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2nd Semester Final > 2nd Semester Pharm Final > Flashcards

2nd Semester Pharm Final Flashcards

1
Q

Epinephrine (Adrenalin)

A

Direct acting adrenergic agonist DOC for life threatening anaphylaxis (to fix hypotension, cause bronchodilation, and increase HR) often administered thru pen injection (1:1000) or IV (1:10,000), can cause tremor/palpitations/other sympathetic effects

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2
Q

Albuterol

A

B2 selective short acting bronchodilater adrenergic agonist working primarily on bronchial smooth muscle allowing for dilation usually well tolerated with minimal ADR’s required as a rescue inhaler in all asthma patients (sometimes its all they need)

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3
Q

Xopenex (Levabuterol)

A

Just a different form of albuterol with same properties and principles

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4
Q

Loratadine (claritin or alavert)

A

2nd gen H1 antagonsist (antihistamine) used for allergic rhinitis or mild allergies (has to be taken prophylactically) that does NOT cause sedation but can cause some GI disturbance as an ADR

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5
Q

Certirizine (zyrtec)

A

2nd gen H1 antagonist (antihistamine) used for seasonal allergic rhinitis (has to be taken prophylactically) that does not cause sedation but can cause some GI upset as an ADR

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6
Q

Fexofenadine (allegra)

A

2nd gen H1 antagonist (antihistamine) used for seasonal allergic rhinitis (has to be taken prophylactically) that does not cause sedation but can cause some mild GI upset as an ADR

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7
Q

Diphenhydramine (benadryl)

A

1st gen H1 antagonist (antihistamine) used for allergies and insomnia (has to be taken prophylactically) that has several ADR’s including sedation/anticholinergic effects (dry mouth)

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8
Q

Ipratropium bromide (atrovent/nasal spray)

A

Short acting antimuscarinic antagonist anticholinergic agent that decreases mucus secretions in those with excessive watery rhinorrhea and allows for bronchodilation for quick relief of acute asthma exacerbation can cause transient nasal dryness and epistaxis and some concern to use if presence of CV disease

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9
Q

Pulmicort flexhaler/rhinocort nasal spray (budesonide)

A

Common glucocorticoid inhaler used to treat persistent asthma or relieve allergies when in a nasal spray, most effective treatment for asthma and relatively safe without causing severe systemic effects, concern for impact on growth in children and development of candida infection

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10
Q

Pseudoephedrine (sudafed)

A

a1 agonist used as a decongestant to clear a runny nose often due to allergy, common cold, or rhinitis but can cause hypertension or necrosis at site of administration due to microvasospasm

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11
Q

Fluticasone (flonase)

A

Nasal spray glucocorticoid used to treat seasonal allergies by bringing relief but can cause nasal dryness or bleeding as ADR’s

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12
Q

Montelukast (singulair)

A

Leukotriene receptor antagonist used to treat asthma (exercise induced) and allergic rhinitis with almost no ADR’s as it has very few interactions

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13
Q

Cromolyn

A

Mast cell stabilizer preventing release of histamine used as alternative asthma treatment to glucocorticoids in mild cases when inhaled, is the safest of all antiasthma medications with no ADR’s

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14
Q

Epoetin alfa (epogen, procrit)

A

Erythropoeitic growth factor used to reverse anemia brought on by chronic renal failure, not efficient at decreasing fatigue or delaying renal deterioration but reduces need for transfusions

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15
Q

ferrous sulfate (feosol)

A

Least expensive PO iron replacement therapy, to be taken between meals without food for max absorption, DOC for iron deficient anemia, ADR’s can include nausea/bloating/etc.

