LT PKG EXAM #3

Question 1

Question 1:
There are a number of decisions the nozzle firefighter is empowered to make while operating a hoseline. Which of the following is not one of those decisions?

A: Opening/Closing the nozzle

B: Emergency opening of the nozzle

C: Direction of the stream

D: Advancement rate

Answer 1

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) The decision to open or close the nozzle is made by the engine officer.
Acronym for Nozzle FF decisions: DECALS C
Direction of the stream.
Emergency opening of the nozzle.
Closing (partially) the nozzle to reduce nozzle reaction and regain control.
Advancement rate.
Line - calling for more.
Sweeping the floor with the stream.
Communicating the need to be relieved on the nozzle.
Eng Ch 6 2.7.1

Question 2

Question 2:
While conducting BISP, the members come across a building that requires a CIDS Card. The address of the building is 120-140 Avenue X. Which choice is CORRECT regarding completing this card?

A: A CIDS entry must be completed and submitted for each number in the range.

B: The combined number should be included under the address portion of the entry.

C: A CIDS entry must be completed for the first and last number in the range.

D: Once the entry is completed, the BISP Unit will determine if additional CIDS are required for other addresses.

Answer 2

Answer: C

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 4 – CIDS
C IS CORRECT – The officer must enter a CIDS message for the first and last posted address numbers of such range. 4.5.1#3
A – See Choice C
B – The combined number should be included in the transmitted data portion of the card. 4.5.1#3
D – The Unit Officer will determine if additional CIDS are required for other addresses. 4.5.1#3

Question 3

Question 3:
When operating at a Liquid Petroleum Gas (propane) emergency there are basic precautions to take such as standoff distances. The correct standoff distances to take when operating at a propane tanker truck incident can be found in which choice?

A: Keep everyone not actually engaged in operations at least 1,000 feet from the front and rear of the tank, and 500 feet from the sides

B: Keep everyone not actually engaged in operations at least 500 feet from the front and rear of the tank, and 1,000 feet from the sides

C: Keep everyone not actually engaged in operations at least 100 feet from the front and rear of the tank, and 50 feet from the sides

D: Keep everyone not actually engaged in operations at least 50 feet from the front and rear of the tank, and 100 feet from the sides

Answer 3

Answer: A

Explanation:
Haz-Mat ch 1 sec 1.2 and 1.3.3
Properties of Propane:
- Non-Toxic
- Non-Poisonous
- Slightly Anesthetic
- Odorless
- Flammable
- Heavier than air (1.5 to 2 times heavier)

Question 4

Question 4:
If a security decal on a fire apparatus becomes damaged, the apparatus shall remain in-service while awaiting a replacement. In this situation, who is the company officer responsible to notify by telephone to obtain a replacement decal?

A: Battalion

B: Division

C: Fire Marshals

D: Fleet Services

Answer 4

Answer: D

Explanation:
Variation of this question was on 2021 Captain Exam

Additional Points:

1. All remnants of damaged decals shall be recovered and preserved.
2. Notification and all pertinent information recorded in company journal.
3. A letterhead report documenting all information is forwarded through the chain of command to the Assistant Commissioner of Fleet Services/Technical Services.
4. A copy of the letterhead, as well as the remains of the decal, will be forwarded to BFI.

TB Apparatus C-2 Addendum 2 4.6

Question 5

Question 5:
While performing a secondary search at the scene of a large building collapse, you come across an area marked by a large “V” with a circle around it and a horizontal line through it. You would be most correct to determine this indicates?

A: A live victim is confirmed trapped and awaiting removal.

B: There may be a deceased victim in the area.

C: A victim is confirmed deceased.

D: There are no victims in the area.

Answer 5

Answer: C

Explanation:
A) A horizontal line through the middle indicates the victim is confirmed “deceased.”
B) The circle around the “V” is for when the location of a potential victim has been “confirmed.”
D) A large “V”, (for Victim) approximately 2’ in height is painted near the location of a “known” or “potential” victim.
Collapse Add 2 5.2-5.4

Question 6

Question 6:
From the choices listed below, which chemical agent has a distinct fruity odor?

A: Nerve Agent

B: Blister Agent

C: Blood Agent

D: Choking Agent

Answer 6

Answer: A

Explanation:
B- Blister: Garlic
C- Blood: Burnt Almonds
D- Choking: Musky Hay
ERP add 2 p-18

Question 7

Question 7:
A member of Ladder 100 is inspecting her PSS at the start of the tour. She notices signs of heat exposure on the bag of the PSS. She would be most correct to place which components of the system out of service?

A: The PSS bag only.

B: The PSS bag and rope only.

C: The PSS bag, rope and EXO only.

D: The PSS bag, rope, EXO, and personal harness.

