UPDATES PKG EXAM #2

Question 1

Question 1:
Two new concepts in the FDNY’s recently revamped Engine Operations bulletin is the nozzle advancement techniques: “Flow and Move” and “Stop and Flow”. Which on description of these techniques is incorrect?

A: Both of these techniques are effective with both the 1 3/4” hoseline and the 2 1/2” hoseline.

B: “Flow and Move” is the primary technique to be used when advancing a 2 1/2” hoseline.

C: “Flow and Move” is the standard technique taught in the FDNY Fire Academy and is effective in nearly all fire situations.

D: “Stop and Flow” should not be used when faced with heavy fire conditions or high heat.

Answer 1

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. “STOP AND FLOW” is the primary technique to be used when advancing a 2 1/2” hose line.

Engine Ops Ch 6 2.7.9, 2.7.10

Question 2

Question 2:
Captain Jones was conducting a drill on Buckeye Pipeline response. In which choice below did he make an incorrect statement?

A: At most valve locations there are two manual shut off valves (one for each line).

B: Shut off valves are generally located below ground in a valve housing under a pair of yellow covers.

C: Valve locations have a marker which consists of a white pole with an arrow head on top.

D: The identity of the valve box is located in white on the pole. Similar to the pipeline route marker, there is an orange sticker on the pole which identifies the owner of the pipeline, the product carried in the pipeline and an emergency contact phone number.

Answer 2

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Valve locations have a marker which consists of a YELLOW pole with an arrow head on top.
AUC 149 2.1.3

Question 3

Question 3:
When a radio is missing, unaccounted for, lost or stolen, the company officer must follow certain procedures. Which one is correct?

A: If the missing radio is not located by the end of the day it shall be considered lost.

B: When a radio is determined to be lost, both a lost property report and an unusual occurrence report must be forwarded by the officer on duty.

C: When a missing radio is located it shall be placed back in service immediately.

D: When a radio is stolen at the scene of a fire/emergency, the IC (chief or company officer) must conduct an investigation.

Answer 3

Answer: B

Explanation:
A. If the missing radio is not located by the END OF THE TOUR it shall be considered lost.

C. When a missing radio is located FORWARD THE RADIO TO THE DIVISION DEPOT FOR EVALUATION BY THE RADIO SHOP PRIOR TO BEING RETURNED TO SERVICE.

D. When a radio is stolen at the scene of a fire/emergency, the IC (CHIEF OFFICER) must conduct an investigation.

NEW ADDENDUM AS OF JUNE 2022

Comm Ch 11 Addendum 8 2.4, 2.5, 3.2.1, 3.2.3, 4.1)

Question 4

Question 4:
Members should be familiar with expected friction loss in different sized hose lines. Which choice is incorrect?

A: The friction loss in each 50-foot length of 1 ¾” hose is 20 psi.

B: The friction loss in each 50-foot length of 2 ½” hose is 5 psi.

C: The friction loss in each length of lightweight 2” hose is 10 psi.

D: The friction loss in each length of lightweight 2 ½” hose is 10 psi.

Answer 4

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) The friction loss in each length of lightweight 2 ½” hose is 5 PSI.
Note: The friction loss in each 50-foot length of 3 ½” hose is approximately 3 psi. This number depends upon several factors including the length of the stretch and the amount of water flowing.
Eng Ch 3 2.2.3, 2.2.4, 2.4.4, 2.5.4, 2.6.3

Question 5

Question 5:
In order to safeguard private property while operating at fires or emergencies, the following procedures shall be complied with. Which one is incorrect?

A: When members find articles of substantial value, these articles must be brought to the Incident Command Post (ICP).

B: Such articles, when brought to the ICP, shall be restored to the owner upon proper identification, delivered to the Police Department if owner is not available, or upon proper identification to an authorized representative of the owner.

C: In all cases a receipt shall be obtained.

D: When necessary, Fire Marshals shall be requested to respond in order to voucher large amounts of currency.

Answer 5

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. When members find articles of substantial value, THE INCIDENT COMMANDER SHOULD BE NOTIFIED. IN MOST SITUATIONS, THESE ARTICLES WILL BE SAFEGUARDED BY MEMBERS OR THE POLICE DEPARTMENT UNTIL PROPERLY RESTORED TO THEIR OWNER OR AUTHORIZED REPRESENTATIVE. IN UNUSUAL CIRCUMSTANCES WHERE THE IC DEEMS IT NECESSARY, THESE ARTICLES SHALL BE BROUGHT TO THE ICP.

THIS SECTION WAS CHANGED WHEN REGUALTIONS WERE REVOKED AND REISSUED IN APRIL 2022

Regulations Ch 11 11.3.9

Question 6

Question 6:
Members should be familiar with the procedure for shutting down Buckeye Pipeline valves when required to do so. Which choice is incorrect?

