LT PKG EXAM #7

Question 1

Question 1:
When arriving to a fire in a Con-Ed electric substation, which tactic/procedure is incorrect?

A: Units shall report to the designated muster site

B: Have a member retrieve information about the substation from the Lockbox located just outside the substation

C: If a Con-Ed representative (White hat) is not on scene then call the posted number and request one to respond

D: If a sprinkler siamese is present, stretch a 3 1/2” supply line to the siamese. Only charge the supply line if requested by Con-Ed white hat

Answer 1

Answer: B

Explanation:
Have a Con-Ed white hat retrieve information from the Lockbox located INSIDE the substation. The Lockbox contains info that can be useful to the IC including PCB info, overhead photo, a site diagram and list of the hazards present at the substation
AUC 338 add 2 sec 4 and 5

Question 2

Question 2:
When both the engine and ladder companies arrive together at a high rise fireproof multiple dwelling where no outside operations are indicated, and only one Fire Service-equipped elevator is available, which choice below most correctly reflects who should go up in the elevator first?

A: The ladder officer with the forcible entry team, OV and the engine officer with the control FF, with all rolled up lengths and standpipe kit.

B: The ladder officer with the forcible entry team and the engine officer with two firefighters (nozzle & control) with all rolled up lengths and standpipe kit.

C: The ladder officer with the forcible entry team, OV and the engine officer with the backup FF, with all rolled up lengths and standpipe kit.

D: The ladder officer with the forcible entry team, OV and the engine officer with all rolled up lengths and standpipe kit.

Answer 2

Answer: A

Explanation:
A
Note: The Engine Officer may also choose to leave out the Control FF and take the Nozzle FF instead.
The ladder officer with the forcible entry team and the engine officer with two firefighters (nozzle & control) with all rolled up lengths and standpipe kit shall go up first in a non Fire Service-equipped elevator. If the elevator has Fire Service, and no outside operations are indicated, the OV will be operating the elevator. This will necessitate reducing the elevator load by one of the engine firefighters.
MD Ch 2 5.6

Question 3

Question 3:
Units are just taking up from a box where they encountered elevators in Sabbath mode. The Lieutenant gathers the members to discuss some of the features of these elevators, but he was incorrect in which point mentioned below?

A: Sabbath elevators are designed for religious services and operate automatically without the need to push any buttons.

B: Sabbath elevators shall not be used by firefighters.

C: When in Sabbath mode, these elevators typically stop at every floor or every other floor automatically.

D: Most often a sign will be present indicating this type of elevator.

Answer 3

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. Sabbath elevators shall not be used by firefighters IF THE FIREFIGHTER SERVICE FEATURE IS MISSING OR NOT OPERATIONAL.

NOTE: These elevators are required to be operable in fire service mode in accordance with building and fire code requirements.

Units shall verify the firefighter service feature is operational before electing to utilize any Sabbath elevator.

UPDATED JULY 2021

TB Emergencies 1 6.4.7

Question 4

Question 4:
You are a new Lt. working your first day tour in Engine 327 and you are having difficulty with the apparatus mobile radio handset. Which of the following choices regarding problems with the handset is CORRECT?

A: In the event the first call is not acknowledged within 20 seconds, press the handset button and repeat the call. Do not make more than three attempts to contact the dispatcher.

B: If the third call is not acknowledged, assume the radio is inoperative and attempt to contact the citywide dispatcher via another mobile unit.

C: If no radio response is received after three attempts, switch to another frequency and advise the dispatcher of the difficulty being encountered on that frequency.

D: If the member is unable to communicate with the citywide dispatcher by radio, contact the borough or citywide dispatcher via telephone.

Answer 4

Answer: D

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 8 – RADIO COMMUNICATIONS
D IS CORRECT – 8.4.3
A – In the event the first call is not acknowledged within 30 SECONDS, press the handset and repeat the call. 8.4.3
B – If the 3rd call is not acknowledged, assume the radio is inoperative and attempt to transmit your message from another mobile unit. 8.4.3
C – If no radio response is received after three attempts from another mobile unit, the member operating the radio shall switch to the citywide frequency and advise the citywide dispatcher of the difficulty being encountered on that borough frequency. 8.4.3

Question 5

Question 5:
When accessing the Language Interpretive Services via phone, you must provide the Language Line representative with the personal code of the unit you are working in. The personal code for E-231 can be found in which choice?

