5.3 Gram Positive Rods 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what is a feature of the “anatomy” of the mycolata group of bacteria (i.e. corynebacterium, mycobacterium, rhodococcus)

A

they have a lipid rich outer membrane containing mycolic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

all mycolata are what type of pathogens

A

facultative intracellular; like macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

all mycolata (corynebacterium, mycobacterium, rhodococcus) cause ______________ inflammation, which involves a ___________ immune response

A

granulomatous; type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what species do corynebacteria infect

A

humans, ruminants, other animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what species do mycobacterium infect

A

humans, birds, ruminants, horses, pigs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what species do rhodococcus infect

A

herbivores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is an important disease in small ruminants caused by corynebacterium, and what specific species is the bacteria

A

corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis causes caseous lymphadenitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the causative agent of caseous lymphadenitis

A

corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what shape do corynebacterium spp. take

A

pleomorphic: rods, cocci, clubs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

corynebacterium are commensals of (2)

A

skin and mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what type of infection (appearance) do corynebacterium cause

A

pyogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are 2 important tests to diagnose C. pseudotuberculosis

A

gamma interferon test and serology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the purpose of the gamma interferon test

A

checks for a type 1 cellular immunity response, characteristic of mycolata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

T/F C. pseudotuberculosis is contagious and zoonotic

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the typical “structure” of C. pseudotuberculosis lesions

A

caseous lymphadenitis with an onion ring structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the consequence of in vitro vs in vivo antibiotic use against corynebacterium

A

in vitro effective but in vivo problematic due to intracellular nature of pathogen and poor penetration of granulomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

describe the vaccine against corynebacterium

A

poor efficacy and major side effects such as microabscessation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how do we control corynebacterium infection

A

culling based on blood test results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how does mycobacterium stain and what does this mean

A

weakly gram positive, requires acid-fast stain to see

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

mycobacterium spp. survive well or poorly in the environment

A

well, but slow growing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what type of infections do mycobacterium spp. cause

A

chronic granulomatous infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

T/F domestic animal species are susceptible to M. tuberculosis

A

F; only humans and primates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what species are susceptible to M. bovis

A

ruminants, humans, horses, pigs

24
Q

what species are susceptible to M. avium subsp. paratuberculosis

A

ruminants

25
Q

T/F M. bovis is reportable and zoonotic

A

T

26
Q

what is the major implication of wildlife species being infected with M. bovis

A

wildlife reservoir

27
Q

describe the pathogenesis of tuberculosis

A

starts with inhalation of infectious particles -> lungs -> pulmonary macrophage -> infected macrophage migrates to local LN -> from there innate control results in either healing or acute disease or containment -> from containment (i.e. granuloma) the disease becomes latent -> <10% of the time it reactivates and then can cause disease and spread

28
Q

what type of cellular response is induced by tuberculosis (M. bovis for example)

A

TH1 response with IFN-γ

29
Q

how is M. bovis usually diagnosed

A

at slaughter using the tuberculin test; then traced back to farm and the remaining animals are tested

30
Q

if you wanted to examine a tissue sample for M. bovis, how would you stain it

A

using acid-fast

31
Q

why is culture not a great option to diagnose bovine tuberculosis caused by M. bovis and what is a better detection method in this case

A

slow culture; DNA-based methods (or staining or tuberculin test)

32
Q

what is the treatment for M. bovis

A

culling

33
Q

where does M. bovis persist in Canada? what other gram-positive aerobic bacteria is also endemic to this area?

A

Wood Buffalo National Park (AB); Bacillus anthracis

34
Q

T/F avian tuberculosis is zoonotic

A

T

35
Q

what is the causative agent of avian tuberculosis

A

Mycobacterium avium subsp. avium, MAC

36
Q

in what ways is avian tuberculosis similar to bovine tuberculosis

A

entry by air, chronic infection, granulomatous

37
Q

T/F Johne’s disease is zoonotic

A

T

38
Q

what is the causative agent of Johne’s disease

A

Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis

39
Q

how does M. avium subsp. paratuberculosis like to grow

A

on lipid rich media

40
Q

how do we visualize M. avium subsp. paratuberculosis (what stain)

A

acid-fast stain

41
Q

how is John’s spread

A

milk, pasture, in utero

42
Q

what does M. avium subsp. paratuberculosis cause

A

granulomatous enteritis, cachexia, diarrhea

43
Q

If you diagnose an animal with M. avium subsp. paratuberculosis (Johne’s) why would you immediately shit yourself

A

because if there are clinical animals in the herd there are way more (60%) subclinical animals also present in the herd that are shedding the bacteria… you’re fucked

44
Q

T/F there is a genetic predisposition to Johne’s

A

T

45
Q

how do we treat and prevent Johne’s

A

culling of infected and sick animals; detecting and culling subclinical shedders using serology and gamma interferon test

46
Q

how do rhodococcus stain

A

gram positive and slightly acid-fast

47
Q

T/F R. equi is zoonotic and reportable

A

F; zoonotic but not reportable

48
Q

what does R. equi cause in foals

A

pyogranulomatous bronchopneumonia

49
Q

what is the epidemiology of R. equi in foals

A

associated with heavy contamination of the environment and susceptibility is highest when maternal antibodies are waning

50
Q

what is unique about the virulence of R. equi

A

contains virulence plasmids

51
Q

how do virulent strains of R. equi influence the immune response

A

infect and survive in macrophages, but macrophages are required to induce a type 1 immune response to kill the bacteria; it also downregulates TH1 cells and can drive an inappropriate TH2 response

52
Q

how do you treat R. equi

A

long term treatment with rifampin and macrolides

53
Q

how do you prevent R. equi

A

dust control; colostrum; reduced manure load

54
Q

how would a laboratory confirm a suspected case of tuberculosis

A

PCR, acid-fast staining of tissue, culture (slow)

55
Q

how could you assess whether live animals on a farm were exposed to M. bovis

A

whole blood gamma interferon test

56
Q

T/F if you detect caseous lymphadenitis you should treat with antibiotics

A

F; there will be poor penetration of the antibiotics so it is a waste