A: Each valve cover is opened by inserting the square female fitting of the wrench into the latching device of the cover and making a half turn counterclockwise.

B: Care must be used while opening the valve cover. Do not use the wrench as a lever because the weight of the cover and excessive force can lead to the square end of the wrench becoming rounded.

C: Inside each valve box should be a set of rubber covers, one yellow and one red. Under the yellow cover is low voltage wiring and under the red cover is the square male stem for the manual valve.

D: To shut off the valve, place the square female fitting of the wrench onto the square male stem of the valve and turn it clockwise approximately 42 half turns. This task must be performed on both valves at each location.

Answer 6

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) To shut off the valve, place the square female fitting of the wrench onto the square male stem of the valve and turn it clockwise approximately 42 FULL turns. This task must be performed on both valves at each location.
D Note: There are exceptions where the valves require more or less than the 42 full turns. For example, valves located on the shipper’s lines extending from the Long Island City terminal require approximately 24 full turns clockwise to close. Valve 62QL only requires 12 full turns clockwise to close. Valve 66QI on JFK property near the “Head of Bay” requires over 100 full turns clockwise to close. It is vital to make only the correct number of turns. DO NOT OVER TIGHTEN. Detailed instructions for closing each valve is located in the Buckeye Pipeline Response Manual.
B Note: This rounding would prevent the wrench from being able to fit on the valve stem and prevent the unit from being able to close the valve.
AUC 149 2.1.4-2.1.6

Question 7

Question 7:
Which of the following types of portable ladders may be used upside down if necessary?

A: Extension ladders and telescoping ladders

B: Extension ladders only

C: Telescoping ladders only

D: Neither extension or telescoping ladders

Answer 7

Answer: D

Explanation:
NEW INFO AS OF JANUARY 2021

EXTENSION LADDERS AND TELESCOPING LADDERS SHOULD NEVER BE USED UPSIDE DOWN, THAT IS, WITH THE ROUNDED ENDS DOWN.

Portable Ladders 12.1

Question 8

Question 8:
There have been significant changes to emergency response policy at motor vehicle collisions. Which choice below is incorrect?

A: NYPD will respond to all vehicular collisions, but a delay can be expected at incidents that involve damage to vehicles only.

B: When incidents do not require NYPD response, the FDNY IC shall ensure civilians are in a safe area and vehicles are moved to a safe area if possible. If vehicles cannot be moved, the FDNY IC shall request authorized tow when necessary.

C: On express highways or other dangerous roadways, units must be aware to protect the scene with apparatus as per current Department policy.

D: FDNY units shall remain on the scene until the arrival of NYPD, an authorized tow removes vehicles, or the vehicles and civilians have been removed to a safe area.

Answer 8

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) NYPD WILL NOT respond to vehicular collisions which involve damage to vehicles only. In all other situations, the FDNY IC shall immediately notify the dispatcher that NYPD response is required.
TB Fires 8 4.4

Question 9

Question 9:
When operating in a Place of Worship, which procedure/tactic is correct?

A: All interior attack lines must be 2 1/2”

B: In most cases, when fire spreads to the bell tower, it cannot be extinguished by the use of handlines

C: After an initial size-up for a fire on the first floor or fire in a choir loft, the first line into the building will always be through the front door

D: Due to the size of Places of Worship, the second handline stretched must back up the first line even when fire is discovered in the cellar, with the third line used to extinguish fire discovered in the cellar

Answer 9

Answer: B

Explanation:
Places of Worship ( August 2019)
A- When the fire is located in a large open area of a Place of Worship or the reach of the stream is required to reach higher elevations, the initial lines will GENERALLY be 2 1/2”………..For a cellar fire where operations will be in close quarters, mobility of operations are a prime consideration, therefore the interior hoselines stretched should GENERALLY be 1 3/4”……..sec 6.12 and 6.1.3
B- Sec 6.4.1
C- After an initial size-up for a fire on the first floor or fire in a choir loft, the first line into the building will be stretched through the entrance door that provides the quickest access to the fire…..sec 6.3.1
D- NOT A MUST……Initially positioned and charged outside the fire building as a back-up for the first hoseline. When not needed to back-up the first hoseline, it can be used to extinguished any fire discovered in the cellar…sec 6.3.1 and 6.3.2

Question 10

Question 10:
When a fatality or serious injury associated with a Carbon Monoxide incident is discovered, the IC shall have the dispatcher notify whom?

A: NYPD

B: Chief of Safety

C: BFI

D: HPD

Answer 10

Answer: C

Explanation:
ADDED TO BULLETIN JANUARY 2019

Haz Mat Ch 4 5.1.2

Question 11

Question 11:
During the course of their duties, members may be required to write and submit a Suspicious Activity Reporting (SAR) Form. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: Members should only report what they observe in the course of their normal duties – they must not take any additional actions outside of the scope of those duties.

