A

hematocrit;
47; 5;
42; 5

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71
Q

(blood composition)
hematocrit:
…: least dense component, 55% of whole blood
…: leukocytes and platelets, <1% of whole blood
…: 45% of whole blood, most dense component

A

plasma;
buffy coat;
erythrocytes

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72
Q

(physical characteristics and volume of blood)
sticky, opaque fluid
color scarlet to dark red
pH …-…
38 degrees C
about 8% of body weight
average volume: … L for males, and … L for females

A

7.35- 7.45;

5-6; 4-5

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73
Q

(functions of blood) 1. distribution of:
… and … to body cells
… to the lungs and kidneys for elimination
… from endocrine organs to target organs

A

oxygen; nutrients;
metabolic wastes;
hormones

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74
Q

(functions of blood)
2. regulation of:
… by … and …

A

body temperature; absorbing and distributing heat

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75
Q

(functions of blood)
regulation of:
normal … using …
adequate … in the circulatory system

A

pH; buffers;

fluid volume

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76
Q

(functions of blood) 3. protection against:

… –> … and … initiate clot formation

A

blood loss; plasma proteins; platelets

77
Q 
(functions of blood) 3. protection against: 
infection:
... 
... 
... defend against foreign invaders
A

antibodies;
complement proteins
WBCs

78
Q

(blood plasma)
90% …
proteins are mostly produced by the …

A

water;

liver

79
Q

(blood plasma)
proteins:
60% … - produced by the liver, acts as a carrier molecule to shuttle certain molecules through circulation - very important …
36% … (… and …) - important in molecular transport of ions and antibodies
4% … - involved in blood clotting

A

albumin; blood buffer
globulins; beta and gamma;
fibrinogen

80
Q

(blood plasma)
nitrogenous-by-products of metabolism: …, …, …
nutrients: …, …, …

A

lactic acid; urea; creatinine

glucose; carbs; amino acids

81
Q

(blood plasma)
electrolytes: …, …, …, …, …
respiratory gases: … and …
…

A

sodium; potassium; calcium; chloride; HCO3-;
oxygen and CO2;
hormones

82
Q

(formed elements) only … are complete cells
RBCs have no … or …
platelets are….

A

WBCs;
nuclei; organelles;
cell fragments

83
Q

(formed elements) most formed elements survive in the bloodstream for only a …
most blood cells originate in … and do not …

A

few days;

bone marrow; divide

84
Q

(erythrocytes) … discs, …, essentially no organelles

filled with … for gas transport

A

biconcave; anucleate;

hemoglobin (Hb)

85
Q

(erythrocytes) contain the plasma membrane protein … and other proteins –> provide … to change shape as necessary
are the major factor contributing to blood …

A

spectrin; flexibility;

viscosity

86
Q

(erythrocytes)
structural characteristics contribute to …
biconcave shape – huge … relative to …
>97% … (not counting water)

A

gas transport;

surface area; volume; hemoglobin

87
Q

(erythrocytes) structural characteristics contribute to gas transport:
no …; ATP production is …; no … is used in the generation of ATP

A

mitochondria; anaerobic; oxygen

88
Q

(erythrocytes) RBCs are dedicated to …

hemoglobin binds … with …

A

respiratory gas transport;

reversibly; oxygen

89
Q

(erythrocytes) hemoglobin structure
protein …: two … and two … chains
…. pigment bonded to each globin chain

A

globin; alpha; beta;

heme

90
Q

(erythrocytes) … atom in each heme can bind to one oxygen molecule
each Hb molecule can transport … oxygens

A

iron;

four

91
Q

(hemoglobin structure) … composed of 4 polypeptide chains: two alpha and two beta chains
… pigment bonded to each globin chain (gives blood red color)
heme’s central … atom binds one oxygen
each Hb molecule can transport …
each RBC contains … Hb molecules

A 
globin; 
heme; 
iron; 
four oxygen; 
250 million
92
Q

(Hemoglobin) oxygen loading in the lungs, produces … (ruby red)
oxygen unloading in the … –> produces .. or … (dark red)

A

oxyhemoglobin;
tissues;
deoxyhemoglobin; reduced hemoglobin

93
Q

(Hemoglobin) CO2 loading in the tissues

produces … (carries 20% of CO2 in the blood)

