LT PKG EXAM #19

Question 1

Question 1:
Which choice demonstrates the CORRECT use of the 1031 Code?

A: Companies respond on a box to evaluate the structural stability of a building under construction.

B: An Engine is assigned to assist EMS on a highway box by blocking traffic.

C: Companies are assigned to a box where they remove an uninjured worker from a stalled scaffold.

D: An Engine company gets flagged down on a verbal for several abandoned propane cylinders.

Answer 1

Answer: B

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 8 – RADIO COMMUNICATIONS
B IS CORRECT – All calls for assistance other than medical assignments, including a unit assigned to protect EMS by diverting or blocking traffic at a highway incident, good intention calls, calls handled by other agencies, any type of investigation, searches and complaints, and lock outs.
A, C, D – The 1031 signal shall not be utilized for any incident/emergency involving evaluation of structural stability, any operation involving a rescue or mitigation effort, or any type of hazardous condition.

Question 2

Question 2:
A newly appointed probationary firefighter was discussing high pressure pumping with the senior ECC of a Manhattan engine company. Which point made during the discussion was incorrect?

A: “High-Pressure Pumping” is defined as operating at discharge pressures over 250 psi; essentially when the fire floor is the 31st floor or above; or the fire floor elevation in feet is 375 feet or higher.

B: The IC shall be notified when High-Pressure pumping is necessary and ECCs intending to pump using High Pressure Pumping must notify and get approval from the IC.

C: Only an IC at the rank of Battalion Chief (including Acting Battalion Chiefs) or higher may order the use of the High-Pressure Pumping.

D: Whenever possible, an engine supplying High-Pressure should be positioned within 1 hose length of the Fire Department Connection (FDC) being supplied. No more than 2 connected lengths of High-Pressure supply hose should be stretched to the Fire Department Connection.

Answer 2

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) “High-Pressure Pumping” is defined as operating at discharge pressures OVER 300 PSI; essentially when the fire floor is the 41st FLOOR or above; or the fire floor elevation in feet is 475 FEET or higher.
A Note: All engine apparatus in the FDNY are capable of providing pressures over 300 psi. However, unless they are ordered to do so by the IC, conventional engines not equipped with high pressure equipment should not operate in pressures exceeding 300 psi.
Eng Ch 8 Add 1 1.4, 1.5, 2.1.2

Question 3

Question 3:
Members of the FDNY should have a basic knowledge of how to determine a fires point of origin. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A: Burning and charring along the lower length of a wall or under a door could mean an accelerant was used.

B: “V” pattern burns usually point away from the point of origin.

C: Absence of a “V” pattern could mean an accelerant was used.

D: Rapid intense heat from an accelerant may cause perpendicular burns on walls.

Answer 3

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. “V” pattern burns usually point TOWARDS the point of origin.

TB Arson: 6.5.2, 6.5.3

Question 4

Question 4:
While out picking up the meal, you and your firefighters discover a person acting suspicious near the George Washington bridge. You quickly take out the Suspicious Activity Reporting (SAR) form, which is found on all engines and ladders, and write down what you see. Upon returning to quarters your first course of action can be correctly found in which choice?

A: Enter the SARs information into DiamondPlate

B: Notify the administrative battalion

C: Notify FDOC

D: Notify BFI

Answer 4

Answer: A

Explanation:
Immediately upon return to quarters enter information into DiamondPlate
Then send original SARs through the bag to BFI, and call BFI
**Companies will not keep the original or copies of the SAR form at quarters
** Companies must make journal entries, but give no particulars in order to preserve the integrity of any subsequent investigation
AUC 363 p 5-6

Question 5

Question 5:
Engine 278 is on scene of an EMS run where the victim suffered severe burns from a steam leak. Which action taken by the officer at the conclusion of the response is CORRECT?

A: Unsure of which signal to transmit, the officer requested the Battalion to respond to the box location.

B: The officer transmitted a 1045 code 2 for life threatening burns and requested the Deputy to respond to the box location.

C: The officer transmitted a 1037 code 2 for life threatening burns and requested the Battalion to respond to the box location.

D: The Officer requested the Battalion and Deputy to respond prior to transmitting a 1037 code 2.