B: Members must only report acts carried out in circumstances that would arouse suspicion of terrorism or related criminality in a reasonable person.

C: The totality of circumstances must be considered when making a decision to file a suspicious activity report (SAR). Members must be clear and specific when writing a Suspicious Activity Reporting (SAR) Form.

D: SAR Forms shall be in a secure place in the company office and not carried on the apparatus.

Answer 11

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) SAR Forms shall be carried on the apparatus. AUC 363 4.2-4.6

Question 12

Question 12:
At a cellar or sub-cellar fire in a loft building, which one line placement described below is incorrect?

A: The first hoseline should be stretched to the entrance door that provides the quickest access to the cellar in order to extinguish the fire. This may be via the interior stairs, or by way of an exterior entrance.

B: If the first line is stretched to the interior, but does not advance down the interior stairs, the second hoeline should be stretched into the cellar via an exterior cellar entrance to extinguish the fire.

C: If the first hoseline is stretched to the cellar by way of an exterior entrance then the second hoseline should be stretched to the first floor.

D: If the first hoseline advances down the interior stairs, the second line will be stretched to the cellar to backup the first hoseline.

Answer 12

Answer: D

Explanation:
D. If the first hoseline advances down the interior stairs, the second line will be stretched to BACK-UP THE FIRST HOSELINE AND WILL BE POSITIONED AT THE TOP OF THE INTERIOR STAIRS.

UPDATED MAY 2022

Lofts 6.2.1

Question 13

Question 13:
Each of the following rules apply to Suspicious Activity Reporting (SAR) except in which choice?

A: Companies shall keep the original copy of the SAR Form on file at quarters.

B: All submitted SAR Forms shall be forwarded to the Bureau of Fire Investigation.

C: Companies must make journal entries of the incident, but give no particulars in order to preserve the integrity of any subsequent investigation.

D: Members must NOT use any social media to share any experiences pertaining to the observed suspicious activity.

Answer 13

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) Companies will NOT keep the original or copies of the SAR Form at quarters.
AUC 363 9.1, 10.2

Question 14

Question 14:
On the Kernmantle Life Saving Rope, in the event of an unintended impact load, approximately a ______ pound load falling ______ feet or more, the Gemtor energy absorber will begin to deploy, absorbing some of the energy, lessening the chance of a failure of the substantial object and/or the rope.

A: 400; two

B: 400; three

C: 600; two

D: 600; three

Answer 14

Answer: C

Explanation:
Note: Rope 3 4.7 (Personal Harness) defines an impact load as a member falling three feet or more, warranting placing the harness out of service. KNOW THE DIFFERENCE

Note: Rope 10 1.5 states the Gemtor energy absorber is designed to deploy with an approximately 1,400 to 1,500 pound impact load.

THIS ISN’T AN OUTRIGHT CONFLICT AS THEY COULD BE DESCRIBING DIFFERENT TYPES OF LOADS, BUT BE AWARE OF WHAT IT SAYS IN EACH SECTION

Rope 10 Data Sheet 6 2.3

Question 15

Question 15:
Any non-fire related rescue or persons rescued/removed from a dangerous situation should be identified by which code?

A: 10-39

B: 10-42

C: 10-43

D: 10-46

Answer 15

Answer: C

Explanation:
10-43 is a disposition code, not a request for resources and shall not be transmitted in lieu of 10-60, 10-75 or other signals.
Comm 8 8.5

Question 16

Question 16:
First alarm units are just taking up from a fire in a High Rise Office Building. The first due Engine and Ladder are discussing some tactics and the make the following comments. They were only correct in which one?

A: The first arriving ladder company officer shall determine the location of the fire on the fire floor and communicate with the IC to assist in determining the best attack stairway.

B: Once selected, the first ladder officer shall notify the first engine officer of the identity of the attack stair.

C: The attack stairway does not need to be a stairway with a standpipe outlet.

D: The attack stair should be a fire tower if possible.

Answer 16

Answer: C

Explanation:
A. The first arriving ladder company officer shall determine the location of the fire on the fire floor and communicate with THE ENGINE OFFICER to assist in determining the best attack stairway.

B. Once selected, the ENGINE OFFICER SHALL NOTIFY THE IC of the identity of the attack stair.

D. The attack stair should NOT BE A FIRE TOWER.

*ALL UPDATED SECTIONS AS OF MAY 2022**

8.3.1E #4, 9.3.1E

Question 17

Question 17:
Units should be familiar with the Manual Shut Off Wrench for the Buckeye Pipeline. In which choice below is the wrench described incorrectly?

A: It is approximately 3 1/2 feet long and painted yellow.

B: The longer portion of the wrench has a square, female fitting used to unlock the fitting cover and shut the manual valve.

C: Each unit with Buckeye Pipeline responsibilities has been issued two wrenches. One shall be kept on the apparatus and the other kept near the housewatch.

