UPDATES PKG EXAM #5

Question 1

Question 1:
During severe storms and hurricanes Rapid Response Vehicle Task Forces may be placed into operation. The initial Task Force may consist of all of the following except which incorrect choice?

A: An officer.

B: Two to four firefighters.

C: Two apparatus consisting of RRV-SOC Support Ladder second pieces, one RRV and a TAC Unit, or one RRV and a BFU.

D: The officer will serve as the Task Force Leader (TFL).

Answer 1

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) THREE to SIX firefighters.
AUC 159 Add 8 3

Question 2

Question 2:
There are four factors that influence the stack effect in a high-rise multiple dwelling. Which one listed is incorrect?

A: Air leakage in the building

B: Wind

C: Temperature differential between the outside and inside temperature

D: Height of the building

Answer 2

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. HORIZONTAL AIR EXCHANGE ON EACH FLOOR

THIS IS THE ONE FACTOR THAT WAS CHANGED WHEN THIS BULLETIN WAS UPDATED IN MARCH 2022

“WHAT”

WIND
HEIGHT
AIR-EXCHANGE (HORIZONTAL)
TEMPERATURE

Multiple Dwellings Ch 2 3.3.2

Question 3

Question 3:
The Department conducts annual Open House events with the goal of educating the public in the difficult and dangerous work members perform as fire service professionals. Of the choices below, which contains incorrect information regarding these events?

A: Selected Firehouses will be open to the public for a two-hour period as designated by the Bureau of Operations.

B: Units will be out of service during the event.

C: One Officer or one Firefighter will be assigned to remain in the firehouse and assist with the event.

D: The Fire Safety Education Unit will provide fire safety education literature for distribution. At the conclusion of the event the Officer on Duty shall close out the event on the FSE Tracking System.

Answer 3

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) Units will remain IN SERVICE during the event.
AUC 4 3.2

Question 4

Question 4:
If available, what is the best source of supply for a Tower Ladder?

A: Drafting

B: High-pressure pumper

C: 3rd stage pumper

D: Satellite Water Unit

Answer 4

Answer: D

Explanation:
Also note ONLY ONE SOURCE at the base of the Tower Ladder should be used.

Tower Ladder Ch 4 4.1

Question 5

Question 5:
In order to operate efficiently at buckeye pipeline emergencies, all units should consistently drill on tactics and ensure proper maintenance of valves. Which choice below is incorrect?

A: Units having buckeye pipeline control valves in their administrative district shall have them inspected during semi-annual hydrant inspections. Valves should also be inspected during familiarization drills.

B: Needed repairs or recommendations to buckeye pipeline control valves should be the subject of a letterhead report emailed directly to the Buckeye Pipeline Coordinator. Reports of critical repairs should be the subject of an immediate telephone notification to the Buckeye Pipeline Coordinator through FDOC.

C: Valve pits subject to flooding must be inspected during subfreezing weather. Flooded pits require a letterhead report emailed directly to the Buckeye Pipeline Coordinator.

D: Both buckeye familiarization drills and division drills take place in March/April and September/October, while Borough drills take place in October/November. Valves shall not be turned, closed, or operated in any manner during Familiarization/Division Drills but valves are actually closed during Borough drills.

Answer 5

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Valve pits subject to flooding must be inspected during subfreezing weather. Flooded pits require an IMMEDIATE TELEPHONE NOTIFICATION to the Buckeye Pipeline Coordinator THROUGH FDOC.
D Note: Multi Unit drills may be utilized for Familiarization Drills.
AUC 149 9.1, 9.2, 10.2-10.4, 10.5.2, 10.5.10

Question 6

Question 6:
The first arriving ladder company officer is responsible to activate a building ARCS system if so equipped. Which step outlined below is incorrect?

A: The officer will ensure a functional test is performed before leaving the lobby.

B: The officer shall designate a firefighter or switch his/her HT to the building primary duplex UHF repeater channel (channel 11).

C: The officer will notify the dispatcher for re-transmittal to all incoming units if the building duplex UHF radio repeater system and channel (11 or 12) have been activated as a command channel.

D: Upon arrival of the second arriving battalion chief to the operations post all members except the first ladder officer shall return HT’s to channel 1.

Answer 6

Answer: D

Explanation:
D. Upon arrival of the second arriving battalion chief to the operations post ALL MEMBERS OF THE FIRST LADDER shall return HT’s to channel 1.

Communications Ch 13 3.1.1

Question 7

Question 7:
Bunker Gear must be donned in a specific order. Which order of donning bunker gear is correct?
1. Protective Hood
2. Bunker Coat
3. Handie-Talkie
4. Pants and Boots.