Answer 5

Answer: A

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 8 – RADIO SIGNALS
A IS CORRECT – 1037 SIGNAL – NOT – Where doubt exists as to which signal to transmit, a Battalion chief shall be requested to respond to the scene. pg 8-12
B – 1045 is transmitted for thermal burn injuries. The members were operating at burns from a steam leak.
C – Once a 37-2 is transmitted, it is not necessary to request a Battalion Chief. See Choice A.
D – The deputy is not requested to respond by the Company Officer and not for a 37 code.

Question 6

Question 6:
All members should maintain familiarity with under river rail emergency exits in their response area. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: “Standard exits” have doors flush with the sidewalk while “upright exits” have vertical doors in the side of a structure.

B: Both standard and upright exits are opened with a subway emergency tool, the “Triangle Key.”

C: A “Billy Bar” is a tool with two points that fit into holes in the ring around the emergency exit lock, allowing the locking device to be opened. Use of the Billy Bar is essential to opening these locks.

D: Stairways are constructed of either concrete or metal. The metal stairs are often steeper, with open treads.

Answer 6

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) A “Billy Bar” is a tool with two points that fit into holes in the ring around the emergency exit lock allowing the locking device to be opened. Although NOT ESSENTIAL, the Billy Bar AIDS in opening the doors more quickly and easily.
Note: The depth and pitch of stairways corresponds to the depths of the under river tubes, which range from 24 to 130 feet deep. Consult the Operational Guides for information about specific emergency exits.
URR 2.5.1, 2.5.2

Question 7

Question 7:
Which of the following pieces of equipment are allowed to be used inside the potential blast zone at a major gas emergency?
1) Handie-talkies
2) Thermal Imaging Camera
3) FDNY issued flashlights
4) Megaphones

A: 1, 2, 3

B: 1, 2

C: 1, 3

D: 1,2, 3, 4

Answer 7

Answer: C

Explanation:
*ONLY INTRISICALLY SAFE EQUIPMENT MAY BE USED IN THE POTENTIAL BLAST ZONE: HANDIE TALKIES, NATURAL GAS DETECTORS, NATURAL GAS METERS, FDNY ISSUED FLASHLIGHTS.

THERMAL IMAGING CAMERAS, VENTILATION FANS, CELL PHONES AND MEGAPHONES ARE NOT INTRINSICALLY SAFE

Natural Gas 9.1.2

Question 8

Question 8:
While conducting Building Inspection, you and your firefighters discover numerous violations warranting a Violation Order (VO) to be written. Several of the violations need to be corrected forthwith, and several violations can be corrected at a later date (compliance date). The most correct way to to issue the above violations can be found in which choice?

A: Forthwith orders and with one other compliance date may be written on the same VO

B: Under no circumstances will a forthwith order and an order with a compliance date be issued on the same VO

C: A separate VO shall always be issued for each violation found

D: In the case where multiple violations are found companies shall issue a FDNY summons instead of a VO

Answer 8

Answer: A

Explanation:
NON-REFERENCE
If the different compliance times are confusing to the person receiving the order, then the inspector should issue separate VO’s for each compliance date. The recommendation is to use separate orders. Write as many orders as required to enforce all of the items in violation
AUC 5 ch 3 add 2 sec 8

Question 9

Question 9:
The companies in Battalion 99 are operating at a fire in a chemical warehouse and additional companies are assigned as part of a Haz-Mat response. A roll call becomes necessary during the operation. Which of the following regarding the roll call of units is CORRECT?

A: The Haz-Mat tech engine answers the roll call according to the Haz Mat tech position designations.

B: The Squad company operating as a Squad answers the roll call according to their squad positions.

C: An engine company that started the tour with 5 firefighters, but only responded with four, must account for all 5 firefighters.

D: Rescue company firefighters will answer the roll call according to ladder company positions.

Answer 9

Answer: D

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 9 ADDENDUM 2 – ROLL CALL PROCEDURES
D IS CORRECT – 5.5
A – Haz-Mat tech engine personnel will answer a roll call according to engine position assignments. 5.8
B – Squad companies will answer a roll call as per engine company positions. 5.6
C – In the event a Ladder, Rescue, or Squad company has been reduced to four or less firefighters and an emergency roll call is being conducted, the officer will respond to the roll call stating the number of members the company responded with and the riding position that has been eliminated. 5.4 All company officers will state the number of firefighters riding on the apparatus responding to this incident and account only for members within sight or hearing without using the HT. 5.2 Just note that reduced Engine companies are not listed.