A

carbaminohemoglobin

94
Q

…. (…): blood cell formation

occurs in … of axial skeleton, … and … of humerus and femur

A

hematopoiesis; hemopoiesis; red bone marrow; girdles and proximal epiphyses

95
Q

(hematopoiesis) … (hematopoietic stem cells):
give rise to all formed elements
… and … push the cell toward a specific pathway of blood cell development

A

hemocytoblasts;

hormones; growth factors

96
Q

(hematopoiesis) new blood cells enter …: …

A

blood sinusoids; wide blood capillaries

97
Q

…: red blood cell production

A

erythropoiesis

98
Q

(erythropoiesis) a … is transformed into a …, which develop into early …

A

hemocytoblast; proerythroblast; erythroblasts

99
Q

(erythropoiesis)
1. phases in development:
… synthesis
…
ejection of the … and formation of …, which then become mature …

A

ribosome;
hemoglobin accumulation;
nucleus; reticulocytes;
erythrocytes

100
Q

(erythropoiesis)
hemocytoblast becomes committed cell as …
phase 1 is ribosome synthesis, known as … erythroblast
phase 2 is hemoglobin accumulation, known as … erythroblast, which then becomes an …. erythroblast
in phase 3, nucleus is ejected, forming the … that then matures into erythrocyte

A 
proerythroblast; 
basophilic; 
polychromatic; 
orthochromatic; 
reticulocyte
101
Q

(erythropoiesis) regulation of erythropoiesis:
too few RBCs leads to …
too many RBCs increases …

A

tissue hypoxia; blood viscosity

102
Q

(erythropoiesis) balance between RBC production and destruction depends on :
… controls: …
adequate supplies of …, …, and …

A

hormonal; EPO;

iron; amino acids; B vitamins

103
Q

(erythropoiesis)
hormonal control:
… (EPO): … play direct role in erythropoiesis

A

erythropoietin; kidneys

104
Q

(erythropoiesis) hormonal control through EPO:
direct stimulus for erythropoiesis by … sensitive enzymes are unable to carry out their normal functions of degrading an intracellular signaling molecule called …: ….
this causes …

A

O2;
HIF: hypoxia-inducible factor;
increase in HIF levels

105
Q

(erythropoiesis) EPO is released by the … in response to …
as HIF increases, … also increases

A

kidneys; hypoxia;

EPO

106
Q

(erythropoiesis) causes of hypoxia:
… or increased … reduces RBC numbers
… (e.g. iron deficiency)
reduced availability of … (e.g. high altitudes)

A

hemorrhage; RBC destruction;
insufficient hemoglobin;
oxygen

107
Q

(erythropoiesis) effects of EPO:
more rapid maturation of …
increased circulating … count in 1-2 days
…. also enhances EPO production, resulting in higher … in males

A

committed bone marrow cells;
reticulocyte;
testosterone; RBC counts

108
Q

fate and destruction of erythrocytes:
life span: … - … days
old RBCs become fragile, and Hb begins to …

A

100; 120; degenerate

109
Q

fate and destruction of erythrocytes:

… engulf dying RBCs in the … – often called the RBC graveyard

A

macrophages; spleen

110
Q

fate and destruction of erythrocytes:
… and … are separated:
… is salvaged for reuse

A

heme; globin;

iron

111
Q

fate and destruction of erythrocytes:

heme is degraded to the yellow pigment …, which the … secretes in bile into the intestines

A

bilirubin; liver

112
Q

fate and destruction of erythrocytes:
degraded pigment leaves the body in feces as … (brown color)
globin is metabolized into … - released into circulation

A

stercobilin;

amino acids

113
Q

iron from broken down hemoglobin is stored as …, …

it is then bound to … and released to blood from liver as needed for erythropoiesis

A

ferritin; hemosiderin; transferrin

114
Q

(erythrocyte disorders) …: blood has abnormally low oxygen carrying capacity
a … rather than a disease itself

A

anemia; sign

115
Q

(erythrocyte disorders) anemia:
blood oxygen levels cannot support …
accompanied by …, …, …, and …

A

normal metabolism;

fatigue; paleness; shortness of breath; chills

116
Q

(causes of anemia)
1. insufficient …:
…: acute or chronic loss of blood
…: RBCs rupture prematurely; due to mismatched blood, certain bacterial and parasitic infections
…: destruction/inhibition of red bone marrow: drugs, chemicals, ionizing radiation and viruses