A: 4, 3, 2, 1

B: 4, 3, 1, 2

C: 1, 3, 4, 2

D: 1, 4, 3, 2

Answer 7

Answer: B

Explanation:
1. Pants and Boots (Personal Safety System and suspenders in place)
2. Handie-Talkie (remote speaker clipped to outside of coat)
3. Protective Hood
4. Bunker Coat
AUC 310 7.1

Question 8

Question 8:
A Manhattan engine company is discussing line placement at a lower floor fire in a cast iron loft building consisting of large un-compartmented areas. Members make the following remarks but were incorrect in which one?

A: A 2 1/2 inch hose line is required.

B: The first line must be stretched by way of the main entrance to the location of the fire.

C: The officer supervising the second hoseline should not advance to the floor above until assured that this hoseline is not required on the fire floor.

D: The primary use of the second hoseline is to backup the first hoseline.

Answer 8

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. The first line SHOULD BE STRETCHED TO THE ENTRANCE DOOR THAT PROVIDES THE QUICKEST ACCESS TO THE FIRE AREA TO EXTINGUISH THE FIRE. THIS WILL LIKELY BE BY WAY OF THE MAIN ENTRANCE AND INTERIOR STAIRS.

NOTE “A”: THE 2 1/2 IS REQUIRED HERE BECAUSE OF THE LARGE UNCMARTMENTED AREAS

Loft 6.1.1, 6.2.2

Question 9

Question 9:
There are a number of situations in which it may be necessary for a hoseline to be charged and operated from the exterior of the fire building. Choose the incorrect procedure when operating an exterior hoseline into the fire building.

A: The nozzle should be fully opened and held steady to create a tight stream which minimizes air entrainment. There should be no circular or whipping motion

B: The stream should be operated at a steep angle, by placing members as close to the structure as possible. The stream should be aimed towards the ceiling

C: After applying water to the ceiling, the stream should be moved downward towards the window sill extinguishing all visible fire. This stream should be operated only for a few seconds

D: Exterior handlines should only be used as long as necessary to visually see improvement in the fire conditions. Normally this is approximately 10 seconds

Answer 9

Answer: C

Explanation:
After applying water to the ceiling, the stream should be moved UPWARD towards the TOP of the window opening (Lintel) and operated for a few seconds off the lintel
Multiple Dwellings (March, 2022) ch 1 sec 2.5.9
Fire Dynamics (May, 2021) add 2

Question 10

Question 10:
During severe storms and hurricanes when Rapid Response Vehicle Task Forces are placed into operation, Sector/Group supervisors and Strike Team Leaders shall maintain communications with the Incident Command Post (ICP.) Which choice below reflects the correct communication?

A: DARS primary; 800 MHz alternate; cell phone contingency; dept radio emergency

B: 800 MHz primary; DARS secondary; cell phone contingency; dept radio emergency

C: DARS primary; dept radio alternate; 800 MHz contingency; cell phone emergency

D: 800 MHz primary; DARS secondary; dept radio contingency; cell phone emergency

Answer 10

Answer: A

Explanation:
Primary Communications: The primary method of communications shall be the Department Administrative Radio System (DARS). DARS radios are 400 MHz, UHF handheld radios. Strike Teams operating in each borough shall switch their DARS radio to the designated frequency for that borough. DARS radios do not interfere with transmissions of normally assigned HT’s.
Alternate Communications: 800 MHz radios can be used as an alternate to the DARS when the DARS radios are out of service.
Contingency Communications: Cell phones can be used when the Department Radio, DARS and 800 MHz systems are out of service.
Emergency Communications: The Department Radio can be utilized when an emergency exists and direct communications to the borough dispatcher is necessary and/or other systems are not operable.
AUC 159 Add 8 4.1

Question 11

Question 11:
What is the maximum load capacity for a telescoping ladder?

A: 300 lbs

B: 400 lbs

C: 500 lbs

D: 600 lbs

Answer 11

Answer: A

Explanation:
NEW LADDER AS OF JANUARY 2021

Portable Ladders 8.4.2

Question 12

Question 12:
All members should be familiar with their personal protective equipment (PPE). Which choice below is incorrect?

A: The thermal liner is the most critical component in bunker gear because in conjunction with the vapor barrier, the two account for approximately three quarters of the thermal protective performance.

B: The hood is part of the PPE and shall be worn whether dry, damp, or saturated with moisture.

C: Though recommended, the wearing of the suspenders is not mandatory.