Question 10

Question 10:
Proper precautions must be taken when units engage in High Pressure Pumping operations. Which of the following choices contains information that contradicts Department policy?

A: Prior to initiating high-pressure pumping, a Safety Zone of at least 50 feet must be established on each side of the engine and the High-Pressure supply hose in all directions. Warning tape, rope, or other barriers can be used to designate this zone.

B: Supply lines should be connected to the designated High-Pressure outlets of an engine when operating in High-Pressure.

C: Supply lines must be secured using the tether strap which shall be secured to both the engine and the building FDC. When more than one length of hose is required, each length must be tethered and secured to each other by the tether gated hook.

D: When ordered to pump in High-Pressure, engines without tethering straps are prohibited from engaging in High-Pressure pumping operations and shall await the arrival of units that have the tethering straps.

Answer 10

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) When ordered to pump in High-Pressure, engines without tethering straps should secure the supply line to the building FDC and the apparatus using a UTILITY ROPE.
A Note: If two connected lengths of High-Pressure supply hose are in use, the Safety Zone may need to be expanded.
Eng Ch 8 Add 1 2.13-2.1.5

Question 11

Question 11:
When performing a dashboard displacement during a vehicle extrication, members shall make two cuts in the bottom portion of the A-post. How far above the first cut shall the second cut be made?

A: Approximately 2-4 inches

B: Approximately 4-6 inches

C: Approximately 6-8 inches

D: Approximately 8-10 inches

Answer 11

Answer: C

Explanation:
Disentanglement and Extrication 9.2.2

Question 12

Question 12:
It’s not often that FDNY company officers issue criminal court summonses to other city agencies. If necessary to do so, which choice below correctly states when FDNY officers can issue a summons?

A: To a teacher of a public school for a locked exit

B: To a custodian of a public school for a locked exit

C: To a security guard of a public school for a locked exit

D: Never issue a criminal court summons to a public school

Answer 12

Answer: B

Explanation:
NON-REFERENCE
A summons may only be issued against a City Agency in the following instances:
- To a custodian or principal of a public school for a locked exit
To a NYCHA manager or superintendent for a standpipe or sprinkler shut-down without prior FD notification
When directed by the Bureau of Fire Prevention
AUC 5 ch 3 add 3 sec 9.4.1

Question 13

Question 13:
According to the Bereavement Leave PA/ID, there are people who qualify and others who do not. Which Bereavement Leave choice is INCORRECT?

A: The Father of a member’s domestic partner.

B: The Brother of a member.

C: The Sister of a member’s spouse.

D: The Uncle of a member’s spouse who resides in their household.

Answer 13

Answer: C

Explanation:
BEREAVEMENT LEAVE – PA/ID 1 CHAPTER 3
C IS INCORRECT 1.1 – Immediate family of member: 1.1.1 A -Spouse. B- Natural, adoptive, foster, or step-parent, child, brother, or sister. C-Other relative residing in the household at time of death. 1.1.3 - Immediate family member of spouse or domestic partner: Spouse or domestic partner’s parent or child or other relative residing in the member’s household at the time of death. Brother and Sister of Spouse/Domestic Partner not listed!

Question 14

Question 14:
At a recent 10-76 in the borough of Brooklyn, all units operated correctly in High-Pressure Pumping operations with the exception of which choice?

A: All unused gates and outlets on apparatus engaged in High-Pressure Pumping remained closed with all caps secured tightly.

B: Each engine operating at High-Pressure was controlled by the ECC, assisted by an ECC from a non-pumping engine. One ECC operated the pump and the other ECC monitored radio communications.

C: Stairwells served by standpipes were not used as staging or rest areas during high pressure pumping operations and a minimum amount of operating personnel were present in these stairways.

D: Since only one building FDC was available, the second supply line was stretched to the FDC and both units operated at the same discharge pressure to avoid damaging the FDC.

Answer 14

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) When only one building FDC is available, stretch the second supply line to the 1ST FLOOR OUTLET. DO NOT connect two high-pressure supply lines to a single FDC.
B Note: Other ECCs of non-pumping engines shall assist in keeping persons out of the safety zone.
B Note: When more than one engine supplies the standpipe system, ECCs shall communicate and coordinate to ensure that they operate at the SAME discharge pressure.
Note: When other than first due to a fire in a high-rise building, Officers of High-Pressure Engines and 3rd Stage Engines shall direct their ECCs to position the apparatus at a hydrant in proximity to the standpipe Fire Department Connection. It is important for Officers and ECC’s of High-Pressure Engines and 3rd Stage Engines to communicate with on-scene units to coordinate proper positioning.
Eng Ch 8 Add 1 2.1.6, 2.1.7, 2.1.10, 2.1.11, 2.2, 2.3

Question 15

Question 15:
Upon discovery of a missing sign denoting speed humps on local roadways, company officers shall forward a report where?