A

erythrocytes;
hemorrhagic anemia;
hemolytic anemia;
aplastic anemia

117
Q

(causes of anemia) 2. low … content:
… anemia:
secondary result of … anemia or inadequate intake of … foods or impaired …

A

hemoglobin;
iron-deficiency;
hemorrhagic; iron-containing; iron absorption

118
Q

(causes of anemia) …:
deficiency of vitamin B12
lack of … (found in the stomach lining) needed for absorption of …
treated by … of B12 or application of … (B12 containing gel)

A

pernicious anemia;
intrinsic factor; B12;
intramuscular injection;
Nascobal

119
Q

(causes of anemia) sickle-cell anemia:
defective gene codes for … (…)
one change in an … of the 146 needed to make this protein causes disease
causes the beta chains to … under … conditions, thus forming stiff rods (instead of flexible)

A

abnormal hemoglobin (HbS);
AA;
link together; low oxygen

120
Q

(causes of anemia) sickle cell anemia:
causes RBCs to become … shaped in low oxygen situations
upon unloading of O2, RBC … easily and tend to … up small blood vessels (very painful)
patients usually get … to control the condition

A

sickle;
rupture; clog up;
blood transfusion

121
Q

(causes of anemia) in sickle cell anemia, the change is … to ..

A

glutamic acid; valine

122
Q

(erythrocyte disorders) ..: excess of RBCS that increase blood viscoisty

A

polycythemia

123
Q

(erythrocyte disorders) polycythemia:
results from … - …
secondary polycythemia: when less … is available (…) or when … production increases
blood … (in athletes, for ex)

A

polycythemia vera; bone marrow cancer;
oxygen; high altitude; EPO;
blood doping

124
Q

(leukocytes) make up less than 1 percent of total blood volume
can leave capillaries via …: slip/squeeze out
move through tissue spaces by … motion and positive …

A

diapedesis;

ameboid; chemotaxis

125
Q

(leukocytes) WBC count over 11,000/mm^3

normal response to … or …

A

bacterial; viral invasion

126
Q

granulocytes: …, …, and … (…)

A

neutrophils; eosinophils; basophils (NEB)

127
Q 
(granulocytes) 
... stain specifically with Wright's stain 
.. and ... than RBCs 
... nuclei 
...
A

cytoplasmic granules;
larger; shorter-lived;
lobed;
phagocytic

128
Q

neutrophils:
most … WBCs
…. (PMNs)

A

numerous;

polymorphonuclear leukocytes

129
Q

neutrophils:
fine granules take up both … and … dyes
give the cytoplasm a … color
granules contain … or …

A

acidic; basic; lilac; hydrolytic enzymes; defensins

130
Q

neutrophils:
very … - “bacteria slayers”
chemically attracted to sites of … and active …

A

phagocytic; inflammation; phagocytes

131
Q

neutrophils:

use process called … to kill – releases …/… products

A

respiratory bust; bleach; H2O2

132
Q

eosinophils:
red-staining, … nuclei
red to crimson (…) coarse, …-like granules
digest … that are too large to be phagocytized

A

bilobed; acidophilic; lysosome;

parasitic worms;

133
Q

eosinophils:
modulators of the …
roughly 2-4% of all leukocytes
also have involvement in … and …

A

immune response; allergy; asthma

134
Q

basophils:
… WBCs
large, purplish-black (basophilic) granules contain …
…: an inflammatory chemical that acts as a … and attracts other WBCs to inflamed sites

A

rarest;

histamine; histamine; vasodilator

135
Q

basophils:
are functionally similar to … cells
rarest at only .5-1% of total leukocyte population

A

mast

136
Q

agranulocytes:
… and …
lack visible …
have … or .. shaped nuclei

A

lymphocytes; monocytes;
cytoplasmic granules;
spherical; kidney-shaped

137
Q

lymphocytes:
large, dark-purple … nuclei with a thin rim of blue cytoplasm
mostly in … tissue; few circulate in the blood
crucial to …

A

circular; lymphoid; immunity

138
Q

lymphocytes - 2 types:
…. act against virus-infected cells and … cells
… cells give rise to … cells, which produce antibodies

A

T cells; tumor cells;

B cells; plasma cells

139
Q

…: the largest leukocytes

A

monocytes

140
Q

monocytes:
abundant pale-blue cytoplasm
dark purple-staining, … or … shaped nuclei

