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Biology 2 > Biology Exam 1 Study Guide (Ch. 27, 19, 28) > Flashcards

Biology Exam 1 Study Guide (Ch. 27, 19, 28) Flashcards

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1
Q

Which of the following characteristics allows this bacterium to survive in a human who is taking penicillin pills?
A. Gram-negative cell wall
B. Peptidoglycan in the cell wall
C. Lipopolysaccharides in the cytoplasm
D. Long polypeptides in the cell wall

A

A. Gram-negative cell wall

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2
Q

Which of the following statements correctly describes both Phototrophs and Chemotrophs?
A. Both are also autotrophs
B. Both obtain their energy from chemicals
C. Both obtain their energy from light
D. Chemotrophs obtain energy from chemicals and Phototrophs obtain energy from light

A

D. Chemotrophs obtain energy from chemicals and Phototrophs obtain energy from light

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3
Q

What is one of the primary benefits of bioremediation?
A. To improve human health with the help of living organisms such as bacteria
B. to clean up areas polluted with toxic compounds by using bacteria
C. To improve soil quality for plant growth by using bacteria
D. To improve bacteria for production of useful chemicals

A

B. To clean up areas polluted with toxic compounds by using bacteria

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4
Q

Which of the following traits do archaeans and bacteria have in common?
A. Composition of the cell wall
B. Composition of the cell wall and lack of a nuclear envelope
C. Lack a nuclear envelope and presence of circular chromosome
D. Presence of plasma membrane and composition of the cell wall

A

C. Lack of a nuclear envelope and presence of circular chromosome

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5
Q

Which of the following characteristics describe most existing bacteria?
A. Pathogenic, omnipresent, morphologically diverse
B. Extremophiles, tiny, abundant
C. Tiny, ubiquitous, metabolically diverse
D. Morphologically diverse, metabolically diverse, Extremophiles

A

C. tiny, ubiquitous, metabolically diverse

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6
Q

Which of the following statements is true?
A. Archaea and bacteria have identical membrane lipids
B. The cell walls of archaea lack peptidoglycan
C. Prokaryotes have low levels of genetic diversity
D. No archaea are capable of using CO2 to oxidize H2 releasing methane

A

B. The cell walls of archaea lack peptidoglycan

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7
Q

Photosynthesis that releases O2 occurs in _______.
A. Cyanobacteria
B. Archaea
C. Gram-positive bacteria
D. Chemoautotrophic bacteria

A

A. Cyanobacteria

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8
Q

Many antibiotics target what?

A

Peptidoglycan

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9
Q

Conjugation is

A

DNA transfer between two eukaryotic cells

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10
Q

Which shape is streptococcus?

A

Cocci

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11
Q

Peptidoglycan is targeted by many antibiotics to damage bacterial cell walls, which gram stain will the antibiotics target and attack?

A

Gram-positive

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12
Q

Human cells lack which of the following?

A

Peptidoglycan

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13
Q

Prokaryotes may have smaller rings of independently replicating DNA called

A

Plasmids

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14
Q

Why are there high levels of genetic diversity observed in prokaryotic populations?

A

Mutation, rapid reproduction, and genetic recombination

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15
Q

What is a disease causing microbe (micro organism)?

A

Pathogen

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16
Q

What is true of prokaryotes?

A

First organisms to inhabit Earth, mostly unicellular, smaller than eukaryotic cells

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17
Q

Require CO2 or related compounds such as a carbon source

A

Autotrophs

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18
Q

Name the component clades for the acronym TACK

A

Thaumarchaeota, Aigarchaeota, Crenarchaeota, and Korarchaeota

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19
Q

Bacteria with simpler walls and large amounts of peptidoglycan

A

Gram-positive

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20
Q

More complex bacteria with less peptidoglycan and an outer membrane containing lipopolysaccharides

A

Gram-negative

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21
Q

Archaea lack all but a

A

RNA polymerase

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22
Q

What utilizes organic compounds as an energy source

A

Chemoautotrophs

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23
Q

(Image): Which of the three types of viruses shown in the figure would you expect to include a capsid?
A. I
B. III only
C. I and II only
D. I, II, and III