A: Missing sign Unit

B: FDNY City Planning

C: Department of Buildings

D: Department of Transportation

Answer 15

Answer: B

Explanation:
When traveling over speed humps the advised speed will be 15 mph for a 4” reducer and 20 mph for a 3” reducer. Advisory speeds shall be adhered to at all times
AUC 8

Question 16

Question 16:
There are a number of procedures and restrictions associated with taking and paying back self-mutual tours. Which of the following choices is INCORRECT according to the policy?

A: Requests for a self-mutual off will only be permitted for tours when the applicant’s regularly assigned group is scheduled to work.

B: Firefighters may work a maximum of four self-mutual tours in any calendar year.

C: Firefighters may be permitted to accumulate a maximum of four self-mutual tours to be repaid to member at a later date.

D: Self-mutual off and self-mutual repayment must be like tours, e.g. 9x6 for 9x6 and 6x9 for 6x9. Similarly, self-mutuals granted for weekend tours must be repaid with weekend tours.

Answer 16

Answer: C

Explanation:
PA/ID 5 – CHAPTER 2 – MUTUAL EXCHANGE OF TOURS WITH SELF/FIREFIGHTERS
C IS INCORRECT – Firefighters may be permitted to accumulate a maximum of TWO self-mutual tours to be repaid to member at a later date 4.8
A – 4.7
B – 4.1
D – 2.2.2 & 2.3

Question 17

Question 17:
Firefighters in Ladder Company 599 are having a discussion at the change of tours about an elevator rescue via a top hatch removal from earlier in the day. They make the following points but were incorrect in which one?

A: When lowering a portable ladder to the elevator roof never use an extension ladder.

B: A maximum of two firefighters are to be permitted on the roof of the car at one time.

C: One member equipped with a handie-talkie enters the car, and the member in the car must determine the order of removal.

D: Members are to remain in physical contact with the trapped persons while they are being removed.

Answer 17

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. When lowering a portable ladder to the elevator roof USE A STRAIGHT LADDER IF POSSIBLE. IF AN EXTENSION LADDER IS USED TIE THE HALYARD AROUND THE RUNGS OF BOTH SECTIONS OF THE LADDER.

Additional Points:

All members working in the shaft are to be secured with a LSR
Secure each person with a LSR

TB Elevators 3.7.2 A

Question 18

Question 18:
During fire operations, a Safety Team must be available at all times. Which SOP described below is incorrect as it relates to the procedures and duties of the safety team?

A: The Incident Commander shall announce the FAST unit’s arrival over the handie-talkie at the scene.

B: On arrival, the FAST unit will serve as the Safety Team.

C: The arrival of the 2nd engine must be announced over the handie-talkie.

D: When only one 5 FF engine is on scene, the Safety Team is composed of the Backup and Door firefighters.

Answer 18

Answer: D

Explanation:
D. When only one 5 FF engine is on scene, the Safety Team is composed of the CONTROL and Door firefighters.

THE SAFETY TEAM IS NORMALLY MADE UP OF THE BACKUP AND CONTROL FIREFIGHTERS OF THE SECOND ARRIVING ENGINE

Managing Members in Distress Ch 1 2.1, 2.2, 3.2

Question 19

Question 19:
At a recent fire in a vacant rowframe, positioned in the middle of a row of occupied frames, two engine officers disputed their units’ line positioning. During the argument, which statement made was incorrect?

A: The first to arrive engine company should drop two hoselines: one hoseline to enter the fire building, and a hoseline to enter the most severe exposure.

B: The second hoseline, if not needed to back up the first hoseline, shall be stretched to the fire building or to the opposite exposure.

C: The third hoseline is stretched to the fire building or to the opposite exposure, depending on where the second hoseline was stretched.

D: The fourth hoseline is stretched as ordered by the Incident Commander.

