5.14 Fungi Flashcards

1
Q

the colony morphology of yeasts is ___________ whereas molds are ____________

A

smooth, creamy; powdery, fluffy

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2
Q

what is the morphology of dimorphic fungi under the microscope

A

either smooth and creamy or fluffy and powdery depending on the form taken

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3
Q

usually dimorphic fungi are _________ in the environment and ___________ in the body

A

mold; yeast

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4
Q

all fungal infections are ________ infections that require heavy/low burden

A

opportunist; heavy

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5
Q

what is the characteristic infection that develops from fungi

A

granulomatous (chronic)

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6
Q

fungal infections are relatively common/uncommon

A

uncommon

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7
Q

gram stain can only be used on ______ fungi, and the other stains that can be used on all fungi are (4)

A

yeast; PAS, Wrights, Silver, Diff-Quik

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8
Q

what type of mount must be done to visualize fungi and why

A

10% KOH wet mount; to get rid of keratin in host tissues

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9
Q

what must be added to culture to grow fungi; do yeasts or molds grow faster

A

Sabouraud dextrose agar; yeasts grow faster

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10
Q

what 3 immunological tests can be used to ID fungi

A

ELISA, DTH, immuno-diffusion

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11
Q

how do we treat or control fungal infections

A
  • decrease the predisposition or challenge
  • topical antifungals
  • systemic antifungals (limited)
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12
Q

what do we call agents of ringworm

A

dermatophytes

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13
Q

T/F ringworm is zoonotic

A

T

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14
Q

what do dermatophytes infect

A

keratinized epithelium of skin, hair, nails

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15
Q

what is a very common dermatophytes in cows

A

Trichophyton verrucosum

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16
Q

what type of dermatophytes infects dogs and cats

A

cats: Microsporum canis
dogs: Microsporum canis and microsporum gypseum

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17
Q

describe the classic ringworm lesion

A

slowly expanding area of alopecia and desquamated epithelium; central area of hair regrowth; inflammed edge

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18
Q

all ringworm is _____________

A

superficial

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19
Q

ringworm is highly contagious due to ______________

A

arthrospores

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20
Q

what causes predisposition to ringworm

A

young animals; poor nutrition; humidity; rubbing; low UV

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21
Q

what dermatophyte fluoresces

A

Microsporum canis

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22
Q

how long does it take to culture ringworm

A

7-10 days

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23
Q

how do we treat and control ringworm

A

topical or systemic treatments; isolation; treating bedding; decontaminating environment; vaccines

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24
Q

what animals have a ringworm vaccine

A

cats and cattle

25
Q

is Aspergillus fumigatus fast or slow growing

A

fast

26
Q

where is Aspergillus fumigatus

A

ubiquitous; mold on bread, cheese, rotten fruit, etc.

27
Q

how does A. fumigatus invade the body

A

in damaged tissues along blood vessels

28
Q

T/F Aspergillus fumigatus causes either superficial or systemic infection

A

T

29
Q

what influences the type of disease caused by Aspergillus fumigatus

A

host predisposition, challenge or both

30
Q

what is characteristic of mycotic abortion caused by Aspergillus fumigatus

A

placentitis and lesions on the fetus skin (neck and shoulders)

31
Q

what are some diseases caused by aspergillus

A
  • mycotic abortion (cows, horses)
  • air sacculitis
  • granulomatous pneumonia (birds)
  • rumenitis
  • keratitis (horses)
  • sinusitis (dogs, horses)
  • gluttaral pouch mycosis
  • allergic lung disease
32
Q

how can we prevent and treat aspergillus infections

A

prevent by lowering predisposition; treat with antifungals and surgical removal of contamination/granulomatous inflammation

33
Q

T/F Candida albicans is zoonotic

A

F

34
Q

is C. albicans gram positive or negative

A

positive

35
Q

where is C. albicans

A

in flora of mouth, intestine urogenital tract

36
Q

T/F candida albicans is an opportunist

A

T

37
Q

describe the types (invasive vs non-invasive) of infections caused by C. albicans

A

usually superficial but can invade locally using pseudohyphae

38
Q

where can thrush occur

A

mouth, tongue, proventriculus, stomach

39
Q

what predisposes an animal to developing thrush

A

immunocompromised, antibiotics, moisture, iatrogenic during mastitis treatment, steroids

40
Q

T/F Candida albicans and Aspergillus fumigatus grow at the same rate (1-2 days to culture)

A

T

41
Q

how do we treat and prevent Candida albicans

A

prevent predisposition; treat with antifungals (local or systemic)

42
Q

what is a common cause of otitis externa and dermatitis in dogs (ears and skin)

A

Malassezia pachydermatitis

43
Q

what is the footprint shaped yeast

A

Malassezia pachydermatitis

44
Q

we treat systemic fungal infections with fungistatic or fungicidal drugs

A

cidal

45
Q

what causes blastomycosis

A

Blastomyces dermatitidis

46
Q

what is special about blastomyces dermatitidis

A

dimorphic; very large yeast in tissue

47
Q

where is blastomyces dermatitidis located

A

high leaf-litter

48
Q

what types of dogs are predisposed to blastomycosis

A

young male hunting dogs (inhale the spores during the fall)

49
Q

what is the pathogenesis of blastomycosis (B. dermatitidis)

A

dogs inhale the spores in the fall -> spores germinate in the lungs, forming yeasts -> immunosuppression -> granulomatous pneumonia -> dissemination systemically -> local ulcerative ischemic lesions and granulomatous inflammation

50
Q

because Blastomyces dermatitidis is a slow growing mold, it may take ______ to see the disease develop

A

1-2 months

51
Q

what are some ways to diagnose blastomycosis

A

culture, serology, direct demo

52
Q

what are the 2 agents of cryptococcosis

A

C. neoformans, C. gattii

53
Q

what is special about C. neoformans and C. gattii

A

dimorphic and encapsulated yeast

54
Q

C. neoformans is associated with ____________________ and causes disease in ____________ individuals whereas C. gattii is associated with ___________________ and causes disease in ______________ individuals

A

bird manure (pigeons); immunocompromised; leaf litter; healthy

55
Q

what does C. neoformans cause

A

granulomatous inflammation of the URT and brain; rarely pneumonia

56
Q

what is the pathogenesis of C. neoformans

A

inhaled; granulomas in the nasal sinuses; reaches the CNS directly or via blood

57
Q

what diseases is C. neoformans associated with

A

FIV/FeLV

58
Q

how do we diagnose C. neoformans

A

direct demo; PCR; culture; capsular antigen demo