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16
Q

Fe dextran

A

IV iron for those who cannot take it orally

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17
Q

Lovenox (enoxaprin)

A

SubQ low molecular weight heparin approved for treatment (or prophylaxis) of DVT and PE, is as effective as standard heparin but can be given on a fixed dose/schedule and doesn’t require IV or aPTT monitoring while still being as effective as standard heparin

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18
Q

Clopidogrel (plavix)

A

Oral antiplatelet that prevents aggregation of platelets that is usually well tolerated UNLESS patient has to go to cath lab

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19
Q

Dabigatran etexilate (pradaxa)

A

Direct thrombin inhibitor that acts directly on thrombin (opposed to acting thru antithrombin) that has immediate onset, lowered risks of major bleeds, and does not require aPTT or PT/INR monitoring

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20
Q

Rivaroxaban (xarelto) and apixaban (eliquis)

A

Direct factor Xa inhibitors that prevent the formation of thrombin from prothrombin, frequently used to prevent stroke in patients with afib

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21
Q

Heparin

A

IV quick acting anticoagulant preferred during pregnancy, PE, stroke, DVT, and MI by activating antithrombin and binding it to thrombin creating the complex for inactivation, requires aPTT monitoring and can result in hemorrhaging in some patients

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22
Q

Warfarin (coumadin)

A

Vit K antagonist anticoagulant that works by blocking vit K synthesis and thus inactivation of the vit k dependant clotting factors II VII IX and X taking days to see effect (2-5) used to prevent PE often in afib patients, monitored via PT/INR and can cause hemorrhage or purple toe syndrome

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23
Q

Furosemide (lasix)

A

A Loop diuretic that is the most effective available, acts at the ascending loop of henle blocking absorption of Na+ and Cl- preventing the passive absorption of water that would follow even with severe renal impairment, reserved for times where rapid fluid mobilization is needed or in uncontrolled hypertension, ADR’s include dehydration, hypotension, hypokalemia, and ototoxicity

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24
Q

Hydrochlorothiazide (thiazide diuretic)

A

Blocks reabsorption of Na+ and Cl- early in the distal convoluted tubule preventing passive absorption of water that would follow but only in patients with preserved GFR’s, drug of choice for hypertension in nonblack and black patients, ADR’s include hypotension, hypokalemia

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25
Q

Spironolactone

A

K+ sparing diuretic that moderately increases diuresis without drastically decreasing K+ levels by blocking action of aldosterone (to retain Na+ in exchange for K+ loss in distal tubule) thus causing Na+ loss and water following, drug of choice for primary aldosteronism and can be used in hypertension, 2 big ADRs are hyperkalemia and endocrine effect due to steroid nature of drug

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26
Q

Elperenone (Inspra)

A

Same as spironolactone but without endocrine side effects

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27
Q

Mannitol

A

Osmotic diuretic injected IV that is pharmacologically inert but used to create osmotic force in nephron that drives fluid out of body and into urine, ADR’s are edema and heart failure

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28
Q

Acetazolamide (diamox)

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that causes increased diuresis after days of therapy primarily used for glaucoma and mountain sickness because not very strong diuretic

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29
Q

Aliskiren (tekturna)

A

Direct renin inhibitor blocking cleavage of angiotensinogen to angiotensin I and thus II and aldosterone are decreased as well, used to reduce BP similar to ACE or ARB but is new and thus not well studied, does cause same fetal harm as ACEs and ARBs and are thus contraindicated in pregnancy

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30
Q

Permethrin/malathion

A

Agent of choice for mites, scabies, and lice, toxic them to their ova killing them by paralysis but causing minimal effects to host

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31
Q

Finasteride (propecia)

A

5a reductase inhibitor indicated to prevent hair loss in men by inhibiting testosterone conversion to DHT

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32
Q

Erythromycin + benzoyl peroxide

A

Macrolide antibiotic in topical ointment for treatment of acne functions by decreasing the # of P. acnes organisms on the face

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33
Q

Tretinoin topical (Retin-A)

A

Retinoid (derivative of vit A) cream approved for mild to moderate acne acting by removing existing comedones and preventing formation of new ones

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34
Q

Isotretinoin (accutane)

A

Retinoid (derivative of vit A) oral pill approved for treatment of severe cystic nodular acne, ADR’s include UV sensitivity, psychological effects, teratogenic effects, and it can interact with tetracyclines or vit A