D: The wrench near the housewatch should be kept along with the second copy of the Buckeye Pipeline Response Manual and extra cans (at least 2 cans) of AFFF foam for use by relocated companies.

Answer 17

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) The wrench near the housewatch should be kept along with the second copy of the Buckeye Pipeline Response Manual and extra cans (at least 3 CANS) of CLASS B (AR-AFFF) for use by relocated companies.
AUC 149 2.1.2, 2.1.2

Question 18

Question 18:
Which of the following tools may be used when removing a windshield?

A: Beluga auto glass knife, saw, sawzall only

B: Beluga auto glass knife, sawzall only

C: Saw, sawzall, axe only

D: Beluga auto glass knife, saw, sawzall, axe

Answer 18

Answer: D

Explanation:
THE AXE SHOULD BE CONSIDERED THE LAST RESORT

Disentanglement and Extrication 11.3

Question 19

Question 19:
Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding Fire Department operations on airport property?

A: If Fire Department assistance is required the IC will designate a Company Officer to command the Staging Area until the arrival of a second BC.

B: All units shall monitor the Department radio in addition to handie-talkies.

C: Under no circumstances are Fire Department units to enter the aeronautical operations area (tarmac) without a PA escort.

D: If an aircraft incident occurs off airport property, the FDNY will operate under the NYPD, who will be the IC under a Single Command Structure.

Answer 19

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) If an aircraft incident occurs off airport property, the NYPD and FDNY will operate under a UNIFIED COMMAND Structure. The Fire Department has complete responsibility for Life Safety Operations, which is the highest priority objective at any incident.
AUC 325 3.2.2, 3.9.1, 3.10, 6.4.2

Question 20

Question 20:
Which Fire Dynamic statement is most correct?

A: The explosive range for Natural Gas is 5%-25%

B: Flashover occurs during the Fully Developed stage of the fire

C: When a fire enters the Decay stage, its either fuel limited or ventilation limited

D: Thermal Interface is the boundary between the upper layer of hot smoke and the cool ambient air of the lower layer. A thermal imaging camera can identify the thermal interface if the camera itself is positioned in the upper layer looking at the lower layer

Answer 20

Answer: C

Explanation:
Fire Dynamics (May 2021)
A- 5%-15%…..ch 1 sec 7.4 (picture)
B- Rollover and Flashover occur during the Growth stage of the fire…..ch 2 sec 1.2.3 (in Bold)
C- Ch 2 sec 1.4 (in Bold)
D- A camera held in the upper layer (hot layer) will not be able to see the thermal interface…ch 2 sec 2.1

Question 21

Question 21:
With the release of the revamped ventilation bulletin, members can gain a deeper understanding of how flow paths develop during a fire. Which one statement displays incorrect information?

A: With a unidirectional flow path, all gas movement is on one direction.

B: There will only be one flow path within a structure.

C: During a bidirectional flow path, fresh air is pulled into the fire compartment below the neutral plane.

D: The exchange of air is bidirectional when there is a single vent opening on the same level as the fire.

Answer 21

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. BASED ON VARYING BUILDING DESIGNS AND AVAILABLE VENTILATION OPENINGS, THERE MAY BE MULTIPLE FLOW PATHS within a structure.

Ventilation Glossary, 2.2

Question 22

Question 22:
Fires or emergencies on express highways require prompt response to render aid to persons injured or trapped, and extinguish fire. However, a fast approach is often the most dangerous. Which of the following choices is not in accordance with Department policy?

A: Where feasible, approach an express highway incident from the same direction as the traffic.

B: Express Highway box assignments call for response of units from more than one direction and often the company traveling in the direction opposite that of the incident will reach the scene first, commencing operations across the center divider. As soon as possible, this unit should be released and its function taken over by one operating from the incident side of such divider.

C: Normally, operating across a center divider shall be avoided. If absolutely necessary to do so, traffic shall be stopped on the side of the barrier/divider with the incident and traffic slowed when members are crossing the other side.

D: When encountering a barrier, divider or highway separation of any type (permanent or temporary) the IC shall select an area for access to the incident only after visually identifying the path for crossing, directing a member to use a tool to test the surface on the opposite side, and, once stability is verified, communicating the location to all members.

Answer 22

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Normally, operating across a center divider shall be avoided. If absolutely necessary to do so, traffic shall be stopped in BOTH directions and safety warning devices set up.
D Note: This safe crossing corridor shall be the ONLY means of access and egress utilized at this incident unless otherwise directed by IC. Whenever a safe crossing corridor is established, it shall be clearly marked (cones/barrier tape) to identify the designated area. In addition, at night or whenever visibility is reduced, members shall use all available means of lighting to illuminate the area.
If a safe crossing corridor cannot be established, members shall not cross any barrier, divider or highway separation.
When a hazardous separation is observed, the roadway/bridge name, location of separation with approximate size and direction of travel, along with a highway mileage marker designation where applicable, shall be the subject of an immediate letterhead report to the Chief of Operations. The report shall be endorsed at the Battalion, Division and Borough levels with comprehensive comments and recommendations.
A Note: By exercising this option, the fire and engine company occupy only the lane or lanes in one direction, and exposure to secondary collision is lessened.
TB Fires 8 9

Question 23

Question 23:
Members must use caution when positioning a tower ladder (TL) in the vicinity of overhead wires. Which one of the following SOPs is correct?