A: FDNY units all have the same personal code…..9999

B: 9231

C: 7231

D: 5231

Answer 5

Answer: D

Explanation:
5 are for Engines...Ex 5231, 5001, 5063
7 are for Ladders....Ex 7120, 7136, 7024
Also, the FDNY Operations Client ID# is 502991
AUC 343 sec 4.2

Question 6

Question 6:
Specific factors require the stretching and operation of certain size hoselines at fire operations. Each of the units listed below made a decision compatible with Fire Department standard operating procedures except in which incorrect choice?

A: Engine 1 is assuming a purely defensive position at a tenement fire so they stretched a 2 1/2” hoseline.

B: Engine 2 is advancing into a commercial building that has a large, uncompartmented fire area, so they stretched a 2 1/2” hoseline.

C: Engine 3 stretched a second line into a PD. The Officer ordered this line to be 1 3/4” even though the 1st line was a 2 1/2”.

D: Engine 4 is operating off of a standpipe at a small fire in a subway and stretched a 1 3/4” hose line.

Answer 6

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) Engine 4 is operating off of a standpipe at a small fire in a subway and stretched a 2 1/2” hose line.
There are five situations in which the use of the 1 ¾” hoseline would not be appropriate and a larger hoseline should be used:
Acronym: DALAS
Defensive (purely) position
Area of fire size/extent unknown
Large, uncompartmented fire area
Advanced fire conditions
Standpipe operations
*be advised that “Large volume of water required to cool a superheated fire area” was removed as a factor requiring a 2 1/2” hose line in this latest update.
According to Eng Ops Ch 4, All hoselines stretched at an operation do NOT need to be the same size; if the initial hoseline stretched is a 2 ½” line, subsequent hoselines are NOT required to also be 2 ½” hose. If the engine officer determines the use of a smaller hoseline would be appropriate, subsequent hoselines may be 1 ¾” hose.
Eng Ch 4 4.2.1, 4.7

Question 7

Question 7:
If a gas leak is serious enough to consider shutting down the following valves, consider treating the incident as a major gas emergency. Which one is incorrect?

A: Master meter valve

B: Interior gas riser valve

C: Head of service valve

D: Service valve

Answer 7

Answer: B

Explanation:
Just be aware the “service valve” is AKA the “curb valve”

Natural Gas 6.0 (Last Bullet Pg 25)

Question 8

Question 8:
Pressing the EAB on either the HT base or the remote mic causes all of the following to occur. Which choice is INCORRECT?

A: A “Beacon Tone” is sounded on the HT with the EAB activation.

B: Within range, the company, position, and name of the member who pressed the EAB displays in the EFAS.

C: HT transmission power on the tactical channel is increased from 2 to 5 watts, providing more power for the message to get through.

D: An “Emergency Alert Tone” is sounded on all HT’s within range (other than the HT with EAB activation) on all frequencies.

Answer 8

Answer: D

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 9 ADDENDUM 3 – EFAS
D IS INCORRECT – On the same frequency. 2.2
A – 2.2
B – 2.2
C – 2.2

Question 9

Question 9:
What color is the Bridge/Tunnel field guide, which is found on all Engines and Ladders to perform initial damage assessment at the scene of an incident involving a bridge or tunnel?

A: Green

B: Red

C: Orange

D: Yellow

Answer 9

Answer: A

Explanation:
A- Green- Field Guide
B- Red- Command Chiefs Guide
C- Emergency Response Guide (on all engines and ladders) for Haz-Mat incidents
AUC 344

Question 10

Question 10:
Lt Powers and Lt Lynam were discussing various conditions that may be encountered at a fire scene and had to correct which incorrect comment made by a third member?

A: A smoke explosion can occur without warning but will only occur when there is a sudden change in ventilation.

B: A smoke explosion occurs when a smoke-air mixture falls within its flammable range, either internal or external to the fire compartment, and is ignited in a manner resulting in a significant pressure front.

C: Backdrafts are caused when there is an introduction of oxygen to a compartment that has been pressurized by the smoke and fire gases of an oxygen-deficient fire in the Decay Stage.

D: Flash fires involve a flame moving though a flammable mixture with considerable speed, without developing a significant over-pressure. Flash fires usually self-extinguish, although sometimes may ignite secondary fires.

Answer 10

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) A smoke explosion can occur without warning and occurs WITHOUT a sudden change in ventilation.
C Note: Similar to smoke explosions, backdrafts are accompanied by a significant overpressure.
TB FD Ch 3 6.1, 6.2, 7.1, 8.1, 8.3

Question 11

Question 11:
When rescuing victims attempt to remove the victim via the safest available route. Which is the correct preferential order of removal?