D: Members must leave the area immediately upon feeling any pain or discomfort through the hood, unless the area can be immediately cooled by a hoseline.

Answer 12

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) The wearing of the suspenders is MANDATORY.
A Note: (the other quarter is made up by the outer shell.)
AUC 310 4.1, 6.6, 6.7, 6.8

Question 13

Question 13:
At a standpipe operation, in the extreme case of a third line being stretched to the floor above the fire, and if the floor outlet is in an _______ stairway, consideration may be given to hooking up the 3rd line to the outlet on the original fire floor. Approval by the ________ is needed to hook up an additional line to an outlet on the original fire floor.

A: unenclosed; IC or Fire Sector Supervisor

B: unenclosed; IC

C: enclosed; IC or Fire Sector Supervisor

D: enclosed; IC

Answer 13

Answer: C

Explanation:
NEW INFORMATION IN THE NEW ENGINE OPS

Engine Ops Ch 8 7.7.3

Question 14

Question 14:
All members should have proper knowledge in donning PPE prior to responding. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: For structural fires, all members except chauffeurs shall don their PPE prior to responding. In hot weather, if the apparatus is not equipped with a functioning air conditioning unit, coats and protective hoods may be dispensed with while responding.

B: Non-Structural Fires and Response to BARS Alarms, Non-Fire Responses, ERS NC, and Class E Alarms - In hot weather, coats and protective hoods may be dispensed with while responding. Responding without PPE is permissible. This also includes CFR responses.

C: Members may drive Department apparatus while wearing bunker pants with leather boots.

D: Department Chauffeurs and Tiller operators should insert their thumbs through the wristlet loops of bunker coat prior to driving apparatus.

Answer 14

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) Department Chauffeurs and Tiller operators should NOT insert their thumbs through the wristlet loops of bunker coat prior to driving apparatus as the wristlet material may prevent members from getting a firm grip.
AUC 310 7.2.1-7.2.5

Question 15

Question 15:
Ladder 399 arrives on-scene of a 4th alarm fire in the cockloft of an H-Type MD. The ladder officer reports in to the ICP and is ordered to set up the ladder pipe. The officer has the following thoughts. Which one is correct?

A: One supply source is recommended.

B: When operating at the maximum elevation of 80 feet, the siamese should be supplied with roughly 150 psi.

C: When in operation, the angle of the aerial ladder should not exceed 75 degrees.

D: While the ladder pipe is in operation, the horizontal movement of the stream is controlled using the halyard.

Answer 15

Answer: B

Explanation:
A. TWO SUPPLY SOURCES ARE recommended TO PREVENT UNDUE STRESS ON THE AERIAL LADDER IN THE EVENT A SUDDEN LOSS OF WATER OCCURS.

C. When in operation, the angle of the aerial ladder should not exceed 70 DEGREES.

D. While the ladder pipe is in operation, the VERTICAL movement of the stream is controlled using the halyard. THE HORIZONTAL MOVEMENT IS CONTROLLED BY MOVING THE TURNTABLE.

NOTE “B”: THE LADDER PIPE SHOULD BE SUPPLIED WITH ROUGHLY 110 PSI, PLUS 5 PSI FOR EVERY 10 FEET IN ELEVATION.

THESE NUMBERS/CALCULATIONS WERE ADDED IN THE NEW ENGINE OPS

Engine Ops Ch 9 6.6.5, 6.6.6, 6.6.7, 6.6.8

Question 16

Question 16:
The incorrect statement made in regards to ventilation in Low-Rise buildings can be found in which choice?

A: Vertical ventilation initially relieves built up heat and smoke even when conducted ahead of hoseline operations. However, this is a temporary improvement period that occurs, and may be followed by a rapid deterioration of conditions if hoseline operation on the fire does not occur at or near the same time

B: Vertical Ventilation may provide the fire with additional air if air is drawn down from the vertical opening to the fire

C: Ventilation points (openings) that are higher in the building are more efficient in pulling air towards the fire

D: The “Temporary Improvement Period” that occurs during vertical ventilation conducted ahead of hoseline operation and without door control lasts for an unspecified amount of time; it can be seconds or several minutes before conditions deteriorate

Answer 16

Answer: C

Explanation:
Ventilation points (openings) that are LOWER in the building are more efficient in pulling air towards the fire. This is especially true when there are both a low opening (such as door or window) and a high opening (such as a skylight or bulkhead door). This can cause a low vent to act as an inlet and the high vent to act as an exhaust
Fire Dynamics (May, 2021) add 1

Question 17

Question 17:
All members should know how to properly decontaminate items. Of the following choices, which is not in accordance with Department policy?