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35
Q

Dapsone (aczone)

A

Topical alternative for those who cannot tolerate benzoyl peroxide

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36
Q

Metronidazole cream

A

Antibiotic cream useful in treating rosacea

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37
Q

Mupirocin (bactroban)

A

Bactericidal agent against MRSA used to treat impetigo or intranasal elimination of S Aureus

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38
Q

Fluconazole (diflucan) derm

A

Azole (antifungal) that in cream form can be used to treat fungal infections on the skin

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39
Q

Ketoconazole

A

Azole antifungal cream and shampoo for seborrheic dermatitis (dandruff)

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40
Q

Nystatin cream

A

Nonazole antifungal that in cream form can be used to treat fungal infections on the skin

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41
Q

Lisinopril

A

ACE inhibitor that prevents conversion of angiotensin I to II, causing vasodilation to lower blood pressure and reduces aldosterone conc. resulting in less Na+ retention and as a result fluid loss, ADR’s include hypotension, cough due to bradykinin level buildup, and teratogenic effects on pregnancy, used as first line management of hypertension alongside others in nonblack patients only, (ACEI not as effective in black patients but can be employed in those with chronic kidney disease alongside others) as well as post MI and nephropathy

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42
Q

Metoprolol

A

B1 adrenergic antagonist (B-blocker) acting primarily on B receptors in cardiac tissue for treatment of hypertension, angina pectoris, and heart failure but ADR’s include bradycardia, AV heart block, and exercise intolerance

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43
Q

Diovan/cozaar (ARB’s)

A

Angiotensin receptor blockers, prevent angiotensin II from acting on blood vessels causing dilation and thus prevent activation of aldosterone reducing conc. resulting in less Na+ retention and as a result fluid loss, can be used to treat hypertension, diabetic nephropathy, and MI without causing the cough but can cause hypotension or teratogenic effects on pregnancy, less effective than ACEI in heart failure because does not increase levels of bradykinin (which helps vasodilation)

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44
Q

Propranolol

A

A B blocker that can be administered orally and crosses the BBB easily making it useful for things such as prevention against stage fright

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45
Q

Amlodipine (norvasc) and nifidipine

A

Dihydropyridine Ca2+ channel blockers that act primarily on smooth muscle vasculature and are thus primarily used for hypertension but MUST be taken alongside a B blocker to prevent reflex tachycardia

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46
Q

Verapamil (calan, covera HS, verelan)

A

Phenylalkamine Ca2+ channel blocker that acts at the blood vessels and the heart used to treat hypertension, arrhythmia, and angina, contraindicated in those with AV block

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47
Q

Dilitiazem (cardizem, dilacor, dilitia XT, tiazac)

A

Benzothiazapine Ca2+ channel blocker that acts on blood vessels and the heart used to treat angina, arrhythmia, and hypertension

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48
Q

Nitroglycerin

A

Smooth muscle relaxant drug of choice for patients experiencing angina attacks, can NOT give if on sildenafil

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49
Q

Atropine (atropen)

A

Anticholinergic muscarinic antagonist that prevents endogenous Ach activating muscarinic receptors, can treat a cholinergic crisis all the way down to just decreasing salivation, can treat bradycardia but ADRs is dry mouth or urinary retention

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50
Q

Clomiphene (clomid)

A

Inertility treatment agent

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51
Q

Bethanechol (urecholine)

A

Direct acting muscarinic agonist used to treat urinary retention or GI paralysis

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52
Q

Pilocarpine

A

A topical cholinergic agonist that functions to topically treat close angle glaucoma until surgery or treat dry mouth due to sjogrens

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53
Q

Donepezil

A

Cholinesterase inhibitor used in treatment (delay of progression) of alzheimers

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54
Q

Dopamine (incor)

A

Can stimulate kidneys at low doses, inotropic effect at intermediate doses, and vasoconstriction at high

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55
Q

Dobutamine

A

Catecholamine with selective activation of B1 adrenergic receptors preferred for short term treatment of acute HF by IV