A: Interior stairs, fire escape, horizontal exits, ladders, life-saving rope.

B: Interior stairs, ladders, horizontal exits, fire escape, life-saving rope.

C: Interior stairs, horizontal exits, ladders, fire escape, life-saving rope.

D: Interior stairs, horizontal exits, fire escape, ladders, life-saving rope.

Answer 11

Answer: D

Explanation:
CODE: “I HAVE FIVE LITTLE RATS”

THIS WAS ASKED ON 2021 CAPTAIN EXAM
TB Search: 13.2

Question 12

Question 12:
Which of the following situations does NOT require an emergency roll call?

A: An Urgent Message from the 1st Due Engine Chauffeur following the Loss of Water supplying the 1st & 2nd lines at an MD fire.

B: An Urgent Message from the Roof Firefighter indicating a Danger of Collapse in the rear of a taxpayer.

C: An Urgent Message from the IC to units to discontinue an interior attack and institute an exterior attack at heavy fire in a row of frames.

D: A Mayday Message from the Ladder Company Officer indicating a partial collapse of the floor in a 2-sty commercial.

Answer 12

Answer: B

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 9 & 9 – ADDENDUM 2 – EMERGENCY ROLL CALL PROCEDURES
B IS INCORRECT – An Urgent message for Collapse Feared does not require a roll call to follow. Danger of Collapse is the terminology used under the description
A, C, D – Ch 9 Add 2- 2.1 1st Bullet – Roll Call is necessary when – Mayday transmission for Collapse Imminent/Collapse Occurred, Urgent transmission for Interior attack discontinued and exterior attack instituted, or Loss of Water endangering members.

Question 13

Question 13:
The incorrect procedure regarding the EBF-4 can be found in which choice?

A: Unlike the Intranet EBF-4, the In-Rig EBF-4 can only be filled out for the current tour

B: The EBF-4 must be completed immediately AFTER the start of the tour

C: The riding list should be updated throughout the tour as needed

D: The In-Rig EBF-4 must be used every Saturday on the 9x6 tour to submit the riding list instead of the EBF-4 application on the Intranet

Answer 13

Answer: D

Explanation:
The In-Rig EBF-4 must be used every SUNDAY on the 9x6 tour to submit the riding list instead of the EBF-4 application on the Intranet
AUC 246 sec 6

Question 14

Question 14:
Newly promoted Lieutenant Green had to call his friend, Captain Red, for advice on what actions to take since a specific portable ladder could not be held securely on his unit’s spare apparatus. The advice offered was correct except in which one choice?

A: The Fire Tools and Equipment Unit shall immediately be notified by telephone. A requisition shall be forwarded and an entry made in the company journal.

B: Provision shall be made to secure the ladder as safely as possible pending repair or relocation of ladder holding devices by the Fire Tools and Equipment Unit.

C: Any temporary fastenings made shall be checked after each response.

D: If the officer on duty feels that the ladder cannot be temporarily secured to the spare apparatus in a safe manner, and there is a danger of loss of the ladder during response, the unit shall be placed out of service.

Answer 14

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) If the officer on duty feels that the ladder cannot be temporarily secured to the spare apparatus in a safe manner, and there is a danger of loss of the ladder during response, the LADDER SHALL BE LEFT OFF THE APPARATUS. An entry of this action shall be made in the company journal.
Lad 1 5

Question 15

Question 15:
During operations at the scene of an MVA with a victim pinned, which tactic described below is correct?

A: The engine officer should divide the company into two teams. The officer and two CFR FF (equipped with trauma bag and cervical collars) proceed to the scene of the accident.

B: When a fire or hazardous condition exists a foam handline must be stretched.

C: The ladder company chauffeur must bring the Hurst tool equipment to the scene of the accident and initiate the operation.

D: The ladder company officer should ensure the disconnection of the battery. When disconnecting the battery, remove the positive terminal first.

Answer 15

Answer: A

Explanation:
B. When a fire or hazardous condition exists, STRETCHING AND CHARGING A HOSELINE IS PARAMOUNT. CONSIDER A FOAM HANDLINE.

C. THE ROOF AND OV bring the Hurst tool equipment to the scene of the accident and initiate the operation.

NOTE: THE LADDER COMPANY POSITIONS IN THIS SECTION ARE ONLY A GUIDE AND SHOULD BE EVALUATED BY THE COMPANY OFFICER AT ROLL CALL AND DISTRIBUTED ACCORDING TO EXPERIENCE AND STAFFING.