A: The TL turntable shall never be positioned directly under wires.

B: If live overhead wires fall onto the apparatus, it is possible for the apparatus to be energized, particularly if the jacks and outriggers are in the bedded position.

C: If live wires fall onto the apparatus, notify the IC transmitting an “urgent” message after depressing the EAB.

D: Any members already in position on an energized apparatus should attempt to dismount the apparatus immediately.

Answer 23

Answer: C

Explanation:
A. POSITIONING THE TURNTABLE directly under wires MAY ALLOW FOR UPPER FLOOR VEIS/ROOF ACCESS.

B. If live overhead wires fall onto the apparatus, it is possible for the apparatus to be energized, particularly if the jacks and outriggers are DOWN IN PLACE.

D. Any members already in position on an energized apparatus should attempt to REMAIN IN PLACE AND ARE NOT TO BE TOUCHED UNTIL POWER HAS BEEN REMOVED.

NEW INFORMATION WITH RELEASE OF NEW TL BULLETIN IN OCTOBER 2019

Tower Ladder Ch 2 2.7

Question 24

Question 24:
Aircraft incidents have specific concerns regarding command structures. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: The Port Authority (PA) has the prime responsibility for “aircraft” incidents on airport property. The FDNY has the prime responsibility for “structural” incidents on airport property.

B: The PA’s Air Rescue Firefighting Division (ARFF) has the prime responsibility for firefighting and rescue operations. Any FDNY equipment responding to an alert will assist ARFF in fire suppression and search/rescue. FDNY personnel will be under the direct control of the FDNY Incident Commander.

C: The PAPD Tour Commander will establish a unified command with the Deputy Chief/Captain or Crew Chief from ARFF and the Airport Duty Manager. The ARFF Deputy Chief, Crew Chief and Captain wear blue helmets.

D: It is essential that wreckage not be indiscriminately moved or damaged during rescue operations; however, during rescue or firefighting wreckage may be disturbed if life is involved or fire can be further suppressed or extinguished by judicious removal of the wreckage.

Answer 24

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) The PAPD Tour Commander will establish a unified command with the Deputy Chief/Captain or Crew Chief from ARFF and the Airport Duty Manager. The ARFF Deputy Chief and Captain wear WHITE helmets. The ARFF Crew Chiefs (PA Sergeants) wear RED helmets.
AUC 325 1 - 1.3

Question 25

Question 25:
Which one of the following uses of the maxi-force air bags is incorrect?

A: Moving and lifting cylindrical and odd shaped objects.

B: With vehicles, they can be used in lifting the steering columns, doors, door post, pedals, the dashboard, or for removing or prying open a windshield or rear window.

C: They can be used to lift collapsed floor, beams, and fallen trees and poles.

D: They can be used on elevator doors, subway trains and iron bars.

Answer 25

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. With vehicles, they can be used in lifting the steering columns, doors, door post, pedals, OR THE dashboard.

REMOVING OR PRYING OPEN A WINDSHIELD OR REAR WINDOW WAS REMOVED FROM THIS SECTION IN NOVEMBER 2019

Tools 20 1.2

Question 26

Question 26:
Ensuring an adequate delivery of water is the primary function of the Fire Department at airport emergencies and relay operations are likely due to the possibility of great distances between the incident site and the water supply. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: If a relay is conducted using 6” hose from the Hose wagon and/or Satellite Units, the best approach would be to position an Engine at a positive hydrant using the Hose wagon or Satellite to lay a line of 6” hose from that Engine to another Engine adjacent to the ARFF crash truck since ARFF crash trucks do not have fittings that can accept 6” hose.

B: When the FDNY supplies water to the PA/ARFF Crash Trucks, FDNY Engine Company Chauffeurs (ECCs) should not exceed 80-psi at the intakes of ARFF Crash Trucks.

C: Water supply operations need to be coordinated by the Engine Company Officer and the Crash Truck Operator. A logical position for the Engine Company Officer would be in close proximity to the Crash Truck Operator, when possible.

D: Responding units should follow the PA escort closely as runways may be in use. Stay on asphalt roads or the edges of runways to avoid getting stuck in soft ground. If units encounter subsurface hydrants, these hydrants require the custodian hydrant wrench to remove caps and access water.