A: If both bunker pants and the Personal Safety System (PSS) have been grossly contaminated, members shall place both items together into a double clear bag, tied or taped closed.

B: For fireground contamination, the PSS shall be decontaminated in quarters using a sponge and water. A mild detergent may be used if necessary.

C: Radios, tools and other hard surface items shall be decontaminated in quarters with a chlorine bleach solution.

D: Prior to forwarding contaminated PPE, remove all items from pockets (e.g. coins, nails, tools, pens, etc).

Answer 17

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) If both bunker pants and the Personal Safety System (PSS) system have been grossly contaminated, members SHALL SEPARATE the PSS from pants prior to bagging both items. The PSS System shall not be bagged with bunker coat and pants.
AUC 310 Add 5 2.2, 2.3, 2.5

Question 18

Question 18:
Lieutenant James is working in Ladder 199 when she gets call from a local school. The teacher informs the officer that she’d like to schedule a visit with her fourth grade class. The Lieutenant would be correct to inform the teacher that she needs one adult supervisor per how many children?

A: 5

B: 10

C: 15

D: 20

Answer 18

Answer: B

Explanation:
BELOW 3RD GRADE: 1 ADULT FOR EACH 5 KIDS
3RD AND 4TH GRADE: 1 ADULT FOR EACH 10 KIDS
5TH GRADE AND OVER AND SCOUT TROOPS: 1 ADULT FOR EVERY 15 KIDS

THIS WAS ALL UPDATED WITH RELEASE OF NEW REGS IN APRIL 2022

Regulations Ch 19 19.2.9

Question 19

Question 19:
When activated during a severe storm or hurricane, each Rapid Response Vehicle Task Force shall be equipped with a minimum of each of the following except?

A: Two chain saws

B: Spare chains, Chain saw fuel and NFPA approved protective equipment for chain saw operations including helmet, eye and ear protection, gloves, bunker boots and chaps

C: Search rope

D: One dewatering pump

Answer 19

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Elevator keys
Note: Additional equipment will be supplied as necessary by contacting Tech Services. SOC or Rescue Operations does not supply this equipment for SSL’s.
AUC 159 Add 8 3.6

Question 20

Question 20:
Listed below are several self-mutual restrictions. Which one is incorrect?

A: Firefighters are only permitted to pay back a self-mutual tour when their regularly assigned group is not scheduled to work.

B: Firefighters may work a maximum of four self-mutual tours in any calendar year.

C: Firefighters will be permitted to owe the department a maximum of one tour prior to repayment and will not be permitted another self-mutual until the outstanding tour is repaid.

D: Firefighters may be permitted to accumulate a maximum of two self-mutual tours to be repaid to member at a later date.

Answer 20

Answer: A

Explanation:
THIS RESTRICTION WAS REMOVED FROM THE BOOKS WHEN THE NEW PAIDS WERE RELEASED IN APRIL 2022

PAID 5 Ch 2 4.1, 4.2, 4.6

Question 21

Question 21:
Chief Green stopped by quarters to discuss adherence to Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) protocols. In which statement was he incorrect?

A: Only PPE issued by the Quartermaster may be worn when on-duty. Items issued by the quartermaster are National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) compliant, which conform to their standards for manufacture, testing and certification.

B: NFPA compliant PPE not issued by the quartermaster is permitted to be worn on duty.

C: No member is permitted to make any repairs, alterations or modifications to any protective items. When repair or replacement of protective items is warranted, such equipment shall be brought for inspection before the Department’s Quartermaster, who will determine its serviceability.

D: Condemned or damaged gear, and those items that are no longer listed for use, are not permitted to be worn for any reason.

Answer 21

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) No other unauthorized PPE shall be worn when on-duty. This includes NFPA compliant PPE not issued by the quartermaster.
AUC 310 Add 6

Question 22

Question 22:
Newly promoted company officers must be aware of the FDNY’s injury and exposure reporting guidelines. Which one stated is incorrect?

A: If an on-duty member is transported to a hospital or other medical facility by ambulance, the member may not return to duty (regardless of the type of injury) without the approval of the company officer.

B: If an on-duty member is evaluated at a hospital or other medical facility, the medical officer must be notified, and an injury report must be completed in CIRS.

C: Smoke inhalation without symptoms shall never be classified as a minor injury.

D: There are two injury classifications: service connected medical leave and minor injury.

Answer 22

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. If an on-duty member is transported to a hospital or other medical facility by ambulance, the member may not return to duty (regardless of the type of injury) without the approval of the MEDICAL OFFICER.