D. The ladder company officer should ensure the disconnection of the battery. When disconnecting the battery, remove the NEGATIVE terminal first.

Disentanglement & Extrication 4.1, 4.2

Question 16

Question 16:
Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding the transmission of the 1045 signal?

A: Once transmitted, the 1045 signal shall never be cancelled.

B: Signal 10-45 code 3 and 4 do not require the submission of a BF 19 form.

C: Signal 10-37 with any code shall not be used at any fire operation.

D: Signal 10-45 shall not be used to indicate a fatality or injury to an on-duty member.

Answer 16

Answer: A

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 8 – RADIO COMMUNICATIONS
A IS INCORRECT – Other than to address any patient discrepancies, the 10-45 shall not be cancelled once it is transmitted. 10-45 pg 8-14…

Question 17

Question 17:
All vehicles powered by Compressed Natural Gas (CNG), which require a Fire Department permit to operate using such fuel, are required to have a warning placard where on the vehicle?

A: Front and rear bumper

B: Front bumper only

C: Rear bumper only

D: On all four sides of vehicle

Answer 17

Answer: A

Explanation:
All other vehicles that DO NOT require a Fire Department permit and registered in New York are likely to be placarded only on the rear bumper
Haz-Mat 1 sec 4.2.1

Question 18

Question 18:
During company drill, the senior member had to correct the probationary firefighter when he made which incorrect comment regarding fire extension in nonfireproof tenements?

A: When checking for extension, there are six sides to examine in the fire area: the four walls, the ceiling above, and the floor.

B: The search for fire extension is often done by sense of touch alone. All places where fire might have extended and display no immediate signs of burning such as discoloration, blistering, smoke, etc. should be examined by touch.

C: In Old Law Tenements, the floor beams are laid parallel to the front of the building forming horizontal channels for fire travel as far as both side walls of the building. This permits lateral fire spread within the building and possible extension into adjoining buildings via beam ends and/or defective masonry.

D: The partitions that separate apartments in Old Law Tenements have fire stopping between the ceiling of one floor and the under side of the floor above which effectively limits fire extension.

Answer 18

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) The partitions that separate apartments in Old Law Tenements are NOT fire stopped between the ceiling of one floor and the under side of the floor above.
D Note: This may permit lateral extension across the building and could be first discovered by the unit working on the floor above the fire floor when they encounter extension and/or an unusually heavy smoke condition in the apartment which is not directly over the fire apartment.
C Note: An exception exists where these horizontal arteries are interrupted by public hall and stairs which retard lateral extension. Where these horizontal channels terminate at air shafts, they have allowed fire which has burned through flooring to the apartments above to extend via shaft windows to either or both adjoining buildings.
Lad 3 7.1.2. 7.1.3, 7.1.6, 7.1.7

Question 19

Question 19:
When dealing with a member in distress, removing the member from the IDLH is critical for survival. Assuring that the distressed member has an adequate supply of air is the next priority. Which procedure is incorrect when managing a distressed members air supply?

A: Once the member is located, a FAST Pak must be called for immediately, regardless of whether the member has air or not.

B: If the condition of the members SCBA is in doubt do not provide air via the low pressure system.

C: Use the downed member’s facepiece, unless it is damaged or missing, instead of the facepiece with the FAST Pak.

D: Once an unconscious member is supplied with air, turn the purge valve half way to allow a constant flow of air.

Answer 19

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. If the condition of the members SCBA is in doubt do not provide air via the HIGH pressure system.

Managing Members in Distress Ch 3 7.2, 7.4, 7.7, 7.9

Question 20

Question 20:
Which of the following indicates the CORRECT use of the 10-25 CODE?

A: Lt. A transmitted a 10-25-4 for contents fire in a transformer room in the subcellar of a building.

B: Lt. B transmitted a 10-25 code 2 for smoke seeping from a pair of blown manholes.

C: Lt. C transmitted a 10-25 Code 3 for smoke issuing from a manhole under pressure.

D: Lt. D transmitted a 10-25 Code 1 for replacing a missing manhole cover.

Answer 20

Answer: B

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 8 – RADIO COMMUNICATIONS.
B IS CORRECT – 10-25 Code 2 – Fire has blown one or more manhole covers or smoke is issuing from a manhole under pressure.
A – 25-4 is for fire or smoke condition from a transformer at any location. (This is a contents fire in the transformer room)
C – 25-2
D – 25 no code.