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56
Q

Amiodarone

A

Class III antiarrhythmics that blockade K+ channels delaying repolarization, big ADR is that it is thyrotoxic

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57
Q

Digoxin and adenosine

A

2 drugs that do not fit into any other classes of antiarrhythmics, both drugs decrease conduction thru AV node and reduce automaticity in SA node

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58
Q

Phenytoin (dilantin)

A

Antiseizure drug used to treat digoxin induced arrhythmia primarily (not used for tonic clonic seizures anymore)

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59
Q

Quinidine

A

Drug most commonly used to treat supraventricular tach and atrial flutter/fib, blockades sodium channels, slows impulse of conduction delaying depolarization, strongly anticholinergic blocking vagal imput on heart and thus must be pre-treated with AV conduction suppressant such as verapamil, or B blocker

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60
Q

Timolol

A

B blocker used for glaucoma equally efficient as pilocarpine at decreasing intraocular pressure

61
Q

Diclofenac/ketorolac

A

NSAID with particular use treating actinic keratoses of the eyes

62
Q

Latanoprost (Xalatan)

A

Prostaglandin analog mainstay in treatment of glaucoma that can cause irreversible browning of the eye and stinging as 2 ADRs

63
Q

Rifampin/ethambutol

A

Antibiotic with treatment ability of Tb

64
Q

Theophyline

A

2nd or 3rd line antiasthmatic (but not anti COPD) that produces bronchorelaxation but is no more effective then B2 agonists and glucocorticoids despite being more dangerous

65
Q

Buproprion (wellbutrin)

A

Antidepressant also useful in smoking cessation by decreasing cravings

66
Q

Salmeterol and formoterol

A

Long acting bronchodilating agents that are otherwise very similar to albuterol

67
Q

Varenicline (chantix)

A

Non nicotine pill that acts as a nicotine receptor partial agonist that causes nicotine to which smoking is absolutely contraindicated upon max dose being achieved (corresponding to quit date), causes severe side effects from residual or any other nicotine, can cause suicidal ideation or rage (cannot operate heavy machinery)

68
Q

Phenobarbital

A

Antiseizure medication can reduce seizures without causing sedation and effective against all types of epilepsy except absence seizures,

69
Q

Carbamazepine (tegretol)

A

Antizeisure med useful against all types of seizures except absence, can cause aplastic anemia and birth defects as ADR’s

70
Q

Ethosuximide (zarontin)

A

ADR free antiseizure treatment for absence seizures

71
Q

Valproic acid (depakene)

A

Antiseizure and anti migraine med used widely to treat all types of seizures, category D teratogen so used in mother only if no other agents work because pros outweigh cons

72
Q

Diazepam (valium)

A

1st line choice in seizure convulsion abortion effective in 90% of patients, effects are short lived and must be administered IV

73
Q

Lorazapem (ativan)

A

Seizure convulsion aborting agent preferred to diazepam for seizure convulsion abortion because has longer duration up to 72 hours meaning follow up with long acting drug may be unnecessary unlike diazepam

74
Q

Levodopa (dopar)

A

Drug of choice for parkinson’s disease at controlling tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity despite limited duration of efficacy that diminishes over years (on-off effect), acts by promoting synthesis of dopamine in the striatum after being taken across blood brain barrier, is then converted to dopamine by dopa decarboxylase, (dopamine cannot get across BBB on own and has too short half life)

75
Q

Carbidopa + levodopa (sinemet)

A

Most effective therapy for parkinson disease, more effective than levodopa alone because carbidopa which has no therapuetic effects on its own enhances actions of levodopa by inhibitng decarboxylases in periphery making more levodopa available to CNS but carbidopa cannot cross BBB so doesn’t affect it in the CNS (recall only 2% levadopa normally reaches brain, goes up to 10%)

76
Q

Triptans

A

Serotonin 1B/1D receptor agonists that cause vasoconstriction of intracranial blood vessels allowing for relief 1 hour after administration of migraine symptoms, contraindicated in CAD patients or those on SSRI’s (seratonin syndrome)