Answer 7

Answer: D

Explanation:
If the bag (or any components of PSS) show signs of heat exposure (discoloration, degradation, melting, charring, etc.) the entire system (PSS bag, rope, EXO, and harness) should be placed out of service.

Variation of this question was asked on 2021 Captains Exam

TB Rope 4 5.3.3

Question 8

Question 8:
The members of Ladder 171 were completing BISP and putting together CIDS cards. The completed cards are as follows… Which one is CORRECT? (PLEASE DISREGARD HYPHENS AT THE END OF THE LINE)

A: MEGA–COMM–80 STY-200X200–CL1-FULLY SPKR 3 ELEV BANKS – LOW BANK FLRS 1-29, MID 29-59, HIGH 59-80 – ACCESS STAIRS FLRS 20-30 & 47-53 SPKR & STDP SIAM EXP 1-4 CORNER – MIN RESPONSE 32

B: MD 100x100 22 STY CL1- SPKR THRUOUT SCISSOR STAIRS-ELEV MACH ROOM ON ROOF APG (100 CARS) IN CELLAR AND SUB CELLAR PWR REM FOR APG IN B STAIR AT SUB CELLAR

C: MD MJALT 4 STY 60X80 CL3-INTERCONN 182, 186, & 190 WEBSTER AVENUE-MAIN ENT IN 186 WEBSTER-NO STAIRCASES IN 182 WEBSTER ACCESS TO ROOF VIA AERIAL/TOWER LADDER

D: FACTORY 6 STY 100X200 CL2 – MFG PLASTIC PRODUCTS-INTERCONN 173 JOHN STREET ON ALL FLRS-SPKR FDC IN REAR ON WHITE STREET RF ACCESS LMTD-HIGH PARAPET AROUND ROOF

Answer 8

Answer: D

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 4 – CIDS
D IS CORRECT
A – MINRESP 32 (One word, followed by a space & then a two digit number representing the number of engines and number of ladder placed last in the transmitted data) 4.5.3#5
B – Order is Incorrect – Height before dimensions – Designation, Occupancy, Height, Dimension, Class 4.5.3
C – Order is Incorrect – FD Designation is first (MJALT), Occupancy (MD), Height, dimensions, class 4.5.3B1

Question 9

Question 9:
Engine companies can use a standing body of water as a positive water source when there are no hydrants available, or in situations where more water is required than can be supplied by the hydrant system. When drafting water, units should abide by each of the following, except for which incorrect choice?

A: The apparatus should be operated in Volume Operation and the PPG should be switched to “Revolutions Per Minute (RPM) Mode”. Once switched to RPM Mode, the PPG throttle should be increased to 1,000 RPM.

B: The apparatus priming pump is used to remove air from the drafting hose, which creates a vacuum and pulls water into the system. The prime should last for at least 45 seconds.

C: A positive and steady Master Pressure Gauge reading will indicate a successful draft and a negative reading on the Master Inlet Pressure Gauge is normal. Once a successful draft is achieved, the PPG is returned to PSI Mode for pumping operations.

D: The connection is secured with a rope tied just below the strainer using a clove hitch and binder and lowered until the strainer is at least 22 feet under the water’s surface.

Answer 9

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) The connection is secured with a rope tied just ABOVE the strainer using a clove hitch and binder and lowered until the strainer is AT LEAST 2 feet under the water’s surface. A pumper can draft water a MAXIMUM distance of roughly 22 feet, though anything over 10 feet reduces the Gallons Per Minute (GPM) capability of the pumper.
B Note: To make this possible, all inlets and outlets not used must be capped and spanner tightened.
Eng Ch 5 3.8

Question 10

Question 10:
When arriving 2nd due in E-100 for a confirmed explosion with ladder companies already on scene, you are to report to what location at this incident?

A: Report to the Point of Impact (POI) to assist the 1st arriving engine with victim assessment and removal from the POI

B: Report to the Triage Transfer Point and remain there until relieved by a Battalion Chief

C: Report to the Patient Relay Point (PRP) and assist the 2nd arriving ladder company in victims to the Triage Transfer Point

D: Report to the Transportation Corridor and ensure the corridor is kept clear of traffic to maintain both access and egress

Answer 10

Answer: B

Explanation:
A- Report to the Point of Impact (POI) to assist the 1st arriving engine with victim assessment and removal from the POI if NO ladder companies are on scene
Know this addendum
ERP add 3 sec 5.3.2

Question 11

Question 11:
The natural gas detector is required to be carried at natural gas emergencies. Which feature of this tool described below is incorrect?

A: It detects natural gas at low levels.

B: It can be passed around a doorframe’s upper area in order to determine which apartment is involved in a hallway with multiple locked doors.

C: It is used to determine the amount of gas present in the area.

D: It is the superior tool for locating leaks in appliances, supply piping, and points of entry into the building.