Answer 19

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) The first to arrive engine company should drop two hoselines: one a 3 ½” LINE TO SUPPLY A TL, and a hoseline to enter the most severe exposure.
Note: Occupied exposures should be given the first consideration and all operations should be in that direction.
Note: A heavy fire requires the use of one or more tower ladders. Hoselines should be laid by engine companies with this in mind.
BS/RF 6.7 A

Question 20

Question 20:
Under the Abandoned Infant Protection Act, a person can deliver an infant, not abused, and not more than __________days old to a safe place such as a local firehouse.

A: 15

B: 30

C: 45

D: 60

Answer 20

Answer: B

Explanation:
Note: Members are not expected or required to determine if the infant is less than 30 days old or has been abused before assuming custody
AUC 7 sec 1.1.1 and 1.2.1

Question 21

Question 21:
You are the first arriving unit at a fire in a lab where it is confirmed that aluminum powder is on fire. Taking into account fire dynamics, you would be correct to assume the most suitable suppression for this kind of fire to be?

A: Dry chemical

B: Carbon dioxide

C: Class D Powder

D: Wet chemical

Answer 21

Answer: C

Explanation:
TB FD Ch 1 4

Question 22

Question 22:
To make correction on the PCR, members shall place a _____ line through the word(s) to be omitted or corrected and write the accurate information _____ the word(s) to be corrected.

A: single; below

B: single; above

C: double; below

D: double; above

Answer 22

Answer: B

Explanation:
Note: When correcting a darkened circle, place a single line through the error and fill in the correct section. The initials of the member making the correction shall be placed above the single line.

CFR Ch 5 3.4

Question 23

Question 23:
Each of the following is indicative of a Class “E” High Rise Building built before 1945 except which choice?

A: These buildings were “heavy-weight”, usually weighing about 20 to 23 pounds per cubic foot.

B: Structural steel components were encased in concrete with exterior walls of masonry construction substantially tied to all floors.

C: Plenum type ceilings are generally found in these buildings.

D: All buildings erected between 1938 and 1968 were required to have a fire tower. Some built prior to 1938 have fire towers.

Answer 23

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Plenum type ceilings are generally NOT found in these buildings.
Also:
Normally steam heated.
Usually not centrally air conditioned.
Exterior windows were openable.
Floors were constructed of reinforced concrete.
Core construction techniques were not used.
HROB 2.2

Question 24

Question 24:
Company officers should be well versed in the NYC Firecode and/or Building code, especially when it comes to a rooftop place of assembly or place of public gathering. When it comes to a rooftop place of assembly or place of public gathering, occupants present in any such place shall not exceed one person per how many square feet?

A: 10

B: 15

C: 20

D: 50

Answer 24

Answer: A

Explanation:
NON-REFERENCE
With respect to a rooftop place of assembly or place of public gathering, the number of occupants present in any such place exceeds one person per 10 sq ft of the rooftop area to be used for such purpose; or the commissioner determines that a threat exists to the safety of the occupants
AUC 5 ch 2 add 8 sec 1

Question 25

Question 25:
Portable ladders have many potential functions. Which function below is not correctly described?

A: To perform an emergency search, portable ladders may be used as a brace where there is partial collapse of a floor area. The ladders may be used singly or in groups depending upon the amount of stress to which the ladders will be subject.

B: Portable ladders may be used in an emergency to shore excavations, or reinforce weakened walls. The proper placement of ladders and planks can prevent refilling of areas that are being dug out.

C: During winter months, portable ladders may be used for the rescue of victims that have fallen through ice. Laid flat, the ladder distributes the weight of the rescuer and/or the victims over a larger area of ice, reducing the total weight concentrated at any one point. Members shall be secured with a utility rope as a safety precaution.

D: For elevator emergencies, the portable ladder may be used to remove occupants from a stalled elevator car stuck between the floors of a building by first relocating them to the roof of the car, and then to a landing or a breached wall. The 10’ Folding and 12’ Telescoping Ladders are particularly well suited for this application.

Answer 25

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Members shall be secured with a LIFE SAFETY ROPE as a safety precaution.
Note: Victims sometimes fall through a shaft opening and into an elevator pit or onto the top of an elevator car. Portable ladders may be required to gain access to such victims.
Lad 1 11

Question 26

Question 26:
Private dwelling cellar fires can pose many challenges to members of the Department. The quick application of water on the fire reduces the heat and smoke conditions throughout the building and provides the greatest protection for civilians and members. In some situations, however, various factors would preclude the descent of the first hoseline down the interior cellar stairs. Which of these factors is incorrectly described?