77
Q

Ergotamine

A

Direct vasoconstriction to intracranial vessels used to stop ongoing migraine attack and treat cluster headaches but not to be used on long term basis, ergotism (headache, NVD, gangrene of fingers and toes) is ADR

78
Q

dihydrogotamine

A

Preferred agent to ergotamine for abortive therapy of ongoing migraine attack/cluster headache because has same functionality but no dependence develops, and fewer ADR’s

79
Q

Metformin (glucophage)

A

DOC for type 2 diabetes, lowers blood glucose solely by decreasing gluconeogenesis in the liver but has no interaction with the pancreas keeping it safe from risk of hypoglycemia

80
Q

Glizipide (glucotrol) and glyburide

A

2nd gen sulfonylureas that stimulate release of insulin from pancreatic tissues by binding receptor sites on B cell causing depolarization triggering increase in intracellular calcium and thus insulin release (pancreas must be able to produce insulin for them to be effective), ADR’s include weight gain, hypoglycemia if meal is missed, and disulfuram like reaction

81
Q

Acarbose (precose)

A

a glucosidase inhibitor that is an oral agent that binds enzyme in small intestine slowing rate of complex carb digestion resulting in a less sharp blood glucose rise, BIG ADR is gas due to fermentation of carbs

82
Q

Exanetide/Victoza/Trulicity/Ozempic

A

GLP 1 receptor agonists that are injected for type 2 diabetes management acting simulating physiologic effect of endogenous incretin causing post prandial glucose amount dependent corresponding insulin release, ADR is pancreatitis

83
Q

Humulin R

A

Unmodified crystalline insulin that is short acting soluble insulin, after SC injection forms small hexamers delaying absorption and onset to .5-1 hour, with peak action occurring 2.5-5 hours, and lasting 4-12 hours

84
Q

Lantus/Levemir/Tresiba/Toujeo/Basaglar

A

Insulin glargine, Long acting peakless insulin analog, mimics basal effects of insulin secreted by healthy pancreas

85
Q

Plioglitazone (ACTOS) and rosglitazone (avandia)

A

Thiazolidinediones that act as antidiabetic medications by decreasing insulin resistance by activating a receptor synthesis gene in cells promoting uptake, ADR’s include edema and anemia

86
Q

Repaglinide/nateglinide

A

Meglitinides, short acting agents for type 2 diabetes with same mech of action as sulfonylureas, tend to be shorter acting tho and are taken with each meal

87
Q

Sitigliptin/Saxagliptin (januvia)

A

DPP-4 inhibitors that promote glycemic control by enhancing the actions of incretin hormones by inhibiting their destruction, potentiating glucose dependent secretion of insulin and suppress glucagon secretion typically adjunctive therapy to meetformin,

88
Q

Aspart (novalog), glulisine, and lispro (humalog)

A

Rapid acting insulin that unlike most insulins avoids self association to form hexamers and thus attains more rapid absorption and onset of action (15 min)

89
Q

canagliflozin (Invokana)

A

SGLT 2 inhibitor that block SGLT2 transporters decreasing renal glucose reabsorption and increasing urinary glucose excretion, reducing fasting and prepreandial blood glucose levels, also reduces SBP and CV risk, ADR’s include fournier’s gangrene and mycotic UTI

90
Q

DDAVP

A

Clotting promoter and antidiuretic that helps stop bleeding in patients with von Willebrand’s disease and can treat diabetes insipidus. It can also treat bedwetting problems

91
Q

Levothyroxine (Synthroid)

A

PO oral T3 to return TSH level to physiologic range

92
Q

Methimazole (Tapazole)

A

Antithryoid drug that acts similar to PTU but does NOT affect conversion of T4 to T3 in periphery, is the preferred agent to PTU because it is not as hepatotoxic UNLESS pregnant