Question 21

Question 21:
Each designated riding position on the apparatus has been assigned an air-purifying respirator (APR) that can only be used when authorized by the IC, and when certain criteria has been met. Choose the incorrect criteria.

A: The air contaminant has been identified

B: The oxygen level is between 16.5% and 23.5%

C: The concentration of the material has been measured

D: The filter cartridge is specific for the contaminant

E: Air monitoring is on-going

Answer 21

Answer: B

Explanation:
The oxygen level is between 19.5% and 23.5%
ERP 7.3

Question 22

Question 22:
Of the following Brownstone features, which is inconsistent with Department guidelines?

A: The entrance to the second floor (parlor) is usually by way of exterior stair or stoop. Entrance to the first floor (basement) is through a doorway located under the exterior stoop.

B: Interior wooden stairs connect the cellar and first floor (basement), and first floor (basement) and second floor (parlor). An open interior stair connects the second floor (parlor) and upper floors.

C: Originally, bars were often encountered on both front and rear first floor (basement) windows and iron gates beneath the front stoop, negating access and egress.

D: There is normally a rear entrance from the yard to the second floor (parlor floor).

Answer 22

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) There is normally a rear entrance from the yard to the FIRST FLOOR (basement).
B Note: An iron ladder gives access from the top floor to the roof through a scuttle.
C Note: Note: Additional bars and gates may be found on upper floors.
Note: The need for 10-foot hooks to pull ceilings on the second floor (parlor floor) may exist in some Brownstone buildings. Ceilings on the second floor (parlor floor) have much ornamental plasterwork, often in the center and around the perimeter of the room.
Note: In some instances these buildings have been renovated by removal of the front stoop converting the former first floor (basement) entrance to the main access for the building.
BS/RF 2.1.3-2.2.6

Question 23

Question 23:
A CFR unit must complete a PCR in which of the following circumstances: 1) Dead On Arrival; 2) Refuse Medical Aid; 3) Emotionally Disturbed Person?

A: 1, 2, 3

B: 1 & 2 only

C: 2 & 3 only

D: 1 & 3 only

Answer 23

Answer: A

Explanation:
ALL THREE LETTERS: DOA; RMA; EDP = PCR

CFR Ch 2: 4.4 Note, 4.9.1, 4.10.1

Question 24

Question 24:
There are many factors involved in determining whether a 1 3/4” or 2 1/2” hose stretch would be more appropriate. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: While the officer should use their discretion in assessing the size of the fire area in determining if a 2 1/2” hoseline is required, a general guideline is that a fire area over 50 feet wide can be considered “large”. The area should also be “uncompartmented.”

B: For fires in a commercial portion of a mixed occupancy building (two or three story building with a store on the first floor and one or two apartments above), the use of 2 ½” hose is always necessary.

C: The presence of a commercial occupancy (OLT with a store, etc.) does not mandate the use of a 2 ½” hoseline. The use of 1 ¾” hose may be appropriate, depending on conditions.

D: For fires in a 1- or 2-story taxpayer, the large fire area and large amount of combustible contents will require the use of a 2 ½” hoseline. Also, the high ceilings and availability of a roof vent directly over the fire area constitute an uncompartmented fire area.

Answer 24

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) For fires in a commercial portion of a mixed occupancy building (two or three story building with a store on the first floor and one or two apartments above), the use of 2 ½” hose MAY NOT be necessary.
These commercial occupancies are not a taxpayer, and they generally do not have a large fire area. Such commercial occupancies are commonly less than 50 feet wide, do not have a direct opening to a roof vent, and may have narrow aisle space with limited open area. This situation may not fit the above described criteria of a “large, uncompartmented fire area”. Unless the fire area is sufficiently large, or one of the other described conditions is present, the use of 1 ¾” hose may be appropriate in these occupancies.
Eng Ch 4 4.8.4, 4.9.1

Question 25

Question 25:
When operating in a Ventilation Ladder company, there are designated titles that should be used when operating at an incident. Choose the incorrect title.

A: The unit assigned to respond with the Positive Pressure Fans (PPF) shall be designated the “Ventilation Support Group”

B: The officer shall be designated as the “Vent Incident Commander”

C: The members assigned to operate the fans shall be designated “Vent Group Lobby Unit” and the “Vent Group Fire Unit”

D: The member assigned the roof shall be designated “Vent Group Roof”

Answer 25

Answer: B

Explanation:
The officer shall be designated as the “Vent Group Supervisor”
AUC 349 sec 6.1

Question 26

Question 26:
Collapse operations may require many specialized units. Which of the following choices is correct?