A

D. I, II, and III

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24
Q

Which of the following descriptions correctly identifies a main structural difference between viruses with envelopes and viruses without envelopes?
A. Only viruses with envelopes have their contents enclosed by a layer containing lipids
B. Only viruses with envelopes package their genetic material by engulfing it
C. Only viruses without envelopes can release their genetic material into the cytoplasm of the host
D. Only viruses without envelopes interact with receptor proteins on the surface of the host cell

A

A. Only viruses with envelopes have their contents enclosed by a layer containing lipids

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25
Q

Which of the following statements accurately describes the lysogenic cycle of lambda phage?
A. The viral genes immediately turn the host cell into a lambda-producing factory. Then the host lyses.
B. The product of one prophage gene is made and it activates most of the other prophage genes
C. The phage genome is integrated in the host chromosome where it is passed on to daughter cells through binary fission
D. The phage DNA is copied and accumulates in the cytoplasm. Then a trigger causes capsid proteins to be made and phages are assembled.

A

C. the phage genome is integrated in the host chromosome where it is passed on to daughter cells through binary fission

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26
Q

What is the function of reverse transcriptase in retroviruses?
A. It uses viral RNA as a template for DNA synthesis
B. It converts host cell RNA into viral DNA
C. It translates viral RNA into proteins
D. It uses viral RNA as a template for making more viral RNA strands

A

A. It uses viral RNA as a template for DNA synthesis

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27
Q

The virus genome and viral proteins are assembled into virus particles during which of the following parts of the reproductive cycle?
A. The lytic cycle and the lysogenic cycle in all known host organisms
B. The lysogenic cycle only
C. The lytic cycle
D. The lytic cycle in all host organisms but the lysogenic cycle only in bacteria

A

C. The lytic cycle only

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28
Q

If a viral host cell has a mutation that interferes with the addition of carbohydrates to proteins during processing in the Golgi apparatus, which of the following processes is most likely to occur?
A. The viral envelope proteins would not have glycoproteins added to them and might not arrive at the host plasma membrane
B. The viral capsid proteins would not have glycoproteins added to them and might not arrive at the host plasma membrane
C. The viral core proteins would not have glycoproteins added to them and might not arrive at the host plasma membrane
D. The virus wold be unable to reproduce within the host cell

A

A. The viral envelope proteins would not have glycoproteins added to them and might not arrive a the host plasma membrane

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29
Q
  1. Which of the following best defines prions?
    A) mobile segments of DNA that can disrupt host gene expression
    B) circular molecules of RNA that can infect plants
    C) viral DNA that attaches itself to the host genome and causes disease
    D) misfolded versions of normal proteins that can cause disease
A

D. misfolded versions of normal proteins that can cause disease

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30
Q

In 2009, a flu pandemic was believed to have originated when viral transmission occurred from pig to human, thereby earning the designation “swine flu.” Although pigs are thought to have been the host for the 2009 virus, sequences from bird, pig, and human viruses were all found within this newly identified virus. What is the most likely explanation for the presence of sequences from bird, pig, and human viruses?
A) The virus was descended from a common ancestor of bird, pig, and human flu viruses.
B) The infected individuals happened to be infected with all three virus types.
C) The RNA of related viruses can reassort during viral assembly resulting in new genetic combinations.
D) The human was likely infected with various bacterial strains that contained all three RNA viruses.

A

C) The RNA of related viruses can reassort during viral assembly resulting in new genetic combinations.

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31
Q

Which of the following statements best supports the argument that viruses are nonliving?

A

They do not carry out metabolic processes.

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32
Q

Which of the following characteristics is typical of the Lytic cycle of a bacteriophage?

A

The host membrane ruptures, releasing many phages.

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33
Q

Which of the following statements correctly describes vaccines and how they prevent a viral infection?

A

Vaccines are inactive versions of a virus that stimulate an immune system in a person

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34
Q

In which part of the bacterium is the complete chromosome found?

A

Nucleoid

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35
Q

Some bacteria possess antibiotic resistance, as well as the ability to survive through adverse conditions. Where in this type of bacteria is the DNA located?

A

Plasmids, nucleoid, and Endospores

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36
Q

Which of the following statements correctly described F- cells and F+ cells?