Answer 11

Answer: C

Explanation:
C. It is used to determine THE LOCATION OF THE GAS LEAK.

The NATURAL GAS METER is used to determine the amount of gas present in the area.

Note “A”: Natural Gas Addendum 1 states the Sensit can detect gas as low as 20 PPM.

Natural Gas 6.4

Question 12

Question 12:
At a private dwelling cellar fire, the IC (Chief or Company Officer) may consider ordering an exterior hoseline operated into a cellar window to allow for a quick knockdown when there will be a delay in applying water from the interior, or whenever fire conditions dictate. Other parameters that must be met when considering this approach include each of the following except?

A: This should only be attempted when you know the location of members operating in the cellar. It must be carefully coordinated with and communicated to all units operating on scene.

B: The primary consideration for members operating on the first floor above a cellar fire is to close the interior cellar door at the top of the stairs.

C: Based on conditions encountered, for the safety of members remaining on the first floor, consider having them operate under the protection of a charged hoseline, secure an area of refuge (ensure a ready means of egress), or having them exit the building.

D: In an emergency such as members trapped by fire in the cellar or endangered by fire because a collapse has occurred, the IC should order the immediate operation of a hoseline into a cellar window.

Answer 12

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) This should only be attempted when NO members are operating in the cellar. It must be carefully coordinated with and communicated to all units operating on scene. (However, note the exception in Choice D, when you can do this in an “emergency”.)
Note: It is a good practice at PD fires, especially serious cellar fires, to have a precautionary charged hoseline in position near the front of the building for these contingencies.
PD Ch 3 2.6

Question 13

Question 13:
The Handie-Talkie relay in a subway consists of the ladder company FFs and the engine officer (Chauffeur, OV, Roof, Engine Officer/CORE). These members have per-determined positions according to our books. Which member is out of position?

A: Truck chauffeur is always at the token booth

B: OV FF is at the foot of the stairs leading to the platform if it is within 50 yards of the Truck Chauffeur

C: Roof FF is approximately 50 yards from the stairs on the platform

D: Engine Officer is approximately 100 yards (line of sight) from the Roof FF on the platform

Answer 13

Answer: A

Explanation:
Truck chauffeur is at the bottom of the subway entrance stairs. IF the token booth is within 50 yards of stairs to street, contact train dispatcher through the clerk. The chauffeur should relay the token booth phone number to the Truck Officer in case it is necessary to call the booth from a blue light telephone
AUC 207 sec 4.1

Question 14

Question 14:
Understanding fire dynamics includes knowledge of air flow patterns. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: Ventilation points (openings) that are lower in the building are more efficient in pulling air towards the fire. This is especially true when there are both a low opening (such as door or window) and a high opening (such as a skylight or bulkhead door).

B: The “temporary improvement period” that occurs during vertical ventilation conducted ahead of hoseline operation and without door control lasts for an unspecified amount of time; it can be seconds or several minutes before conditions deteriorate. There is no way to accurately determine how long this time will be.

C: Handline and exterior streams entrain the most air when they are whipped around in a circular motion. A short, acute angled fixed stream (not whipping) aimed at the ceiling just inside of a window, will entrain the least amount of air.

D: When the stream is short, the more air is entrained. The least amount of air entrainment occurs when utilizing the reach of the stream.

Answer 14

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) When the stream is LONGER (using the reach of the stream) the more air is entrained. The least amount of air entrainment occurs when the stream is SHORT and operated in a fixed position.
C Note: Operated correctly in this manner, the maximum amount of water will enter the room with the least amount of air and therefore without any pushing effect on the fire.
TB FD Add 1 3.2, 3.3, 3.6, Add 2 3.2-3.4

Question 15

Question 15:
After reviewing four recent “All Hands” fires, the Deputy Chief found one instance of improper aerial ladder positioning. Which choice shows the incorrect positioning?

A: At a Brownstone fire, the LCC placed the aerial ladder tip 3” from the objective, which was a cornice.

B: In order to rescue two children from a Rowframe fire, the LCC placed the aerial ladder 2” from the objective, which was a window the children were hanging out of.

C: Since she had to place the aerial ladder to the roof of a 7-story Old Law Tenement, which was at a very extreme angle, the LCC allowed the ladder to barely touch the building.

D: At a fire in a Class 2 building, the LCC placed the ladder tip 6” over the window sill.

Answer 15

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) When positioning a ladder at a window, the placement must allow for unimpeded access and egress at this window. Therefore, the ladder tip should be LESS THAN 6” over the window sill.
The recommended distance of the tip from the objective is 2” to 6”.
In case of rescue, use the 2” positioning so that the ladder will rest against the window sill after weight is put on it.
At a very extreme angle, e.g., placing the ladder to the roof of a seven story building, allow the ladder to barely touch the building.
Lad 2 3.1.5, 3.1.6

Question 16

Question 16:
Which of the following choices indicates the CORRECT occasion when units in the same quarters would make themselves AQ simultaneously via the PC/ATS?