A: The Con Edison Vacuum Truck may only be used by Con Edison members at the direction of the Incident Commander. Fire Department members shall not operate any portion of this truck.

B: Special Operations Support Ladder Companies shall not attempt or assist in tunneling and victim removal.

C: Special Operations Support Ladder Companies can act as a second FAST Unit, working underneath the Search and Rescue Branch.

D: Only the Incident Commander of an operation can request the response of a Collapse “POD.”

Answer 26

Answer: C

Explanation:
C
A) The Con Edison Vacuum Truck may ONLY be used by TRAINED MEMBERS of SPECIAL OPERATIONS COMMAND, in conjunction with the Con Ed operators and at the direction of the Incident Commander.
B) SPECIAL OPERATIONS SUPPORT Ladder Companies MAY ASSIST Rescue Companies in tunneling and victim removal.
ONLY a COMMAND CHIEF can request the response of the PODS.
Collapse 10.1.11, 10.1.12, 10.1.16

Question 27

Question 27:
At places of worship collapse is always a major concern for firefighters. Which collapse concern listed below is incorrect?

A: Both older and newer architecture places of worship are susceptible to early collapse.

B: A steeple atop a bell tower is more unstable than a dome above a tower.

C: Sidewalls run parallel to the ridge and are bearing walls. When the roof fails, it can push the sidewalls out into the street.

D: When evaluating the collapse potential and establishing collapse zones, the exposure 2 and 4 sides due to the bearing walls and the rear of the building are the most dangerous during a fire.

Answer 27

Answer: D

Explanation:
D. When evaluating the collapse potential and establishing collapse zones, the exposure 2 and 4 sides due to the bearing walls and THE EXPOSURE SIDE OF THE STEEPLE OR BELL TOWER (FRONT OF THE BUILDING) are the most dangerous during a fire.

MOST DANGEROUS SIDES ARE “124”

Places of Worship 4.2, 4.3, 4.6, 4.7

Question 28

Question 28:
During company drill in lower Manhattan, the covering Chief made a few comments regarding older cast-iron lofts. In which choice below was the chief’s statement incorrect?

A: If a loading dock is present, freight elevators may be found 20 feet inward from the front of the building.

B: Freight elevators will not be installed with Fire Service capabilities. They are not initially used during fire operations due to their proximity to rubbish removal areas which are commonly fire origin locations.

C: When elevator shafts face the street, any window serving the shaft is required to display a “SHAFTWAY” sign across the inner portion of the window that is clearly visible from the street. These windows are excellent points for water application on the fire floor.

D: In many loft buildings, elevators doors can look like apartment entrance doors and often, elevator doors do not slide into the shaftway but swing out onto the loft floor as two separate doors or as a single-hinged door. Members must be alert when forcing a door, that it does not access an elevator shaft.

Answer 28

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) When elevator shafts face the street, any window serving the shaft is required to display a “SHAFTWAY” sign across the OUTER portion of the window that is clearly visible from the street. AVOID placing aerial or portable ladders to these shaft windows or operating streams into them UNLESS visible fire is extending up the shaft.
B Note: After evaluation and approval for use by the Incident Commander (IC), these elevators will allow for greater movement of members, tools and equipment due to their large size.
Passenger elevators, as required by law, will be provided with Fire Service.
Lofts 5.1.2

Question 29

Question 29:
While conducting a drill on solar panels you made several statements. Which statement is incorrect?

A: Firefighters must never cut any wires associated with the solar panels

B: Firefighters must avoid walking on solar panels since this can expose them to electric shock

C: Shutting off power at the main electric panel ensures that all power to the building has been removed

D: The only way to ensure electricity does not enter the building from the solar panels, batteries, or back-up generator is shutting the switch to the inverter

Answer 29

Answer: C

Explanation:
Shutting off power at the main electric panel DOES NOT ensure that all power to the building has been removed
AUC 351 sec 6

Question 30

Question 30:
At fires in high rise fireproof multiple dwellings (HRFPMDs), proper ventilation tactics are necessary for a successful operation. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: Horizontal ventilation of the fire apartment should be limited and controlled by the ladder company officer operating in the fire apartment.

B: In some HRFPMDs, there may be windows in the public hallways and stairways. These windows shall not be ventilated without prior approval of the ladder company officer on the fire floor.