NOTE: A, B ,C ARE ALL NEW POINTS THAT WERE ADDED WHEN THIS BULLETIN WAS ISSUED IN APRIL 2022

ALSO NOTE “C”: THIS IS CLASSIFIED AS A NON-BIOLOGICAL EXPOSURE

Safety Bulletin 1 2.4, 2.5, 3.1.1, 3.1.2

Question 23

Question 23:
The term “Black Fire” can be incorrectly described in which choice?

A: Black Fire occurs in areas of the fire building which are said to be in the Growth stage

B: In the Black Fire area itself, the smoke will be too rich to burn and there will be no visible flames

C: Black Fire can and often does include areas above or adjacent to rooms of fire that are fully involved and in the Fully Developed Stage

D: Upon recognition of Black Fire conditions, it’s important not to operate a hoseline. Operating a hoseline on Black Fire will cause a dramatic increase in steam, causing severe injury to nearby firefighters

Answer 23

Answer: D

Explanation:
Black Fire is an extremely dangerous condition to be operating in. Upon recognition of Black Fire conditions, treat the Black Fire smoke as if it were flames. Immediately flow water into the smoke layer with a hoseline to aggressively cool the area. If you are unable to immediately cool the area, isolate our forces from the fire area by closing a door or some other means if possible, or retreat to an area of safety
Fire Dynamics (May, 2021) ch 3 sec 5

Question 24

Question 24:
Two members discussing manhole fire/emergency operations identified one incorrect point that came up during the conversation. Indicate the incorrect point.

A: Vehicles within the area which are parked over manholes, transformer vaults or service boxes can be moved at the direction of a Chief Officer or left in place and protected by a handline. The method chosen will be based on the size-up of a Chief Officer.

B: Civilians are never permitted to move a vehicle parked over a manhole, transformer vault or service box.

C: When an FDNY member will move a vehicle parked over a manhole, transformer vault or service box, the member shall be given the keys and shall be fully donned in PPE. The vehicle shall be approached from the safest direction which may not necessarily be the driver’s side door.

D: When a tow truck is required to move a vehicle parked over a manhole, transformer vault or service box, know that these operators shall only be permitted to remove the vehicle if they can do so from a safe approach and without placing their body under a vehicle that is parked directly above a utility structure in the danger zone.

Answer 24

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) When a civilian IS PERMITTED to move a vehicle parked over a manhole, transformer vault or service box, it shall be obvious that the vehicle is NOT IN A DANGEROUS POSITION.
AUC 180 4.8

Question 25

Question 25:
Members in the Bronx are discussing firefighting tactics during periods of civil unrest. They are reviewing firefighting operations as outlined in the FDNY’s Emergency Command Procedures. Which procedure is incorrect?

A: Firefighting operations begin upon order from the Task Force Leader.

B: The use of hydrants before and after the fire building should be avoided, with hooking up to mid-block hydrants being preferable.

C: Engine apparatus should be supplied with minimum of two supply lines when possible.

D: A backup handline shall be stretched at all structural fires, regardless of the number of lines needed to extinguish the fire.

Answer 25

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. The use of MID-BLOCK HYDRANTS should be avoided, with hooking up to HYDRANTS BEFORE AND AFTER THE FIRE BUILDING being preferable.

NEW BULLETIN RELEASED APRIL 2021

ERP 3B 4.7.1, 4.7.4, 4.7.5, 4.7.6

Question 26

Question 26:
A manhole incident is properly resolved in each of the following ways except?

A: Units may cordon off the area and return to service when the incident was minor in nature and/or investigation revealed no additional monitoring is required.

B: In more serious incidents, FDNY should remain on the scene until the FDNY Incident Commander determines that the risk to public safety has been resolved and FD resources are no longer required.

C: In situations requiring monitoring, the Incident Commander will determine the selection of units to be left at the scene. This can be to await the arrival of the electric utility, or if there is an extended ETA it can be until conditions subside. When required, at least one engine and one ladder shall be left to monitor.

D: In more serious incidents, units may have to remain on scene after utility company arrival and continuing to operate as necessary during the initial stages of electric utility operations.

Answer 26

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) In situations requiring monitoring, the Incident Commander will determine the selection of units to be left at the scene. This can be to await the arrival of the electric utility, or if there is an extended ETA it can be until conditions subside. When required, AT LEAST ONE ENGINE shall be left to monitor.
AUC 180 7.6

Question 27

Question 27:
Which choice is not in accordance with FDNY regulations?

A: No apparatus should be driven in excess of 15 mph when turning corners.