A: When units responded to multiple boxes.

B: When units responded to different boxes.

C: One unit is a relocated unit.

D: Unit(s) did not go 10-8.

Answer 16

Answer: A

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS CHAPTER 2 – COMPUTER ASSISTED DISPATCH
A IS CORRECT 2.2.2B
B – 2.2.2 B
C – 2.2.2 B
D – 2.2.2 B

Question 17

Question 17:
When does salvage begin?

A: When the fire is “knocked down”.

B: With the initial attack.

C: When the fire is place “probably will hold”.

D: When the fire is placed “under control”.

Answer 17

Answer: B

Explanation:
It begins with the initial attack and continues throughout operations and overhaul.

Variation of this question was asked on last Lieutenants Exam

It Is found in the “introduction” of the salvage bulletin and many good students got it wrong.

DO NOT GLOSS OVER THE INTRODUCTION. ALWAYS SCAN IT FOR ANY TESTABLE INFO

Salvage 1.3

Question 18

Question 18:
The equipment that shall be assembled in readiness and placed on all company apparatus when a snow or ice emergency is imminent, or Phase A or Phase B is established can be correctly stated which choice?

A: At least 6 extra lengths of 1 3/4” hose, 2 shovels, containers of salt or sand, vehicle recovery strap with shackle, tire chains, special hydrant connection

B: At least 6 extra lengths of 2 1/2” hose, 2 shovels, containers of salt or sand, vehicle recovery strap with shackle, tire chains, special hydrant connection

C: At least 3 extra lengths of 1 3/4” hose, 2 shovels, containers of salt or sand, vehicle recovery strap with shackle, tire chains, special hydrant connection

D: At least 3 extra lengths of 2 1/2” hose, 2 shovels, containers of salt or sand, vehicle recovery strap with shackle, tire chains, special hydrant connection

Answer 18

Answer: B

Explanation:
AUC 200 sec 3.3.3

Question 19

Question 19:
The Nozzle position in an Engine Company is one of the most important positions at a fire. Which choice is incorrect?

A: This position is assigned by the officer at the start of each tour but can be flexible, allowing a less experienced firefighter to move up to the nozzle at a minor fire to gain valuable “on the job” experience.

B: When the engine officer calls for water the nozzle firefighter must prepare for a “long bleed” of the hose line. While waiting for the line to be charged, the nozzle can either be kept closed or cracked slightly open, allowing air to escape and then the nozzle is fully opened after water reaches nozzle, allowing water to flow.

C: The long bleed is especially important at standpipe operations, as it allows the control firefighter to accurately set the operating pressure at the standpipe outlet while water is flowing.

D: When bleeding the line it should be directed away the fire area, and into the hallway, using caution to prevent water from going into the elevator shaft.

Answer 19

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) When bleeding the line, it should be directed TOWARDS the fire area, if possible. In buildings with elevators, an attempt should be made to direct the bleed AWAY from elevator shafts to help keep elevators serviceable for firefighting operations.
Note: The nozzle firefighter should never enter the fire area without a charged hoseline.
The long bleed is also particularly important when a 2 ½” hoseline is stretched from the apparatus as the lower friction loss of the 2 ½” hose will require lower discharge pressures - the ECC will need to manually set the operating pressure at the discharge gate while water is flowing. Without a long bleed, the ECC may not have the opportunity to set the pressure properly.
Eng Ch 6 2.2, 2.6.3, 2.6.5

Question 20

Question 20:
When operating at the scene of ice/water/surf incidents, FDNY members must follow certain general safety precautions. Which one is incorrect?

A: Bunker gear shall never be worn when operating in the immediate vicinity of water/ice operations.

B: During night operations, members should not be allowed past the line of sight from the shore.

C: All members operating at or near a water emergency must wear a PFD.

D: Bunker gear does not float. Tests have shown that members wearing bunker gear with or without an SCBA will sink instantaneously.

Answer 20

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. Bunker gear shall ONLY BE WORN when operating in the immediate vicinity of water/ice operations WHEN ABSOLUTELY NECESSARY.

CROSS REF AUC 159 5.4.5: BUNKER GEAR SHOULD NOT BE WORN IN FLOODED AREAS

Water Rescue 1 2.2.4, 2.3, 2.4

Question 21

Question 21:
Which action is incorrect upon discovery of alcohol in the firehouse?