C: Stairways other than the evacuation stairs may be used for venting the fire floor. Where only two stairways are present, the attack stairway will be the primary means for vertical ventilation when the main body of fire has been knocked down and when authorized by the IC.

D: Doors to elevator machinery rooms at the roof level should not be used for ventilation purposes until the fire is under control.

Answer 30

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) In some HRFPMDs, there may be windows in the public hallways and stairways. These windows shall not be ventilated without prior approval of the IC.
D Note: After the fire is under control, the elevator machinery room, if located at roof level, can be vented by opening doors to the exterior, AS LONG AS wind will not force smoke back into the building.
MD Ch 2 3.1, 4.3, 4.4, 5.3

Question 31

Question 31:
Units are operating at a motor vehicle collision on a roadway with a posted speed limit of 40 MPH. Vehicles are traveling approximately 50 MPH and the Lieutenant in the truck decides she wants flares placed as a safety precaution. What is the minimum distance of the furthest flare?

A: 150 feet

B: 220 feet

C: 310 feet

D: 420 feet

Answer 31

Answer: C

Explanation:
MPH OF FASTEST SPEED EXPECTED x 1st Digit of the FASTEST SPEED EXPECTED + 60 = Distance

50 x 5 + 60 = 310

THIS SECTION WAS ASKED ON 2021 CAPT EXAM

TB Fires 8: 8.1

Question 32

Question 32:
At a cellar fire in a private dwelling, when the decision has been made to advance the first hoseline through the main entrance and down the interior cellar stairs to extinguish the fire, each of the following ladder company tactics would be in accordance with Department policy, except in which choice?

A: The first arriving ladder company inside team will perform a primary search of the first floor prior to descending into the cellar to perform the primary search and examination of the cellar.

B: If the engine company requires assistance in order to advance the line through the cellar, the interior team of the first ladder company shall immediately provide assistance, and notify the second arriving ladder to complete the primary search of the first floor.

C: It is critical at cellar fires that the first ladder inside team operate in a manner that supports the first hoseline in quickly applying water on the fire.

D: Often, the cellar stair is narrow, confined and problematic for ladder members to descend without the protection of a hoseline. Attempting to descend the cellar stair without the protection of a hoseline may actually delay the engine company advance.

Answer 32

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) If the engine company requires assistance in order to advance the line through the cellar, ONE MEMBER of the interior team shall be sent to provide assistance, while the ladder company officer and the other member complete the primary search of the first floor.
Note: Once the cellar fire is controlled, the inside team is in position to perform VEIS duties.
PD Ch 4 10.4.1

Question 33

Question 33:
Of the following choices, which aerial ladder unit tactic would be considered incorrect?

A: In order to facilitate an efficient, coordinated operation, the officer of the first ladder company should strive to enter the block after the first engine company, and from the same direction.

B: If the second ladder company to arrive is moving into the fire block opposite the first engine company, that ladder company should be given preference to accessing the front of the building prior to the engine taking a hydrant.

C: When approaching a box location and there is no visible indication of fire on the avenue of approach, the chauffeur should slow down one intersection short of the box location and enter the intersection at a slow rate of speed.

D: At vacant building fires, officers of aerial ladders shall consider the need for access and positioning of tower ladders; however, precedence may be give to the positioning of aerial apparatus if the building is not completely vacant, there is information/prior knowledge of vagrants/squatters or the reach of the 100’ aerial is required.

Answer 33

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) If the second ladder company to arrive is moving into the fire block opposite the first engine company, the ladder company officer must VERIFY THAT THE ENGINE HAS A HYDRANT before moving too close.
B Note: The officer and non-committed members (excludes chauffeur or tiller firefighter) may approach the fire building on foot.
A Note: This is particularly important where street width or parked cars would prevent the engine from passing the ladder apparatus to reach the desired hydrant.
C Note: This will allow the members to look in the side streets for the fire or emergency.
Lad 2 6.3, 6.3.1 D, E, 6.6.1, 7.2.1

Question 34

Question 34:
The incorrect procedure when operating at a Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) vehicle fire can be found in which choice?

A: Extinguish the fire by stopping the flow of gas. If the flow of Gas cannot be stopped, do not extinguish the fire-let it burn

B: If there are other CNG cylinders exposed to the cylinder that is on fire, apply water to the exposed cylinders in order to keep them cool

C: Establish a minimum safe perimeter of 100 ft around the vehicle

D: If the CNG cylinders are not involved in the fire, proceed with normal extinguishment procedures

Answer 34

Answer: B

Explanation:
DO NOT apply water to CNG cylinders exposed to fire because this may cool the pressure relief device (PRD) resulting in it not activating. This can result in a catastrophic cylinder failure (high pressure gas rupture).
Haz-Mat 1 sec 4…..This section is updated as of 4/19/2022.