B: When responding to alarms, use one way streets against traffic for more than one block only when absolutely necessary.

C: Parkways or express highways may be used by apparatus responding to alarms, when their use would facilitate response. Parkways and express highways shall not be used when returning from alarms.

D: Never attempt to pass another apparatus going in the same direction unless signaled to do so by the officer in command of the apparatus ahead.

Answer 27

Answer: C

Explanation:
C. Parkways or express highways may be used RESPONDING TO OR RETURNING FROM ALARMS when their use would facilitate response.

THIS WAS CHANGED WHEN THE NEW REGUALTIONS WERE RELEASE IN APRIL 2022

Regulations Ch 11 11.1.11

Question 28

Question 28:
As a city agency, Fire units must sometimes engage the public. When individuals or groups request a visit to the firehouse, officers should abide by each of the following except in which incorrect choice?

A: Units will remain in service during Firehouse Visits.

B: Units must request Fire Safety Education Literature by calling the administrative Battalion.

C: The Officer on Duty will schedule the event on a day that the Unit is not scheduled for BISP, hydrant inspection or other scheduled activities, such as PMP, etc. The Officer on Duty will note the event in the day book and enter the information into the FSE Tracking System.

D: The Officer on Duty will e-mail the Scheduling Unit, advising them of the date and times of the event.

Answer 28

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) Units must request Fire Safety Education Literature by contacting the FIRE SAFETY EDUCATION Unit via email or phone.
AUC 4 3.1.2, 3.1.3, 3.1.5-3.1.7

Question 29

Question 29:
The Blitzfire Oscillating Monitor is a relatively new tool to the FDNY. Which one feature of this tool is incorrect?

A: The tool is supplied by 3 1/2 inch hose.

B: The maximum pressure to be supplied to the Blitzfire is 175 psi.

C: The speed of oscillation is a function of the flow rate.

D: On a sloped surface, if the safety mechanism activates, the flow control handle will have to be manually held open by a firefighter.

Answer 29

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. The tool is supplied by 2 1/2 INCH HOSE.

NOTE “C” AND “D” ARE BOTH NEW POINTS ADDED TO THIS TOOL WHEN IT WAS MOVED TO THE NEW ENGINE OPS IN AUGUST 2021.

Engine Ops Ch 9 8.2, 8.3, 8.7.5, 8.10

Question 30

Question 30:
Aside from routine manhole fires, members may have to operate at other types of manhole/transformer emergencies. Which choice below is incorrect?

A: In order to locate a failure in the system, Con Ed intentionally sends out a high-voltage test signal. At the location of the failure, there will be a loud rhythmic banging noise approximately every 6 seconds without smoke or fire present and this poses no safety threat to the public.

B: Notify Con Ed whenever encountering a rhythmic banging noise approximately every 6 seconds and report that you detected a “Fault Finding Signal”.

C: Rescue and Squad companies have special equipment and training to effect the rescue of an injured or unconscious utility worker from a manhole/vault, including while the electric equipment remains energized (without entering the manhole) and even if fire and smoke conditions are present.

D: For a manhole/vault rescue, notify Con Edison for Emergency Power Off Utility Worker Trapped and immediately have first arriving units enter the vault to begin treatment/packaging.

Answer 30

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) FD members shall NOT enter the vault until Con Edison has determined it safe to enter. Special Call Rescue and Squad and allow SOC operations to commence even if power has not been removed. This includes SOC penetrating the vault with special tools and operating a Bresnan distributor; both of these operations are conducted from above ground.
AUC 180 5.1, 5.3

Question 31

Question 31:
How long must a member pause after pressing the push-to-talk button prior to transmitting on the new HT in order to allow the HT ID to be transmitted?

A: 1/4 second

B: 1/2 second

C: 1 second

D: 2 seconds

Answer 31

Answer: B

Explanation:
THIS NUMBER CHANGED FROM THE OLD RADIOS TO THE NEW RADIO

NOTE: HITTING EAB APPROXIMATELY 1 SECOND IS TO ACTIVATE THE EAB. HITTING EAB FOR APPROXIMATELY 2 SECONDS IS TO RESET THE EAB.

Communications Ch 11 2.5 C

Question 32

Question 32:
The term “Smoke Explosion” can be incorrectly described in which choice?