A: Prohibit on-duty members from leaving the firehouse. Off-duty members can leave the firehouse

B: Immediately relieve the on-duty member(s) from emergency response duty

C: Immediately have the affected unit placed OOS

D: Notify the administrative Battalion Chief

E: Notify BITS and take a mark in the company journal

Answer 21

Answer: A

Explanation:
Prohibit on and off-duty members present at the time of discovery from leaving premises without the permission of the investigating officer. If any member is permitted to leave premises during an investigation, the investigating officer shall document the reason for the release in a report to be sent to the Chief of Department via the chain of command
AUC 202 sec 5.5

Question 22

Question 22:
Roof operations at nonfireproof tenement fires can be hazardous. Of the following choices, which is not in accordance with Department policy and directives?

A: The fronts of buildings are aligned, building depths may vary, and opened end shafts are generally located directly in the middle of the building. Members operating on the roof should not step over a parapet or wall without first feeling the adjoining surface with a tool.

B: If possible, the member on the roof should move from one roof to another near the front wall, always checking his/her footing. In order to alert members to the presence of openings, roof level skylights and/or scuttle covers if removed, should be placed upside down on the roof.

C: Before walking or moving on a roof when visibility is poor, or a heavy smoke condition exists, firefighters should crouch to a kneeling position. Members should probe the roof surface by either swinging a tool or leg in the direction of movement.

D: When momentarily blinded by smoke or darkness, and there is no immediate danger to the firefighter, it may be best for the member to remain in place until visibility is restored.

Answer 22

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) The fronts of buildings are aligned, building depths may vary, and opened end shafts are generally located TOWARD THE REAR. Members operating on the roof should not step over a parapet or wall without first feeling the adjoining surface with a tool.
Lad 3 5.2

Question 23

Question 23:
Which CFR protocol outline below is incorrect?

A: The first due CFR unit, or second due if the first due is not available, will be assigned to every segment one call regardless of fallback status.

B: When an EMS unit is on-scene and a CFR unit arrives, the fire officer can immediately clear the scene and go 10-8.

C: Upon arrival of the company at a CFR call, the officer in charge will notify the fire dispatcher by going 10-84 via MDT. The company is not required to notify the fire dispatcher whether EMS is on the scene, since the EMS link will display that information electronically for the fire dispatcher.

D: Except for segment one calls, upon notification that EMS has arrived at a call location prior to the arrival of the assigned CFR unit, the responding company will automatically receive via MDT: “EMS on scene, enter 10-91, and go 10-8”.

Answer 23

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. When an EMS unit is on-scene and a CFR unit arrives, the fire officer WILL CONFER WITH THE EMS UNIT TO ENSURE BOTH UNITS HAVE RESPONDED TO THE SAME INCIDENT. THE CFR UNIT WILL REMAIN ON SCENE AND ASSIST UNTIL IT IS DETERMINED THAT THEIR ASSISTNACE IS NO LONGER NEEDED. AFTER CONFERING WITH THE EMS UNIT, THE FIRE OFFICER WILL DETERMINE WHAT SIGNAL TO TRANSMIT TO THE FIRE DISPATCHER.

BE AWARE THIS SECTION OF CFR CH 2 IS A BIT OUTDATED AS IT PERTAINS TO THE 10-91 SIGNAL AND THE 10-37-4 SIGNAL AS DESCRIBED IN COMM CH 8. READ THOSE TWO 10 CODES IN THE COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL IN CONJUNCTION WITH THIS SECTION OF CFR MANUAL AND BE AWARE OF THE CONFLICTS

CFR CH 2 3.2, 3.6, 3.8, 3.8.1

Question 24

Question 24:
At a fire in a high rise office building, your unit is tasked with operating the building fire pump. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: Follow signs or directions to the pump room which is normally located on the lowest floor (cellar or sub-cellar).

B: Locate the bypass valve on the inlet side of the fire pump, which can be readily identified by examining the gauges. The inlet gauge is calibrated for lower pressures than the discharge gauge.

C: The bypass valve should be in the closed position (stem in). If found to be open, it should be closed by turning in a clockwise direction.

D: Some systems are quite complex and it is permissible to start the pump, when ordered, without checking the bypass valve. However, expect a loss of 25% in an 8” riser and 45% in a 6” riser with the bypass open.

Answer 24

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) Locate the bypass valve on the DISCHARGE side of the fire pump. The discharge side can be readily identified by examining the gauges. The discharge gauge is calibrated for HIGHER pressures than the inlet gauge.
D note: Notify the engineer upon his/her arrival if starting the pump without checking the bypass valve, and any other actions taken.
HROB 4.1.2

Question 25

Question 25:
The covering officer in Ladder 177 is having a tough day on the department radio. Which is the only CORRECT signal transmitted by the officer during the tour?

A: The officer transmitted a 10-8 code 1 when returning to his response area from relocation.

B: The officer transmitted a 10-25 code 2 for smoke under pressure from a manhole.