A

F+ cells function as DNA donors during conjugation and F- cells function as DNA recipients during conjugation.

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37
Q

Which of these statements about viruses are false?

A

Viruses can reproduce outside of the host cell

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38
Q

Prions are involved in all these disease EXCEPT:

A

HIV

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39
Q

Is a virus a:

A

infectious particle

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40
Q

What process causes the death of the cell?

A

Lytic cycle

41
Q

The viral DNA that is integrated into the host genome is called a

A

provirus

42
Q

What is NOT true of viruses:

A

They can reproduce or carry out metabolism outside of the host cell

43
Q

Which cycle replicates the phage genome WITHOUT destroying the host?

A

Lysogenic cycle

44
Q

What answer best first describes a virus?

A

An infectious particle consisting of genes packed in a protein coat cannot reproduce/carry out metabolism outside of a host cell

45
Q

What is the name of the phage which uses both Lytic and lysogenic cycles? What occasional occurrence initializes the Lytic cycle?

A

Temperate phage; a prophage exits the bacterial chromosome

46
Q

Which statement is true about phages?

A

The host cell dies in the Lytic cycle

47
Q

Viruses are:

A

able to mutate and covered by a protein coat

48
Q

Archegonia produces what?

A

Single motile egg

49
Q

Which two genera have members that can evade the human immune system by frequently changing their surface proteins?
A) Plasmodium and Trypanosoma
B) Trichomonas and Paramecium
C) Trichomonas and Trypanosoma
D) Trypanosoma and Entamoeba

A

A) Plasmodium and Trypanosoma

50
Q

You are given an unknown organism to identify. It is unicellular and heterotrophic. It is motile, using many short extensions of the cytoplasm, each featuring the 9 + 2 filament pattern. It has well-developed organelles and two nuclei, one large and one small. To which of the following groups does this organism likely belong?
A) foraminiferan
B) radiolarian
C) ciliate
D) kinetoplastid

A

C) ciliate

51
Q

A porous test (shell) of calcium carbonate, through which pseudopodia protrude, is characteristic of which of the following groups of organisms?
A) diatoms
B) foraminiferans
C) ciliates
D) water molds

A

B) foraminiferans

52
Q

Ciliates like Paramecium typically reproduce asexually. Which process in Paramecium results in genetic recombination but no increase in population size?
A) budding
B) meiotic division
C) conjugation
D) binary fission

A

C) conjugation

53
Q

SAR is a highly diverse group of protists defined by DNA similarities determined through whole-genome analysis of various organisms in the group. Which of the following conclusions could be drawn from this information?
A) SAR is a paraphyletic group
B) SAR is a monophyletic group
C) SAR includes organisms that have different common ancestors
D) the common ancestor of the members of this group arose relatively recently in evolutionary history

A

B) SAR is a monophyletic group

54
Q

A biologist discovers an alga that is marine, multicellular, and lives at a depth reached only by blue light. Based on this information, to which of the following groups of algae would this organism be classified?
A) red algae
B) brown algae
C) green algae
D) golden algae

A

A) red algae

55
Q

Which of the following groups is matched with a correct anatomical feature?
A) foraminifera–silicon-rich tests
B) dinoflagellata–holdfast
C) diatoms–tests made of cellulose
D) brown algae–blade

A

D) brown algae–blade

56
Q

What do the multiple branching points at the root of the eukaryotic phylogenetic tree indicate about the evolution of eukaryotes?
A) that unikonts are derived from the SAR clade
B) that Archaeplastids were the first eukaryotes
C) that fungi are more closely related to plants than animals
D) that eukaryotes are all descended from a common ancestor

A

D) that eukaryotes are all descended from a common ancestor

57
Q

Which of the following organisms is a producer?
A) kinetoplastids
B) apicomplexans
C) diatoms
D) ciliates

A

C) diatoms

58
Q

According to the phylogeny presented in this chapter, which protists are in the same eukaryotic supergroup as plants?
A) green algae
B) dinoflagellates
C) red algae
D) both A and C

A

D) both A and C

59
Q

Which of the following statements compares the mitosomes of diplomonads and mitochondria of other types of eukaryotes?

A

Mitosomes in diplomonads lack a functional electron transport chain and other eukaryotes possess one.