Answer 26

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) Responding units should follow the PA escort closely as runways may be in use. Stay on asphalt roads or the edges of runways to avoid getting stuck in soft ground. If units encounter subsurface hydrants, these hydrants REQUIRE SPECIAL WRENCHES that are ONLY carried on PA ARFF Crash Trucks.
D Note: The PAPD escort should remain with units until a positive water supply can be confirmed. If a relay needs to be conducted to ARFF crash trucks the PAPD escort should help to facilitate our movement on the tarmac.
A Note: From the adjacent Engine a 3-1/2” supply line could be used to supply the ARFF crash truck. In the future ARFF will have fittings capable of accepting our 6” hose.
C Note: This will ensure a communication link between the Crash Truck Operator and the ECC suppling water. A secondary communication link could be provided via the PA 800 Mhz radio on the ARFF channel, if approved by the FDNY IC and a supervisor from ARFF.
Note: The pumping capabilities of the Satellite Units should be used to their fullest when practical.
AUC 325 4.1.1, 4.1.2, 4.1.3

Question 27

Question 27:
Engine 100 and Ladder 100 arrive at a fire on the 2nd floor of a Class 2 high-rise multiple dwelling. The officer of the first engine decides that the first line will be hand stretched off the apparatus to the 2nd floor apartment. The building has one open and one enclosed stair. Which one procedure at this fire is incorrect?

A: The engine officer ordered his members to stretch a 2 1/2 inch hose.

B: The roof firefighters first priority for roof access is the remote unaffected stair.

C: Consideration should be given to leaving the enclosed stair for attack when possible.

D: The roof firefighter carried only a halligan, maul and hydra-ram only.

Answer 27

Answer: C

Explanation:
C. Consideration should be given to leaving the enclosed stair for EVACUATION when possible.

FIRES IN CLASS 2 BUILDINGS WLL BE EXTINGUISHED USING 2 1/2 INCH HOSE STRETCHED FROM A STANDPIPE OUTLET ON A FLOOR BELOW OR USING 1 3/4 OR 2 1/2 HOSE HANDSTRETCHED FROM A PUMPER.

UPDATED IN MARCH OF 2022

Multiple Dwellings Ch 4 7.2, 7.3, 10.1.4

Question 28

Question 28:
Members in the field must be alert to suspicious activity which may be indicative of terrorism. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: If a member “suspects” an individual is engaging in terrorist activity; they should not confront that individual. If a member “witnesses” an act of terrorism, implement FDNY standard operating procedures to ensure member safety and life-saving measures to the public; they must then notify NYPD and the Bureau of Fire Investigation (BFI) as soon as possible.

B: Upon discovery of suspicious activity during routine assignments, building inspections, and emergency responses, members should use the SAR Form to capture critical information for the report. Information regarding your suspicions should not be transmitted over the Department radio unless there is an immediate threat to member safety.

C: The reporting officer should send the original SAR Form through intra-departmental mail to the Bureau of Fire Investigation (BFI). In addition, call BFI.

D: If a member is unsure of conditions, they should return to quarters and notify the Battalion Chief.

Answer 28

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) If a member is unsure of conditions, they should REMAIN ON SCENE and REQUEST a Battalion Chief to RESPOND.
A Note: A member witnessing an act which is by itself criminal, such as theft indicative of terrorist activity/ diversion/sabotage/tampering/vandalism, should immediately notify NYPD.
In the event a member discovers any of the listed indicators, it should be reported immediately upon return to quarters by going to the reporting system on DiamondPlate:
Fill out the required fields and use the narrative section for any other information relevant to the incident. Members should use the notes from the SAR Form to report accurate information.
Upon submission, this application will generate a PDF file and will be emailed directly to FDOC. An officer at FDOC will vet the information provided and call the reporting member to collect more details if needed. The FDOC Officer-on-duty will make notifications to the need to know parties within the Department and to the appropriate law enforcement agencies.
AUC 363 8.1-8.6

Question 29

Question 29:
A new Lieutenant must be familiar with the proper use of the Thermal Imaging Camera (TIC) as well as its limitations. Which one feature of the camera described below is incorrect?

A: The TIC will always provide an accurate and reliable indication of thermal conditions when attempting to locate a fire or extension in an enclosed space.

B: The TIC is an unreliable thermometer.

C: The TIC should not be relied on to determine the temperature of a compartment, through the color scale.

D: The temperature measurement zone on the Evolution 6000 TIC has been disabled.

Answer 29

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. The TIC MAY NOT provide an accurate and reliable indication of thermal conditions when attempting to locate a fire or extension in an enclosed space.

NOTE: A,B,C is all information that was revoked with Addendum 1 and moved to the main part of the bulletin in March 2022

D was new as of March 2022
Tools 27 2.12, 2.16, Data Sheet 1 3.3

Question 30

Question 30:
All members should know how an aircraft incident may be sectored. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: From the pilot’s point of view, the A sector is on the left side of the cockpit, adjacent to where the pilot sits for fixed winged aircraft.