C: The officer transmitted a 10-45 for a patient with 2nd degree burns from a hot water spill.

D: The officer transmitted a 10-76 for a major gas leak in a High-Rise office building.

Answer 25

Answer: B

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 8 – RADIO COMMUNICATIONS
B IS CORRECT – 10-25 Code 2 transmitted for fire has blown one or more manhole covers, or smoke is issuing from a manhole under pressure. pg 8-9
A – 10-8 code 1 is only used by chief officers.
C – 10-45 only transmitted for thermal burns at fire operations 8-14. 10-37 with appropriate sub code would be transmitted.
D – 10-75 is transmitted for a fire or emergency in the judgement of the incident commander. 1076 signal is only transmitted for FIRE in a High-Rise building. 8-20

Question 26

Question 26:
Company officers in quarters shall be responsible to ensure relief of members operating at fires or emergencies when its at or near the change of tours. Units within __________ mile of the location of operations shall proceed on foot, or utilize public transportation, if available, to relieve members.

A: 1/4

B: 1/3

C: 1/2

D: 1

Answer 26

Answer: B

Explanation:
Unless specifically ordered, no company shall remain in quarters later than 0930 or 1830 before proceeding to the location of operations
AUC 217 sec 2

Question 27

Question 27:
Smoke stratification and thermal interface can offer significant clues to the situationally aware firefighter. Which of the following choices contains correct information?

A: A high interface could indicate the fire is in early stages of development or that you are remote from the fire area.

B: Gradual rising of the interface often indicates a buildup of hot fire gases, a situation that could progress to rollover and flashover if left uncontrolled. A sudden rising of the interface could indicate a rapid intensification of the fire.

C: A sudden lowering of the interface could indicate that ventilation has occurred.

D: A neutral plane that is at or near floor level may indicate that the fire is on a floor above.

Answer 27

Answer: A

Explanation:
B) Gradual LOWERING of the interface often indicates a buildup of hot fire gases, a situation that could progress to rollover and flashover if left uncontrolled. A sudden LOWERING of the interface could indicate a rapid intensification of the fire.
C) A sudden RISE in the interface could indicate that ventilation has occurred.
D) A neutral plane that is at or near floor level may indicate that the fire is on a floor BELOW.
TB FD Ch 2 3.5.5

Question 28

Question 28:
The Tower Ladder is an extremely useful tool and versatile when utilized as a large caliber stream. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information?

A: Only the Incident Commander may order the use of large caliber streams; this may be the first arriving officer.

B: Generally, two supply sources at the base of the Tower Ladder should be used. A Satellite Water Unit is the best source of supply if available.

C: The largest diameter hose should be used to supply a Tower Ladder. 200 - 250 psi is the recommended pressure at the gated inlet for an effective operation.

D: The Tower Ladder may be supplied at either side of the apparatus. Water flow to the Tower Ladder should be controlled at the supply source and water should always be shut down at the supply pumper.

Answer 28

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) Generally ONLY ONE supply source at the base of the Tower Ladder should be used. A Satellite Water Unit is the best source of supply if available.
TL Ch 3 4, 4.1

Question 29

Question 29:
Some places of worship have a ventilation opening for the concealed attic space. Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning these attic vents?

A: This ventilation opening provides an excellent location for water application to extinguish fire in the concealed attic or cockloft.

B: This ventilation opening is typically located on the front or rear of the long side of a place of worship.

C: When located in the front, the attic vent will be a few feet above the Rose window.

D: When fire is located in the large open area the first priority is a tower ladder stream into the attic vent.

Answer 29

Answer: D

Explanation:
D. When fire is located in the large open area the first priority is a tower ladder stream into the ROSE WINDOW. HOWEVER, WHEN FIRE IS NOT VISIBLE WITHIN THE LARGE AREA BUT SUSPECTED TO BE WITHIN THE CONCEALED AREA OF THE ATTIC OR COCKLOFT, WATER APPLICATION INTO THE VENTILATION OPENING IS THE PRIORITY.

WATER APPLICATION INTO THE VENTILATION OPENING SHOULD ALSO BE THE PRIORITY FOLLOWING THE CONTROL OF A FIRE WITHIN THE LARGE OPEN SPACE USING THE ROSE WINDOW.

Places of Worship 3.2

Question 30

Question 30:
Which statement incorrectly describes the SCBA policy for a trapped member or civilian in a contaminated atmosphere?

A: Utilize the nearest available FAST Pak for trapped members

B: Utilize the nearest available FAST Pak for trapped civilians

C: Utilize a spare SCBA to for trapped members

D: Utilize a spare SCBA to for trapped civilians

Answer 30

Answer: B

Explanation:
For civilians, utilize a FAST Pak OTHER than the one assigned to the FAST Unit
AUC 220 sec 2.8

Question 31

Question 31:
Which choice would require a written notification to the Bureau of Investigation and Trails (BITS)?