A

U; kidney

141
Q

monocytes:

leave …, enter .., and differentiate into …

A

circulation; tissues; macrophages

142
Q

monocytes:

actively … cells; crucial against …,, …, and …

A

phagocytic; viruses; intracellular bacterial parasites; chronic infections

143
Q

monocytes;

activate … to mount an immune response

A

lymphocytes

144
Q

leukopoiesis:
production of …
stimulated by chemical messengers from … and …

A

WBCs; bone marrow; mature WBCs

145
Q

leukopoiesis:
stimulated by chemical messengers:
… (e.g. IL-1, IL-2)
… (CSFs) named for the WBC type they stimulate

A

interleukins

colony-stimulating factors

146
Q

leukopoiesis:

all leukocytes originate from …: branch into … (…) and … (…)

A

hemocytoblasts;
lymphoid SC; agranulocytes;
myeloid SC; granulocytes

147
Q

… stem cell: same stem cell that produces the erythrocyte lineage

A

myeloid

148
Q

(leukocyte disorders)

…: abnormally low WBC count- … induced

A

leukopenia; drug

149
Q 
(leukocyte disorders) 
leukemias: 
... condiitons involving WBCs 
named according to the ... involved 
... involves ... 
... involves ...
A

cancerous;
abnormal WBC clone;
myelocytic leukemia; myeloblasts;
lymphocytic leukemia; lymphocytes

150
Q

(leukocyte disorders) acute leukemia involves … cells and primarily affects …
… leukemia is more prevalent in older people

A

blast-type cells; children;

chronic

151
Q

(leukocyte disorders) leukemia:
… totally occupied with cancerous leukocytes
… in the bloodstream
death caused by … and overwhelming …

A

bone marrow;
immature nonfunctional WBCs;
internal hemorrhage;
infections

152
Q

(leukocyte disorders) leukemia:

treatments include …, … drugs, and …

A

irradiation; antileukemic; stem cell transplants

153
Q

(platelets) small fragments of …
formation is regulated by …
blue staining outer region, purple granules

A

megakaryocytes;

thrombopoietin;

154
Q

(platelets) granules contain …, …, …, …, and … (PDGF)

A

serotonin; calcium; enzymes; ADP; platelet-derived growth factor

155
Q

(platelets) form a temporary … that helps seal breaks in blood vessels
circulating platelets are kept inactive and mobile by …. and … from … cells of blood vessels

A

platelet plug;

NO; prostacyclin; endothelial

156
Q

platelet formation:
starts with hematopoietic stem cell (hemocytoblast)
goes to … (… megakaryocyte) to …. megakaryocyte to … megakaryocyte and finally to platelets

A

megakaryoblast; stage I;
stage II/III;
Stage IV

157
Q

…: fast series of rxns for stoppage of bleeding

A

hemostasis

158
Q

hemostasis requires …, and substances releases by … and …

A

clotting factors; platelets; injured tissues

159
Q

hemostasis involves 3 steps:

  1. …
  2. … formation
  3. … (…)
A

vascular spasm;
platelet plug;
coagulation; blood clotting

160
Q 
(hemostasis) 
Step 1- vascular spasm: 
... of damaged blood vessel 
triggers: 
direct injury to ... 
chemicals released by ... and ... 
... 
most effective in ...
A 
vasoconstriction; 
vascular smooth muscle; 
endothelial cells; platelets; 
pain reflexes; 
smaller blood vessels
161
Q

(hemostasis) step 2-platelet plug formation:
example of a … cycle
as a rule- platelets do not … together –> … and … prevent platelet aggregations in undamaged tissue

A

positive feedback;

nitric oxide; prostacyclin (PGI2);

162
Q

(hemostasis) step 2- platelet plug formation:
damaged endothelium exposes …
platelets stick to these via plasma protein …
swell, become spiked and sticky, and release chemical messengers:
… causes more platelets to stick and release their contents
… and … enhance vasular spasm and platelet aggregation

A

collagen fibers;
von Willebrand factor;
ADP;
serotonin; thromboxane A2

163
Q

(hemostasis) step 3- coagulation:
a set of rxns in which blood is transformed from a .. to a …
reinforces the platelet plug with …

A

liquid; gel;

fibrin threads

164
Q

coagulation phase 3: common pathway to the fibrin mesh:

… converts soluble fibrinogen into …

A

thrombin; fibrin

165
Q

coagulation phase 3: common pathway to the fibrin mesh:
fibrin strands form the … of a clot
fibrin causes plasma to become a … for formed elements
thrombin with … activate …

A

structural basis;
gel-like trap;
calcium; factor XIII

166
Q

factor XIII
… fibrin
… and … the clot

A

cross-links;

strengthens; stabilizes

167
Q

clot retraction:
… and … in platelets contract within 30-60 mins
platelets pull on the .., squeezing … from the clot

A

actin; myosin;

fibrin strands; serum

168
Q

clot repair;
… stimulates division of smooth muscle cells and .. to rebuild blood vessel wall
… stimulates endothelial cells to multiply and restore the endothelial lining

A

platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF); fibroblasts;

vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)

169
Q

fibrinolysis;
begins within …
… in clot is converted to … by …, … and …

A

two days;

plasminogen; plasmin; tissue plasminogen activator (tPA); factor XII; thrombin

170
Q

fibrinolysis:

plasmin is a … enzyme

A

fibrin-digesting

171
Q

factors limiting clot growth/formation:
two homeostatic mechanisms prevent clots from becoming large:
swift removal and … of …
inhibition of …

A

dilution; clotting factors

activated clotting factors

172
Q

inhibition of clotting factors:
most thrombin is bound to …, and prevented from acting elsewhere
…, …, and … inactivate thrombin and other procoagulants

A

fibrin threads;

antithrombin III; protein C; heparin

173
Q

inhibition of clotting factors:

…,another anticoagulant, also inhibits thrombin activity

A

heparin

174
Q

factors preventing undesirable clotting:
platelet adhesion is prevented by:
… of blood vessels
antithrombic substances … and … secreted by endothelial cells
…., …, which act as potent anticoagulants

A

smooth endothelial lining;
nitric oxide; prostacyclin;
vitamin E; quinine;

175
Q

….: undesirable clot formation

…: abnormalities that prevent normal clot formation

A

thromboembolytic disorders;

bleeding disorders

176
Q

(thromboembolytic conditions) …: clot that develops and persists in an unbroken blood vessel; may block …, leading to …

A

thrombus; circulation; tissue death

177
Q

(thromboembolytic conditions) …: a thrombus freely floating int he blodostream
… impair the ability of the body to obtain oxygen
… can cause strokes

A

embolus;
pulmonary emboli;
cerebral emboli

178
Q 
(thromboembolytic conditions) 
prevented by : 
... 
... 
...
A

aspirin;
heparin;
warfarin

179
Q

(thromboembolytic conditions)

aspirin: … that inhibits …

A

antiprostaglandin; thromboxane A2

180
Q

(thromboembolytic conditions) heparin: … used clinically for … and … cardiac care

A

anticoagulant; pre- and postoperative

181
Q

(thromboembolytic conditions) warfarin: used for those prone to

A

atrial fibrillation

182
Q

(bleeding conditions) …: deficient number of circulating platelets

A

thrombocytopenia

183
Q

(bleeding conditions) thrombocytopenia:

… (small red/purple spots) appear due to spontaneous, widespread hemorrhage

A

petechia

184
Q

(bleeding conditions) thrombocytopenia:
due to suppression or destruction of … (e.g., malignancy, radiation)
platelet count below …/mm^3 is diagnostic
treated with transfusion of …

A

bone marrow;
50,000;
concentrated platelets

185
Q

(bleeding conditions)
impaired liver function:
inability to synthesize …

A

procoagulants

186
Q

(bleeding conditions) impaired liver function:
causes include …, …, and …
liver disease can also prevent the liver from producing …, impairing … and … absorption

A

vitamin K deficiency; hepatitis; cirrhosis;
bile;
fat; vitamin K

187
Q

(bleeding conditions)
hemophilias include similar hereditary bleeding disorders:
… most common type; due to a deficiency of …
…: deficiency of factor IX
…: mild type; deficiency of factor XI

A

hemophilia A; factor VIII;
hemophilia B;
hemophlia C

188
Q

(bleeding conditions) hemophilia:
symptoms include ..,. especially into …
treated with … and injections of …

A

prolonged bleeding; joint cavities;

plasma transfusions; missing factors

Mammalian Physiology (31 decks)

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