A: High heat conditions at the bottom of the stairs.

B: Initial size-up indicating a serious fire condition.

C: Questionable stability of the stairway.

D: The safety of members is the paramount concern in making the decision to advance down the interior cellar stairs.

Answer 26

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) High heat conditions at the TOP of the stairs.
Acronym: HISS
High heat top of stairs
Initial size up serious fire
Stability of stairs questionable
Safety of members is paramount
Note: Hoseline advancement via a secondary entrance or water applied through a cellar window will be available options in these cases.
PD Ch 3 2.7.2

Question 27

Question 27:
At incidents on express highways/parkways, operating across a center divider shall be avoided. If absolutely necessary to do so, certain safety precautions must be adhered to. Which one listed is incorrect?

A: Traffic shall be stopped in both directions and safety warning devices set up.

B: The identified safe crossing corridor shall be the only means of access and egress utilized at the incident unless otherwise directed by the IC.

C: Whenever a safe crossing corridor is established, it shall be clearly marked (cones/barrier tape) to identify the designated area.

D: Members must use all available means to illuminate the area at all times.

Answer 27

Answer: D

Explanation:
D. AT NIGHT OR WHENEVER VISIBILTY IS REDUCED, members must use all available means to illuminate the area.

TB Fires 8 9.1

Question 28

Question 28:
When opening a Buckeye pipeline valve box cover you will find a set of rubber covers(2), which are color coded for easy identification. The colors of these covers can be correctly found in which choice?

A: Yellow and Red

B: Yellow and Orange

C: Red and Green

D: Red and White

Answer 28

Answer: A

Explanation:
Under the yellow cover there is low voltage wiring
Under the red cover is the square male stem for the manual valve
THIS IS UPDATED INFO as of 4/2022
*** To shut valve turn it approximately 42 full turns clockwise…..be careful if exam asks for half turns, then it would be 84
LIC terminal 24 full turns clockwise and 48 half turns
Valve 62QL is 12 full turns clockwise and 24 half turns
JFK “Head of Bay” requires over 100 full turns clockwise. Over 200 half turns
AUC 149 sec 2.1.6

Question 29

Question 29:
During the course of their duties, members may encounter a Con Edison Vacuum Truck at the scene of a collapse. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: It is primarily designed for the pickup and removal of liquid and sludge but has been successfully used to remove dirt, sand, grain, store stock, cans, bottles and building debris that may be trapping firefighters or civilians.

B: It has the ability to remove large amounts of material in a short time but has limitations as to the size of the material it can remove, primarily due to the size of the hose used.

C: Con Edison employees shall operate the vacuum truck if the work area is safe, with an FDNY HT equipped member positioned with the Con Edison employee at all times.

D: Only Con Edison employees are permitted to operate the suction hose at the extrication site.

Answer 29

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) FDNY MEMBERS will operate the suction hose at the extrication site.
A Note: Access lanes must be established at the incident to facilitate easy response and positioning of the vacuum tuck.
B Note: Material that does clog the hose can be easily removed and operations can be resumed.
C Note: This will facilitate communication between the truck operator and members working at the extrication site. SOC members have also been trained to operate this equipment if the work area is determined to be hazardous for Con Edison Employees.
Collapse Add 4 2

Question 30

Question 30:
During study group four statements were made referencing Lithium Ion Energy Storage Systems (ESS). The correct statement can be found in which choice?

A: The Thermal Imaging Camera is an excellent tool in determining if the fire is deep seated in an ESS

B: The initial danger zone shall be a 50’ radius from ESS containers and cabinets, and 100’ from the container/cabinet exhaust fan opening

C: If rising temperature is detected in an ESS, wait for Con-Ed white hat before stretching and charging a supply line to the Fire Department Connection (siamese)

D: Entering an ESS to overhaul shall only be authorized by the IC in consultation with the Con-Ed white hat

Answer 30

Answer: B

Explanation:
A- Deep Seated Fire- Fire in these systems may be deep seated within the system. This heat signature may result in it not being picked up by a Thermal Imaging Camera………Sec 4
B- Sec 5
C- Nevers mentions about waiting….p-5
D- FDNY personnel shall not enter any container
No overhauling shall be performed on any ESS…Sec 6
Haz-Mat 19….11/2018

Question 31

Question 31:
Class 2 Fire Resistive high rise multiple dwellings present many challenges to operating members of Ladder Companies. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: Some of these buildings contain elevators without fire service. In these instances, unused elevators should be left in service for occupant evacuation.