B: The A sector is between the nose of the aircraft (12 o’clock) and the left wing (9 o’clock.) The remaining sectors are then assigned clockwise starting from the A Sector.

C: Aircraft doors are labeled by what side of the plane they are on, based on the pilot’s point of view. Doors are numbered 1, 2, and 3, starting with the door closest to the cockpit as door number 1.

D: The right side of the aircraft can also be referred to as the rescue side of the aircraft due to the layout of doors. PA ARFF will use this side as a reference point and the primary side for rescues.

Answer 30

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) The LEFT side of the aircraft can also be referred to as the rescue side of the aircraft due to the layout of doors. PA ARFF will use this side as a reference point and the primary side for rescues.
AUC 325 6.2.1-6.2.4

Question 31

Question 31:
The correct “Stack Effect” statement can be found in which choice?

A: The direction of the Stack Effect will be dictated by whether the interior of the building is warmer or cooler than the external environment

B: Positive Stack Effect (summer) is when the interior of a building is cooler than the external environment

C: Negative Stack Effect (winter) is when the interior of a building is warmer than the external environment

D: Positive Stack Effect is smoke movement inside the building travels downwards via vertical shafts, and Negative Stack Effect is when air and smoke travel upwards via vertical shafts

Answer 31

Answer: A

Explanation:
B- Positive Stack Effect (winter) is when the interior of a building is warmer than the external environment
C- Negative Stack Effect (summer) is when the interior of a building is cooler than the external environment
D- Positive Stack Effect is smoke movement inside the building travels UPWARDS via vertical shafts, and Negative Stack Effect is when air and smoke travel DOWNWARDS via vertical shafts
Fire Dynamics (May 2021) ch 4 pages 2-3

Question 32

Question 32:
On the new FDNY Fast Pak, what are the correct methods for monitoring the volume of air remaining in the cylinder?

A: Remote gauge; low air whistle; cylinder gauge only

B: Remote gauge; cylinder gauge only

C: Cylinder gauge; low air whistle; heads up display only

D: Remote gauge; cylinder gauge; low air whistle; heads up display; vibra-alert

Answer 32

Answer: A

Explanation:
The Fast Pak IS NOT EQUIPPED with a vibra-alert or heads up display.

SCBA Addendum 1 4.1; 8.3

Question 33

Question 33:
Two officers in a double house were discussing Engine Company equipment. Indicate a correct statement.

A: 1 3/4” hose is the most versatile type of hose in the FDNY. It can be used as an attack line at a fire or emergency, or as a supply line in a number of situations.

B: 2 1/2” lightweight hose is colored green with red stripes. It is only used as the lead (nozzle) length on the attack line when using a standpipe system in residential buildings.

C: 2” lightweight hose is colored white with red stripes. It is used as an attack line when using a standpipe system in any building.

D: The midpoint of 2” and 2 1/2” lightweight hose is painted red and this marking, called the “A-fold”, can facilitate a smooth deployment of the hose. There are also reflective arrows on each female coupling that serve as a directional indicator, pointing in the direction of the water source.

Answer 33

Answer: D

Explanation:
2 ½” HOSE is the most versatile type of hose in the FDNY. It can be used as an attack line at a fire or emergency, or as a supply line in a number of situations.
2” LIGHTWEIGHT HOSE is colored green with red stripes. It is only used as the lead (nozzle) length on the attack line when using a standpipe system in residential buildings.
2 ½” LIGHTWEIGHT HOSE is colored white with red stripes. It is used as an attack line when using a standpipe system.
Eng Ch 3 2.3.1, 2.4.1-2.4.4, 2.5.1-2.5.4

Question 34

Question 34:
First alarm units arrive at a Lithium Ion Energy Storage System (ESS) emergency, where they encounter smoke showing on arrival. Which one action taken is correct?

A: A 10-80 No Code was transmitted for a Haz-Mat response.

B: An engine company connected to the Fire Department Connection (FDC) supplying the fire extinguishing system and charged the system.

C: Exterior lines in a wide fog stream were used to cool adjacent cabinets and exposures.

D: Members did not shut down the ESS at the emergency stop device (ESTOP) at the FDC.

Answer 34

Answer: B

Explanation:
A. A 10-80 CODE 1 was transmitted for a Haz-Mat response.

C. Exterior lines in a NARROW OR STRAIGHT STREAM pattern were used to cool adjacent cabinets and exposures.

D. Members SHUT DOWN the ESS at the emergency stop device (ESTOP) at the FDC.

UPDATED APRIL 2019

Haz Mat Ch 19 Pg 6

Question 35

Question 35:
For the most part, the color of smoke during a structural fire can be black, brown, gray or white. Choose the most correct definition for the color of smoke.