60
Q

Trypanosome infections evade attacks by host immune systems through which of the following mechanisms?

A

Production of new cell-surface proteins with a different molecular structure by each new generation.

61
Q

Which of the following characteristics is common among all protists?

A

Eukaryotic

62
Q

When a mosquito infected with Plasmodium first bites a human, what is the first process carried out by the Plasmodium?

A

The cells infect the human liver cells.

63
Q

Which of the following characteristics do dinoflagellate exhibit?

A

They possess two flagella.

64
Q

You have discovered a new species of aquatic protist that is a primary producer. It cannot swim on its own. It appears to be resistant to physical damage from wave action due to the presence of a glasslike wall. Which of the following organisms would this organism be most like?

A

Diatoms

65
Q

Which of the following structures provide motility in species of paramecium?

A

Many cilia

66
Q

Which of the following types of organism produces Algin, a substance used as a thickener in many processed foods?

A

Kelp

67
Q

Who is NOT part of the protistan diversity?

A

Bacteria

68
Q

What Excavata in the provision diversity consists of surface proteins that change after each generation?

A

Trypanosomes

69
Q

Diplomonads have reduced mitochondria called:

A

mitosomes

70
Q

Parabasalids have reduced mitochondria called:

A

hydrogenosomes

71
Q

Why are trypanosomes unique?

A

They have a single cell-surface protein that changes from one generation to the next.

72
Q

Diplomonads have reduced:

A

mitochondria

73
Q

What is the kind of protist that combines photosynthesis and heterotrophic nutrition?

A

Mixotrophs

74
Q

Protist is an informal term used to refer to all eukaryotes that are not:

A

plants, animals, and fungi

75
Q

What calde does Giardia Intestinalis fall under and what does it cause?

A

Diplomonads; intestinal infections (mammals)

76
Q

Which three major groups of protists have recently been discovered and are considered unresolved groups?

A

Haptophytes, Cryptophytes, and Hemimastigophores

77
Q

What are dinoflagellates the main cause of?

A

Red tides

78
Q

Which eukaryotic organisms form a symbiotic relation with foraminiferans?

A

Algae

79
Q

What is an example of a photosynthetic protist that is limited by nutrients; and populations explode when nutrients are added?

A

Saturating diatoms in iron

80
Q

What are the proteins on the surface of sporozoites?

A

Glycoprotein

81
Q

Which statement is false concerning the Plasmodial lineage of slime molds?

A

Their feeding stage consists of solitary cells

82
Q

What three clades make up the SAR subgroup Stramenopiles?

A

Brown algae, diatoms, and Oomycetes

83
Q

Why do Dinoflagellates bloom “red tides”?

A

Because of the carotenoids present in their plastids

84
Q

T/F: Red tides are not toxic.

A

False

85
Q

A highly diverse group of protists defined by DNA similarities

A

SAR

86
Q

What are the two lineages derived from Slime Molds?

A

Cellular and Plasmodial slime molds

87
Q

What are the two main purposes of the plasmodium in Plasmodial cells?

A

Large feeding mass and form fruiting body

88
Q

Oomycetes were originally misidentified as:

A

fungi

89
Q

Which of these is NOT a part of the dinoflagellate structure?

A

Nucleosomes

90
Q

Are micronuclei haploid or diploid?

A

Either haploid or diploid

91
Q

What has a slick skeleton that uses pseudopodia and cytoplasm to eat?

A

Radiolarians

92
Q

Replication of the nuclei with no cytoplasmic division is unique to:

A

caulerpa

93
Q

Which of the following forms a large feeding mass called a plasmodium?

A

Plasmodial slime molds

94
Q

You would expect which to have the greatest potential impact on climate change.

A

Dinoflagellates

95
Q

Archaeplastida is a supergroup that does NOT include:

A

fungi

96
Q

Cellular slime molds are:

A

known to use cheat mutations

97
Q

I feed using threadlike pseudopodia and I am common in marine, fresh water, and soil ecosystems. What am I?

A

Cercozoans

98
Q

Which of the following best descriptions is related to pfiesteria shumwayae?

A

A dinoflagellate that attaches and feeds on the skin of fish

Biology 2 (33 decks)

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