93
Q

PTU

A

Antithyroid drug used alone as sole source of treatment in graves disease or employed as adjunct to radiation therapy acting by blocking production of thyroid hormone, highly hepatotoxic and thus methimazole (tapazole) is preferred over it UNLESS pregnant when PTU is preferred

94
Q

Cinacalcet (sensipar)

A

calcimimetic agent that lowers PTH levels and is first choice treatment for primary hyperparathyroidism

95
Q

methylphenidate (Concerta, Ritalin)

A

Stimulant used in treatment of ADHD and narcolepsy

96
Q

Dextroamphetamine/Amphetamine (adderall)

A

Stimulant used in treatment of ADHD and narcolepsy

97
Q

Guanfacine (Intuniv)

A

Nonstimulant drug useful in treatment of ADHD and high blood pressure

98
Q

Lithium

A

Mood stabilizer, mainstay in treatment for all episodes and subtypes of bipolar disorder highly effective for stabilizing acute mania by reducing euphoria and hyperactivity without causing sedation, can also treat schizophrenia, alcoholism, migraine

99
Q

amitriptyline

A

Tricyclic antidepressant that is alternative for treatment of depression, enuresis (inability to control urination), and pain management by blocking reuptake of NE and serotonin alongside other mechanisms, anticholinergic effects/sedation/orthostatic hypotension/overdosage are ADRs

100
Q

Fluoxetine (prozac)

A

SSRI used in treatment of depression, obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), bulimia nervosa, and panic disorder, is the only antidepressant approved for major depression treatment in children ADR’s include risk of suicidality in children, sexual dysfunction***, nausea, bruxism (clenching teeth usually during sleep leading to pain)

101
Q

Sertraline (Zoloft)

A

SSRI used in treatment of depression, obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), bulimia nervosa, and panic disorder, ADR’s include suicidality in children, sexual dysfunction***, nausea, bruxism (clenching teeth usually during sleep leading to pain)

102
Q

Trazodone (desyrel)

A

Moderate blockade of serotonin reuptake that is not effective when used alone but often as an adjunct to an SSRI in depressed/PTSD patients with insomnia because it is very sedating, big ADR is priapism which requires discontinuation

103
Q

alprazolam (xanax), lorazepam (Ativan), and diazepam (Valium)

A

Benzodiazapine that is drug of choice for anziety and insomnia, acts by decreasing functional activity of specific areas of the brain and spinal cord by potentiating activity of inhibitory neurotransmitters in the CNS affecting primarily the limbic system (emotion), reticular formation (sleep and wakefulness), cerebral cortex (stop convulsions and seizures), and spinal cord (decrease skeletal muscle tone in injury), can cause CNS depression and physical dependence

104
Q

Temazepam (restoril)

A

Short acting hypnotic agent administered 1-2 hours before bedtime for insomnia treatment

105
Q

risperidone (Risperdal)

A

2nd gen antipsychotic used to treat schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, delusional disorder, manic phase of bipolar disorder, and major depression in combo with other antidepressants, ADR is risk of metabolic effects such as hyperglycemia, weight gain and dyslipidemia

106
Q

haldoperidol (Haldol), chorpromazine (thorazine), and thiothixene (navane)

A

1st gen antipsychotics used to treat schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, delusional disorder, manic phase of bipolar disorder, and major depression in combo with other antidepressants, ADR’s include -Extrapyramidal reactions, Hyperprolactinemia, Weight gain, Dry mouth, Sedation, and Orthostatic hypotension

107
Q

Clozapine (clozaril)

A

Powerful 2nd gen antipsychotic indicated only for patients with schizophrenia who have not responded to traditional agents or who cannot tolerate extra pyramidal side effects, large ADR is agranulocytosis that can be fatal requiring mandatory weekly monitoring of blood counts and highest incidence of weight gain

108
Q

Atomoxetine (straterra)

A

Nonstimulant 2nd line treatment for ADHD, norepi reuptake inhibitor, has big ADR of risk of suicide ideation

109
Q

Ampicillin and amoxicillin

A

Aminopenicillins that act thru disrupting cell wall to allow for water to flood in and cause the cell to burst active against most gram + and some gram - organisms, can be combined with clavulanic acid (augmentin) for wider spectrum, biggest ADR’s are allergies (penicillin in general approx 7% of population), amoxicillin rash (harmless rash that some develop on drug, isn’t serious and self resolving)

110
Q

Piperacillin

A

A type of penicillin with activity against pseudomonas

111
Q

Name the 5 cephalosporin generations and their activity levels, what are the 2 trends important to knowing? ADR’s?