A: Misuse or misappropriation of the Department’s time

B: Arrest of a member

C: Physical altercations among members/serious confrontations with civilians

D: Dangerous misuse of Department vehicles

Answer 31

Answer: A

Explanation:
Immediate notification to BITS
- Arrest of a member
- Physical altercations among members/serious confrontations with civilians, dangerous misuse of Department vehicles
- On-duty incidents involving possession or use of drugs or alcohol
- On-duty confrontations between members and members of NYPD, or other government agencies, which may lead to possible disciplinary action
Written Notification to BITS
- Misuse or misappropriation of the Department’s time
- Misconduct by a member not falling within the jurisdiction of the IG
- Follow up information regarding the arrest of a member
- Preference of charges against a member
AUC 268A sec 3 and 4

Question 32

Question 32:
The ability to properly use the MDT is an important responsibility for members, especially chauffeurs. Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the use of the keys?

A: To acknowledge an assignment to an incident, relocation, or returning from relocation, the 10-4 (Orange) button must be pressed followed by the send button.

B: To acknowledge an assignment to an incident, relocation, or returning from relocation as a 4-firefighter engine company, the 10-14 (Yellow) button must be pressed.

C: To go available on the air, the 10-8 (Yellow) button must be pressed.

D: To release everybody except for the one engine or ladder designated, the 10-19 (Yellow) button must be pressed followed by the send button.

Answer 32

Answer: D

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – COMPUTER ASSISTED DISPATCH
D IS CORRECT – 2.11.1 B & D – Double Action Key – The signal is not transmitted until the send key is depressed.
A – Single action key – not necessary to press send button. 2.11.1 A
B – Single Action Key – Not in use at this time (No 10-14 response designations) 2.11.1 A
C – 10-8 button is YELLOW – double action key – Operating units must hit 10-8 key and send when in service. 2.11.1A & D

Question 33

Question 33:
To ensure that foam concentrates are not mixed, containers are color-coded (banded) around the top. What color identifies AR-AFFF?

A: Green

B: Red

C: Yellow

D: Black

Answer 33

Answer: B

Explanation:
Green: No longer in bulletin
Yellow: Hi-Expansion
Back: AFFF

Colors are on almost every test, especially a Lieutenants Exam

TB Foam 4.1

Question 34

Question 34:
Telescoping ladders are extremely compact and versatile and may be particularly useful in many non-fire emergencies. Each of the choices below contain correct information regarding these ladders except?

A: They are easily carried by 1 member and can be transported through crowded, confined spaces.

B: When nested, the length is 32 inches. They can be extended incrementally up to just over 12 feet.

C: They are effective for quick deployment when laddering a fire building.

D: They shall not be used horizontally as a bridge or plank. They shall not be secured at the top and hung vertically (like a straight hook ladder).

Answer 34

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) They shall NOT be used for laddering a fire building due to lack of heat resistance.
Lad 1 8.5

Question 35

Question 35:
Members are at MUD drilling on firefighter removal and the topic of the “safety team” starts being discussed. The following points are mentioned. Which one is correct?

A: When only one engine and one ladder are on scene, the safety team is comprised of the control firefighter and the LCC when the ladder has 4 or 5 firefighters.

B: Once firefighters enter the IDLH, both members of the safety team must account for firefighters inside the IDLH without performing other duties.

C: When only one 4 firefighter engine is on-scene, the officer and one firefighter can enter the IDLH for line advancement while two firefighters compose the safety team.

D: When an “understaffed” engine or ladder company (unit staffed with less than 4 firefighters) is the only unit on the scene, the company shall take a defensive position and may not enter the IDLH under any circumstances.

Answer 35

Answer: A

Explanation:
B. Once firefighters enter the IDLH, ONE MEMBER of the safety team must account for firefighters inside the IDLH without performing other duties.

C. When only one 4 firefighter engine is on-scene, the officer and one firefighter can enter the IDLH for SEARCH WITHOUT LINE ADVANCEMENT while two firefighters compose the safety team.

D. When an “understaffed” engine or ladder company (unit staffed with less than 4 firefighters) is the only unit on the scene, the company shall take a defensive position. HOWEVER, IF A KNOW LIFE HAZARD IS DISCOVERED AND IMMEDIATE ACTION COULD PREVENT THE LOSS OF LIFE, APPROPRIATE ACTION (RESCUE ACTIVITY) MAY BE TAKEN BY AN INDIVIDUAL MEMBER.

MMID 2.1.1, 2.3

Question 36

Question 36:
What is the order of preference for access to the roof of a Brownstone at a structural fire?