Question 35

Question 35:
Glass objects can be used as indicators to help locate the point of origin of a fire. When examining glass, small crazing (cracking due to heat) indicates which choice below?

A: Intense rapid heat build up and will be found closer to the point of origin.

B: Intense rapid heat build up and will be found remote from the point of origin.

C: Relatively slow heat build up and will be found closer to the point of origin.

D: Relatively slow heat build up and will be found remote from the point of origin.

Answer 35

Answer: A

Explanation:
Heavy smoke stains and Large crazing = Remote and Slow

Light smoke stains and Small crazing = Close and Rapid

TB Arson: 6.7

Question 36

Question 36:
All officers should be familiar with proper tactics when operating at fires in high rise fireproof multiple dwellings. Which tactic below is not in accordance with Department policy?

A: Prior to the designation of the attack stairway, all members must access the fire floor from the same stairway.

B: The attack stair door and evacuation stair door should be the only stair doors left open on the fire floor.

C: When scissor stairs are present, it should be communicated via handie-talkie to all units.

D: At fire operations, early efforts should be made to ensure stairways are correctly labeled. If mislabeled scissor stairs are discovered, this information should be relayed to the IC immediately.

Answer 36

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) The attack stair door should be the ONLY stair door that is left open on the fire floor.
MD Ch 2 2.5.2, 2.6

Question 37

Question 37:
There are general precautions to take when operating inside a Con-Ed Substation. Choose the precaution that is incorrectly listed.

A: Do not force entry. Wait for the Con-Ed White hat

B: While waiting for Con-Ed to arrive, cut fences and/or locked doors or gates in preparation for FDNY operations

C: Avoid bringing metal tools into the substation (including wood or fiberglass hooks) and do not allow tools to project above your shoulder

D: When raising aerial ladders and tower ladder buckets. maintain a 18-foot safe clearance horizontally from the substation’s exterior fence line

Answer 37

Answer: B

Explanation:
Do not cut fences or force locked doors or gates
This is written in bold. Know this section for sure
AUC 338 add 2 sec 6

Question 38

Question 38:
While training a new member on properly positioning and operating a tower ladder on a hill, one member made an incorrect comment. Indicate the incorrect statement.

A: Position the apparatus parallel to the direction of the slope so that boom operations will be in the “up-hill” direction.

B: If possible, the apparatus should be facing “down-hill.”

C: If facing downhill, place the turntable before the objective; if facing uphill, place the turntable past the objective.

D: Verifying that all green lights are illuminated on the Outrigger Control Panel will confirm activation of the hydraulic system, indicating bucket function on newer Tower Ladder apparatus.

Answer 38

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) If facing downhill, place the turntable PAST the objective; if facing uphill, place the turntable BEFORE the objective.
D Note: On older Tower Ladder models without green lights on the Outrigger Control Panel, the apparatus should be made as level as possible to allow boom operation.
Notes: Once positioned, set the parking brake and chock wheels to ensure the apparatus does not move. Lower the jacks and outriggers and confirm all wheels remain on the ground to help prevent skipping.
TL Ch 2 2.4

Question 39

Question 39:
If an inside gas leak cannot be found, treat the affected area as a “potential blast zone” if levels cannot be limited to less than _____ LEL.

A: 5%

B: 10%

C: 20%

D: 80%

Answer 39

Answer: B

Explanation:
*WHEN THE LEAK IS FOUND, IF AT ANY TIME THE LEVELS REACH 80% LEL OR HIGHER, TREAT THE AFFECTED AREA AS A “POTENTIAL BLAST ZONE.”

Natural Gas pg 32

Question 40

Question 40:
Operating in a high rise office building fire, if difficulty is encountered in clearing the attack stairway of occupants, the officer of the third arriving ladder company shall advise who to withhold the attack until the occupants have been safely removed?

A: The first arriving ladder company or the Fire Sector Supervisor/Branch Director, if established.

B: The first arriving engine company or the Fire Sector Supervisor/Branch Director, if established.

C: The second arriving ladder company or the first arriving engine company.

D: The first arriving ladder company or the first arriving engine company.

Answer 40

Answer: A

Explanation:
HROB 8.5.1 B7