A

1) Cephalexin - highly active on gram + not so much -, rarely DOC its expensive and other things are more effective (Keflex - can be used for UTI prophylaxis)
2) Cefoxitin - highly active on gram + and more gram -
3) Cefazidime OR ceftriaxone - highly active on gram + and - and psuedomonas, can penetrate CSF
4) Cefipime - broad spectrum, highly resistant to B lactamase
5) Ceftaroline - can treat MRSA

Activity on gram - increases further down generations but gram + activity decreases as you go down

Maculopapular rash, cross reactivity with penicillin, disulfuram like reaction when mixed with alcohol

112
Q

Imipenam/Meropenam/ertapenam/dorpipenam

A

Carbapenams that are B lactam antibiotics and the broadest spectrum of any antibiotic across gram + and -

113
Q

Monobactam (Aztreonam)

A

A B lactam antibiotic resistant to B lactamases such as H influenzae and P aeruginosa, can cause pseudomembranous colitis (cdiff infection) suprainfection as an ADR

114
Q

Vancomycin/teicoplanin/fofsomycin/televancin

A

NON B-lactam inhibitors of cell wall synthesis, useful against gram + highly resistant in serious infections such as MRSA, Cdiff and strep, ADR’s only apply to vanco mostly and include ototoxicity, renal failure, and red man syndrome (potentially itchy, red rash not super dangerous but uncomfortable should stop treatment and take some antihistamines)

115
Q

gentamycin, tobramycin, amikacin, and neomycin

A

Aminoglycosides that work against AEROBIC gram - bacilli only sometimes employed in topical eye drop (tobramycin) or supplemental with vanco for severe infection (gentamycin), ADR’s include kidney damage and inner ear toxicity

116
Q

Tetracycline/doxycycline/minocycline/tigecycline

A

Antibiotics capable of preventing protein synthesis in many difficult species including Rickettsia, chlamydia, Brucella, Cholera, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, borelia burgdorferi, H pylori, anthrax and often used to treat acne, peptic ulcers, and peridontal disease but has many ADR’s such as chelate formation with metal ions, photosensitivty, bone and teeth discoloration, suprainfection, fanconi syndrome (if expired, fanconi syndrome where excess excretion by kidney and eventually renal failure)

117
Q

Azithromycin/clarithromycin/erythromycin

A

Macrolide broad spectrum gram + and - antibiotics particularly first line against mycoplasm with ADR’s including ototoxicity, Suprainfection, prolonged QT syndrome, nausea and diarrhea

118
Q

Chloramphenicol

A

Broad spectrum antibiotic inhibitor of 50s ribosomal subunit typically reserved for last resort, ADR’s include pancytopenia and grey baby syndrome (builds up toxic metabolites causing generalized malaise and death)

119
Q

Linezolid

A

Antibiotic unique in mech of action at the 23s portion of the 50s ribosome making cross reactivity uncommon, especially effective against MRSA and VRE, ADR is myelosuppression

120
Q

Retapamulin/mupirocin

A

Topical antibiotics effective at treating impetigo and recurrent MRSA skin infections, can be used to decolonize the nostrils of MRSA carriers as well during outbreak in healthcare setting

121
Q

Ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin, and moxifloxacin

A

Bacterial DNA synthesis inhibitor antibiotics, active against most gram - and some gram + including MRSA, ADR’s include tendon rupture (contraindicated for children), photosensitivity

122
Q

Probenecid

A

Supplements prolongation of PCN’s and cephalosporins in the body so they aren’t excreted so quickly