B: Some elevators open directly into apartments or serve isolated vestibules with no access to stairways. These elevators should be avoided if possible.

C: Be aware that stairs may not be located in the lobby (some stairs by-pass the lobby and terminate in the cellar).

D: Stairs and/or standpipes may not be accessible from the elevator. Members may need to go through an apartment to access the stairs and/or standpipe.

Answer 31

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) Some of these buildings contain elevators without fire service. In these instances, unused elevators should be CALLED TO THE LOBBY and CHOCKED OPEN.
MD Ch 4 9.5, 9.6, 9.7

Question 32

Question 32:
Which style place of worship is susceptible to early collapse?

A: Older architecture only

B: Newer architecture only

C: Both older and newer architecture

D: Neither older nor newer architecture

Answer 32

Answer: C

Explanation:
The OLDER STYLE is susceptible to early collapse due to large high timber truss roof. Along with the roof, the bell tower, steeple and walls are also prone to collapse.

The NEWER STYLE is susceptible to early collapse due to lightweight truss construction and may also have a bell tower, steeple or other features described within the bulletin.

Places of Worship 1.3.8

Question 33

Question 33:
Ladder 100 received a brand new tiller apparatus in 2022 and senior LCC Smith was instructing the probationary firefighter on aerial ladder operations during company drill. In which choice below did this member make an incorrect statement?

A: Place the inboard side of the apparatus not more than 25’ from the building line during operations.

B: The Aerial Enable Foot Switch must be depressed and held before operation of the aerial ladder controls.

C: The Starter Enable Switch must be depressed by the tiller position while the chauffeur starts the engine; after started, the foot pedal is released. The steering wheel horn can be used as the starter enable switch and buzzer.

D: Operate ladder controls with deliberate motions and smooth application of power. Perform one function at a time and in the proper operating sequence; don’t try to raise, rotate, and extend the ladder simultaneously.

Answer 33

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) Place the inboard side of the apparatus not more than 35’ from the building line during operations.
Lad 2 8.6-8.8

Question 34

Question 34:
Generally there are four procedures to identify a hazardous material using the orange Emergency response Guidebook. Choose the incorrect procedure.

A: By the black 5-digit identification (ID) number on placard or red panel

B: By the 4-digit number (preceded by UN or MA) on shipping papers or packages

C: By the name of the material found on shipping papers or packages

D: If no ID number or shipping name can be found, then as a last resort match the diamond shaped placard on tank, vehicle, or railroad car with a placard in the back of the Guidebook, and then turn to the guide number given

Answer 34

Answer: A

Explanation:
By the black 4-digit identification (ID) number on placard or orange panel
Haz-Mat 2 sec 5.2

Question 35

Question 35:
At some fires in nonfireproof tenements, members of the 1st Ladder may face unique challenges. One situation that may arise is the obvious need to use the aerial for the roof firefighter but at the same time there is an apparent need to remove an occupant. Of the following factors to be considered in reaching this decision, which is incorrectly described?

A: Emotional state of the occupant - An agitated, frightened occupant or one threatening to jump should be removed first.

B: Fire/Smoke in the immediate vicinity of the occupant - The occupant must receive instant attention if he/she would be endangered or seriously disturbed by any delay in his/her removal.

C: Location and severity of the fire - A rear first floor fire will not normally require immediate removal of occupants from the 3rd, 4th, or higher floors in the front of the building. Conversely, a fire on the upper floors rarely requires removal operations on lower floors.

D: Time Element - When the aerial ladder is needed both for removal and roof access, roof access can be given priority if the person to be removed is in no immediate danger or if there is doubt as to whether or not the person would be in danger.

Answer 35

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) Time Element - When the aerial ladder is needed both for removal and roof access, roof access can be given priority if the person to be removed is in no immediate danger. If ANY DOUBT exists REMOVE THE OCCUPANT FIRST.
Note: After roof access has been attained, the aerial ladder may be used for the removal, keeping in mind that the ladder must be repositioned as quickly as possible to avoid endangering the roof firefighter should the roof position become untenable.
Lad 3 3.2.4

Question 36

Question 36:
You arrive 1st due to a confirmed Buckeye pipeline leak. You transmit the 2nd alarm on arrival, the 10-86, and give 4 pieces of critical information to the dispatch, which include; Location of leak, amount of product, topography, and the exposures. In addition to following these important steps, you ensured the apparatus was not brought closer than ________ feet to the leak?