A: Aerial Ladder, 2nd arriving Aerial Ladder, Adjoining Building

B: Aerial Ladder, Rear Fire Escape, Adjoining Building

C: Adjoining Building, Aerial Ladder, 2nd arriving Aerial Ladder

D: Adjoining Building, Rear Fire Escape, Aerial Ladder

Answer 36

Answer: A

Explanation:
Most brownstones do not have fire escapes.
BS/RF 2.2.7, 2.6 F

Question 37

Question 37:
Which choice correctly describes the blue light in a Subway?

A: Near every blue light there will is a power removal box, a telephone, and a dry chemical fire extinguisher

B: Near every blue light there will is a power removal box, a telephone, and a emergency evacuation device

C: Blue lights are found at approximately 200 feet intervals throughout the subway system

D: Near every blue light there will is a power removal box, a telephone, and a pressurized water fire extinguisher

Answer 37

Answer: A

Explanation:
B- Emergency Evacuation Devices (EED) are found at the 1st blue light south of the southbound platform (typically within 50 feet of the platform end). At elevated stations the EED is found near the full time token booth……EED can also be found at the base of emergency exits and at the ends of each river tunnel…AUC 207 add 11 sec 2
C- approximately 600 feet apart……section valves are every 200 feet apart
D- Dry Chemical Extinguisher
AUC 207 sec 8.1 and 8.5

Question 38

Question 38:
What is the most prevalent type of fire escape found on loft buildings?

A: Standard

B: Counter-balance stairs/ladders

C: Vertical

D: Party Wall balconies

Answer 38

Answer: A

Explanation:
A
They serve multiple residents/tenants on an individual floor of the building. They have a width of 3-4 feet and stairway angles of 45 degrees, 60 degrees, 75 degrees or steeper. Constructed of steel or wrought-iron and long exposed to the deteriorating effects of the weather, firefighters operating on these fire escapes should spread out and move with caution.
Lofts 5.1.11 A

Question 39

Question 39:
When investigating gas emergencies members must follow FDNY SOPs. Which one of the following guidelines is correct?

A: The first priority at natural gas emergencies is to locate and mitigate minor leaks.

B: When detector and meter readings were present at an inside call, it is acceptable to leave the scene of an “odor of gas” response after the odor has dissipated without mitigation or coordination with utility company representatives.

C: If the Engine arrives prior to the Ladder company for an inside call, the Engine officer should proceed to the reported location/caller noting odors, information gathered and detector/meter activity.

D: When the Ladder Company Inside Team arrives at the scene of an inside call for gas, if any natural gas levels are displayed on the natural gas detector upon entering the building, or while proceeding to the reported location within the building, they should proceed directly to the basement/cellar to evaluate conditions.

Answer 39

Answer: C

Explanation:
A. The first priority at natural gas emergencies is to ENSURE THERE IS NOT A MAJOR GAS EMERGENCY. THIS IS FOLLOWED BY locating and mitigating minor leaks.

B. When detector and meter readings were present at an inside call, it IS NOT ACCEPTABLE to leave the scene of an “odor of gas” response after the odor has dissipated without mitigation or coordination with utility company representatives.

D. When the Ladder Company Inside Team arrives at the scene of an inside call for gas, if any natural gas levels are displayed on the NATURAL GAS METER upon entering the building, or while proceeding to the reported location within the building, they should proceed directly to the basement/cellar to evaluate conditions.

“D” WAS A TIGHT CHOICE. PAY ATTENTION TO THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN THE METER AND THE DETECTOR.

Natural Gas 6.5

Question 40

Question 40:
All officers should be familiar with proper response and positioning of Engine apparatus. Which choice is not in accordance with Department policy?

A: The first due engine company should strive to enter the block ahead of the first ladder company and from the same direction.

B: Later arriving engine companies should ensure two ladder companies are on the block before entering narrow streets that could possibly leave ladder apparatus blocked out from the fire building.

C: Whenever in-line pumping is used, the ECC should be mindful of the possible need to augment their water supply. If intake pressure drops below 25 psi, the ECC must have their water supply augmented.

D: When receiving water via a relay, the supply pumper and operating pumper should both remain in the “Volume” position; however, for standpipe operations where head pressure needs to be overcome, the operating pumper switches to the “Pressure” position.

Answer 40

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Whenever in-line pumping is used, the ECC should be mindful of the possible need to augment their water supply. If intake pressure drops below 15 PSI, the ECC must have their water supply augmented.
B Note: Also, later arriving engine companies should attempt to position their apparatus so the backstep is facing the direction of the operation. (It may be necessary to back into the block to achieve this.) This positioning will allow these engine companies to quickly assist the first due engine in the event of a 10-70.
Eng Ch 5 2.5, 2.7.3, 2.8.2, 2.8.3, 3.7.2