A: A Smoke Explosion can only occur inside the fire compartment

B: A Smoke Explosion can occur without warning

C: A Smoke Explosion can occur without a sudden change in ventilation

D: A Smoke Explosion can occur in a room(s) remote from the fire area, including void spaces

Answer 32

Answer: A

Explanation:
A Smoke Explosion can occur either INSIDE or OUTSIDE the fire compartment when an accumulation of fuel-rich smoke mixes with additional air and falls within its flammable/explosive range
Fire Dynamics (May, 2021) ch 3 sec 6

Question 33

Question 33:
Transformers contain up to 2000 gallons of transformer oil. Although most PCBs have been removed from transformers, there are some that still contain PCBs and full PPE and SCBA use shall be mandatory. Which transformer fire tactic is incorrect?

A: Water applied to a failed transformer with a combustible liquid fire may cause a boilover, which is the rapid expansion and expulsion of vaporized oil. A boilover usually causes a large plume of burning liquid to expel from the container.

B: Water is acceptable to use to protect exposures but applying water directly on the transformer should be avoided as an initial tactic.

C: Transmit a 10-86 Signal (for Purple K, F500 and Foam Response). Operate Foam on the transformer fire as it is the only agent recommended to be used directly on the transformer fire prior to utility arrival. Standoff distance is 10 feet.

D: Evacuate the area as deemed necessary. Establish Hot, Warm and Cold Zones in anticipation of PCB laden oil spray during firefighting operations.

Answer 33

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Transmit a 10-86 Signal (for Purple K, F500 and Foam Response). Operate PURPLE K on the transformer fire as it is the only agent recommended to be used directly on the transformer fire prior to utility arrival. Standoff distance is 10 feet.
Note: “After the arrival of the electric utility” when extinguishing with the methods below, maintain a stand-off distance of 25 feet and use a 30 degree or greater fog stream or a stream operated into the air above the fire so that the selected agent “rains down” onto the fire. Tactics IN ORDER OF PREFERENCE are:
1. F500 - carried by Haz-Mat 1 and stored for FDNY use at some Con Ed Facilities. It is the preferred agent to be used on a transformer fire.
2. Foam.
3. Water Spray.
AUC 180 6.2, 6.3

Question 34

Question 34:
Which engine company operation for a store fire on the first floor of a 4-story old law tenement is incorrect?

A: The first hoseline should be stretched to the store on the first floor.

B: A charged line must be ready before the store is ventilated.

C: Depending on the size of the fire area and the fire conditions a 1 3/4” or 2 1/2” hoseline may be considered.

D: The 2nd hoseline is stretched to the store as a backup line. When assured that the second line is not needed on the first floor, it may be advanced to the second floor.

Answer 34

Answer: D

Explanation:
D. The 2nd hoseline is stretched TO THE ENTRANCE HALLWAY. When assured that the second line is not needed on the first floor, it may be advanced to the second floor.

THERE WERE UPDATES TO THIS SECTION WITH THE RELEASE OF THE BULLETIN IN MARCH 2022

Multiple Dwellings Ch 1 3.3

Question 35

Question 35:
“Operation Sidewalk” is designed to promote better understanding between community residents and the Fire Department, and is accomplished by unit participation at block parties, street fairs, parades, and other school and community events coordinated by the Fire Safety Education Unit in the unit’s response area. Which of the following choices is incorrect regarding this event?

A: The nearest engine company or ladder company is assigned to the activity for a period of 1 1/2 hours. Operation Sidewalk will not be canceled if a Signal 10-51 is transmitted.

B: The unit will remain in service by radio, and respond at the discretion of the dispatcher. The unit will respond to 10-75 signals and greater alarms.

C: The unit assigned should answer questions pertaining to the apparatus and equipment and explain fire safety and prevention.

D: Upon receiving a request for an “Operation Sidewalk” event, the Officer on Duty will have the requester email or call the Fire Safety Education Unit.

Answer 35

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) The nearest engine company or ladder company is assigned to the activity for a period of ONE hour. Operation Sidewalk will be CANCELLED if a Signal 10-51 is transmitted.
C Note: When children are involved, the dangers of hydrant abuse, false alarms, and playing with matches should be stressed. A ladder-raising or mask donning demonstration can be used as part of the display.
D Note: The Fire Safety Education Unit will make arrangements for Fire Department participation with the Bureau of Operations and will detail a member to act as coordinator when appropriate. If a representative cannot attend, the scheduler at the Fire Safety Education Unit will notify the assigned unit, and the unit officer will coordinate the activity.
Notes: No more than one (1) “Operation Sidewalk” function may be assigned to a unit during a tour.
Operation Sidewalk will be canceled if a Signal 10-51 is transmitted. The unit scheduled to participate must notify the sponsoring organization and the Fire Safety Education Unit.
AUC 4 3.3

Question 36

Question 36:
Fire safety education is an important Fire Department function. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: All fire safety education programs are exempt from the 10-51 signal, except Operation Sidewalk or when ordered by the Chief of Operations.