A: 200

B: 300

C: 400

D: 500

Answer 36

Answer: D

Explanation:
THIS IS AN UDATED Bulletin 4/2022
AUC 149 sec 8.8 and 8.15

Question 37

Question 37:
Many members may find 3rd Stage Pumping Operations complicated. An experienced and knowledgeable ECC would know which statement below to be incorrect?

A: Pressures exceeding 700 psi will require a 3rd Stage Engine. The recommended discharge pressure for standpipe operations exceeds 700 psi when the fire floor is the 101st floor or above, or the fire floor elevation in feet is 1175 feet or higher.

B: ECCs intending to pump using the 3rd stage must notify and get approval from the IC. Only an IC at the rank of Battalion Chief (including Acting Battalion Chiefs) or higher may order the use of the 3rd stage.

C: As compared to two-stage engines, three-stage engines (with the third stage engaged) can pump higher volumes at pressures over 500 psi and will do so at lower pump RPM’s.

D: 3rd Stage Engines are the preferred choice for pumping operations requiring discharge pressures over 500 psi; essentially, when the fire floor is the 81st floor or above; or the fire floor elevation in feet is 925 feet or higher.

Answer 37

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) Pressures exceeding 600 PSI will require a 3rd Stage Engine. The recommended discharge pressure for standpipe operations exceeds 600 PSI when the fire floor is the 101st floor or above, or the fire floor elevation in feet is 1175 feet or higher.
A Note: When 3rd Stage Pumping is implemented, the IC shall ensure an additional 3rd Stage Engine is assigned to the incident.
Eng Ch 8 Add 1 3.1-3.2

Question 38

Question 38:
When using the MET-L-X or LITH-X extinguisher once control of the fire is established, the metal can be covered completely and safely from close range applying a heavy layer usually at least _____ thick. It is important that overhaul of the hazard is delayed until the fuel has cooled; this may take up to _____ minutes.

A: 1 inch; 15

B: 1 inch; 30

C: 2 inches; 15

D: 2 inches; 30

Answer 38

Answer: B

Explanation:
TB Tools 34 5.0 G & H

Question 39

Question 39:
Members are discussing tactics at gas emergencies. The senior man quizzes the proby on her ability to identify the difference between a curb valve and a main valve. He asks what it means if you remove a valve cover and see an I.D. number stamped on the north side of the collar underneath the cover. The proby would be correct to say this indicates what?

A: A Con Ed curb valve

B: A Con Ed main valve

C: A National Grid curb valve

D: A National Grid main valve

Answer 39

Answer: D

Explanation:
Con Ed main valves should have a tag inside of the valve housing with an I.D. number, INDICATING THESE ARE NOT CURB/SERVICE VALVES.

National Grid main valves can be identified by an I.D. number stamped on the north side of the collar underneath the cover, INDICATING THAT THESE ARE NOT CURB/SERVICE VALVES.

THE FDNY IS NOT PERMITTED TO SHUT A MAIN VALVE

Natural Gas Pg 25

Question 40

Question 40:
The use of the Tower Ladder large caliber stream (LCS) varies with the type of building and/or occupancy. Of the following choices, which is not in accordance with Department policy?

A: When the fire building is heavily involved or there are multiple floors of fire, LCS delivery should generally start at the highest level and work downward.

B: For an advanced fire in a Row Frame, begin stream application at the top floor and into the cockloft.

C: For common cockloft exposure protection, commence LCS attack at the leading edge of the structure and traverse towards the middle to facilitate extinguishment.

D: At H-Types with fire showing out windows in the front, courtyard and throat, the Tower Ladder stream should be directed at the windows in the throat first, then advanced toward the front of the building, and finally operated into the front windows.

Answer 40

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) When the fire building is heavily involved or there are multiple floors of fire, LCS delivery should generally START at the LOWEST level and WORK UPWARD.
B Note: This will allow water to cascade down (similar to a sprinkler head) which will halt, minimize and extinguish fire in the cockloft as water cascades down.
TL Ch 4 4.2