123
Q

Bactrim (TMP-SMX)

A

A sulfonamide antibiotic useful against MRSA and e coli and often utilized to treat UTI’s and otitis media by inhibiting folic acid synthesis for bacterial DNA production (humans ingest it exogenously), ADR’s include kernicterus, steven johnson syndrome

124
Q

Metronidazole (flagyl)

A

DNA inhibitor antibiotic useful against protozoa and anaerobes such as giardia, cdiff, trichomonas vaginalis, and bacterial vaginosis, ADR is urine darkening

125
Q

4 big TB and leprosy drugs and their ADR

A 
Rifampin - required
isoniazid - required
pyrazinamide
ethambutol
RIPE
Red orange body fluids such as sweat
126
Q

Ampho B

A

Antifungal that disrupts their ergosterol cell wall and is drug of choice for most systemic mycoses often given in the immunocompromised, hard on system and thus azoles are typically preferred in any other situation

127
Q

Fluconazole (diflucan) women’s health

A

Azole antifungal drug of choice for vulvovaginal candidiasis

128
Q

Mebendazole

A

Parasitic drug treatment for trichonella spiralis, ascariasis (roundworms), N. americanus (hookworms), and E. vermicularis (pinworm)

129
Q

praziquantel

A

Parasitic drug treatment for schistosomiasis and T. solium (tapeworm)

130
Q

Acyclovir

A

Inhibitor of DNA replication that is effective for treatment against CMV, HSVII, and varicella zoster viruses

131
Q

Olsetamivir (tamiflu)

A

Drug treatment for influenza A and B if used within first 48 hours of infection seen to shorten disease course, otherwise useless

132
Q

Bacitracin

A

Topical ointment useful in the treatment of group A hemolytic strep

133
Q

Flucytosine

A

Adjunct drug almost always used alongside ampho B to improve effectiveness

134
Q

Harvoni

A

Two PO antiviral agents used as a popular combination to treat HCV today

135
Q

Pencyclovir

A

Antiviral treatment for HSVI topically during recurrent infections

136
Q

Clomiphene (clomid)

A

Ovulatory stimulant used to treat infertility and PCOS in women that acts as an estrogen modulator

137
Q

What 2 situations is progesterone only birth control used?

A
  • Post partum

- Breast feeding mother

138
Q

Depo provera

A

Injectible short acting (3 months) progesterone only birth control that requires 12-18 month withdrawal to return to fertility

139
Q

Candida tropicalis, glabrata, and albicans treatments (respectively)

A

Terezol, nystatin, fluconazole

140
Q

Tamoxifen

A

An estrogen modulator that can treat or prevent breast cancer

141
Q

Premarin

A

Conjugated estrogen tablet for post menopausal women hot flashes and dyspareunia

142
Q

In a patient with suspected gonorrhea or chlamydia, can use these 2 drugs in combo

A
  • doxy or azithromycin

- ceftriaxone

143
Q

Benzanthine PCN/aqueous crystalline PCN

A

B lactam antibiotic drug of choice for primary or latent syphilis and neurosyphilis, respectively

144
Q

Prazosin (minipress)

A

a1 blocker drug used for urinary retention due to BPH and high blood pressure

145
Q

Dutasteride (avodart) and finasteride (proscar or propecia)

A

5 a reductase inhibitors that are antiandrogens preventing conversion of testosterone into DHT which in turn can help treat BPH and male pattern baldness

146
Q

Sildenafil (viagra) tadalafil (Cialis), vardenafil (Levitra)

A

PDE5 inhibitors that act as vasodilators in smooth muscle used to treat ED or advanced pulmonary hypertension

147
Q

Escitalopram (lexapro)

A

SSRI indicated in depression or generalized anxiety disorder in patients older than 12

148
Q

duloxetine (cymbalta)

A

SNRI used to treat depression and nerve pain (fibromyalgia, diabetic neuropathy)

2nd Semester Final (207 decks)

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