B: Units performing fire safety education functions that are placed out of service by the Bureau of Operations will be out of service for a period of approximately 1 1/2 hours.

C: Upon receiving a request for a Firehouse visit to Quarters, the Officer on Duty will schedule the event on a day that the Unit is not scheduled for BISP, hydrant inspection or other scheduled activities, such as PMP, etc.

D: At a fire safety education event at which a Fire Safety Education Unit coordinator is present, the company officer and members shall be guided by the coordinator. If no coordinator is present, the Officer on duty will be in charge of the field unit’s participation, and upon completion of the event, shall email details to the Fire Safety Education Unit so they can close out the event on the FSE Tracking System.

Answer 36

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) At a fire safety education event at which a Fire Safety Education Unit coordinator is present, the company officer and members shall be guided by the coordinator. If no coordinator is present, the OFFICER on duty will be in charge of the field unit’s participation, and upon completion of the event, MUST CLOSE OUT the event on the FSE Tracking System.
B Note: Some programs may require units to be out of service longer or shorter than that.
C Note: The Officer on Duty will note the event in the day book and enter the information into the FSE Tracking System.
Upon receiving a request for a Fire Safety Education event, other than a visit to Quarters, the Officer on Duty will have the requester contact the Fire Safety Education Unit via email or phone.
AUC 4 2.5, 2.6, 2.8-2.11

Question 37

Question 37:
At what pressure does high pressure pumping begin?

A: 250

B: Over 250

C: 300

D: Over 300

Answer 37

Answer: D

Explanation:
THIS NUMBER WAS CHANGED WHEN THE NEW ENGINE OPS WAS RELEASED

Engine Ops Ch 8 Addendum 1 1.4

Question 38

Question 38:
Which is NOT an example of a Flash Fire?

A: Ignition of dust in a wood shop

B: Ignition of vapors from a roach bomb

C: Ignition of vapors from a newly stained wood floor

D: An explosion of a vessel containing a pressurized liquid that has reached temperatures at or above its boiling point

Answer 38

Answer: D

Explanation:
BLEVE (Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion) is an explosion of a vessel containing a pressurized liquid that has reached temperatures at or above its boiling point
Fire Dynamics (May, 2021) ch 3 sec 8 and 9

Question 39

Question 39:
There can be different types of fires in a transformer vaults. Which description below is incorrect?

A: Cable (Wire) fires are the most common fire that develop in a transformer vault and will present with more smoke visible than actual flames. Flames may protrude from the vault but will not consist of a large volume of fire.

B: Rubbish fires can be extinguished with a class C extinguisher or by using water with proper stand-off distances.

C: Sustained Arcing is when a fault develops on the unit and the limiter (breaker) fails to clear. A persistent bluish arcing flash will develop but may not be visible. Arcing can also be indicated by hissing, buzzing or crackling noises without a visible indicator.

D: A transformer fire will present with an extremely heavy fire condition usually with flames burning 4 or more feet in the air. This is a true transformer fire, and is the combustible oil inside the transformer burning.

Answer 39

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) A transformer fire will present with an extremely heavy fire condition usually with flames burning 10 OR MORE FEET in the air. This is a true transformer fire, and is the combustible oil inside the transformer burning.
A Note: You may follow the procedures for manhole fires for these incidents. (Await Con Ed if possible, using water and proper stand-off distances if necessary)
C Note: While it is common for this condition to occur on cables in a manhole, if it occurs on a transformer, this condition can result in catastrophic failure of the transformer. Isolate the area of civilians, and FD members should monitor from an area of safety. There are no actions members can take to prevent catastrophic failure. You cannot suppress a transformer fire with sustained arcing. The electric utility must remove power from the unit.
AUC 180 6.1

Question 40

Question 40:
What tool assignment is correct for the first due roof firefighter at a Class 2 high rise fire resistive MD?

A: Halligan; Halligan hook; Hydra ram

B: Halligan; Axe; Hydra Ram

C: Halligan; Maul; LSR; Hydra Ram

D: Halligan; Maul; KO curtain; Hydra Ram

Answer 40

Answer: B

Explanation:
HALLIGAN; MAUL/AXE; HYDRA RAM

NO LSR; NO KO CURTAIN; NO HOOK

THIS RELATIVELY NEW BULLETIN HAS NEVER BEEN TESTED ON A LT EXAM, KNOW IT WELL

Multiple Dwelling Ch 4 10.1.4