A: Black smoke is usually an indication that the fire is the early stages and the structure itself is involved

B: Brown smoke often indicates fuel-rich conditions, due to restricted air supply (ventilation limited) and only contents are involved

C: Gray smoke venting from a building is an indication that the fire is nearby the vent opening

D: White smoke can be an indication that water is on the fire, but it can also indicate that certain fuels are being heated and releasing volatile components, which represents a significant danger, and should never be treated lightly

Answer 35

Answer: D

Explanation:
A- Black smoke often indicates fuel-rich conditions, due to restricted air supply (ventilation limited)
B- Brown smoke can indicate the early stages of the pyrolysis of timber products. In a wood frame building , the presence of brown smoke may indicate that the structure is involved
C- Gray smoke is an indication that the fire is remote from the vent opening
Fire Dynamics (May 2021) ch 2 sec 3.5.4

Question 36

Question 36:
Of the following choices, which is incorrect regarding Fire Department airport operations?

A: The “Officer lap” is a quick walk around the aircraft to identify the hazards and gain a picture of the incident (this is crucial because the incident may not be the same on different sides of the aircraft.)

B: The first arriving Engine Officer should conduct an “Officer Lap” and take a quick scan of the scene with the thermal imaging camera (TIC).

C: The FDNY IC should offer FAST Unit services at the point of incident if the PA does not initially need our assistance.

D: Priorities at airports incidents include: 1) Protect escape/egress paths for crew and passengers. 2) Extinguish the exterior of the Aircraft. 3) Enter the interior and extinguish any visible fire. 4) Extricate crew and passengers if needed. 5) Support EMS, prepare for mass casualty incident.

Answer 36

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) The first arriving LADDER Officer should conduct an “Officer Lap” and take a quick scan of the scene with the thermal imaging camera (TIC).
Note: Provided below is a list of general incident priorities:
Acronym: Professional Experience In Extinguishing Stuff
1) Protect escape/egress paths for crew and passengers.
2) Exterior - extinguish the exterior of the Aircraft.
3) Interior - enter and extinguish any visible fire. 4) Extricate crew and passengers if needed.
5) Support EMS, prepare for mass casualty incident.
AUC 325 4.5.1, 6.3.1, 6.4.1

Question 37

Question 37:
What is the designated TAC “U” Channel on the Handie-Talkie?

A: Zone “A” Channel 12

B: Zone “B” Channel 9

C: Zone “B” Channel 12

D: Zone “A” Channel 10

Answer 37

Answer: C

Explanation:
Code: Vitamin B12

THIS WAS UPDATED IN JUNE 2022

Note “A”: is the secondary building repeater channel.
Note “B”: Is UTAC 42D the primary UTAC channel for use in the NYC region.
Note “D”: Is the encrypted command channel.

Comm Ch 14 Addendum 2 2.1

Question 38

Question 38:
When the landing gear or tires of an aircraft are on fire, specific procedures should be followed. Which procedure is not in accordance with Department policy?

A: When the landing gear or the tires of the aircraft are on fire, always approach from the front or rear of the wheel assembly, while exercising extreme caution.

B: When the landing gear or the tires of the aircraft are on fire, never approach from the sides in line with the axle.

C: Tires and landing gear may not reach their hottest temperature for 5 minutes after landing. Using the TIC will help detect high levels of heat.

D: A hot brake situation could be indicated by brown smoke. Fans may help to cool the breaks.

Answer 38

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Tires and landing gear may not reach their hottest temperature for 20 MINUTES after landing. Using the TIC will help detect high levels of heat.
Notes: Look for tread on the tires, if you do not see tread these tires could be heated beyond limits. Fog patterns can be used to cool tires.
The safest approach would be to use large caliber streams to apply large amounts of water from a safe distance.
B Note: Fusible plugs are incorporated into the rims, designed to melt automatically deflating tires, which should reduce wheel collapse and fragmentation. If heated beyond limits, landing gear assemblies and tires may explode, sending debris and pieces out from the sides of the assembly. These pieces can travel with enough velocity to kill or severely injure a responding firefighter. These pieces can also travel with enough velocity to strike and puncture fuel cells located in the wings.
AUC 325 6.5.1, 6.5.3

Question 39

Question 39:
Engine 399 arrives as the first Engine on the second alarm to a top floor fire in a 6-story H-Type MD. The IC instructs the Lieutenant to stretch a 3rd hoseline to the top floor via the fire escape. In order to properly secure the hose during this fire escape stretch, how many hose straps are required?

A: 1

B: 2

C: 3

D: 4

Answer 39

Answer: A

Explanation:
THIS WAS A CHANGE WITH THE NEW ENGINE OPS. ONE HOSE STRAP ON THE FLOOR BELOW WILL EFFECTIVELY SECURE THE HOSE. ADDITIONAL HOSE STRAPS ARE NOT NECESSARY.

Engine Ops Ch 7 8.5

Question 40

Question 40:
During roll call, Engine 100 members began a discussion on specialized Engine Company equipment. In which choice was an incorrect comment made?

A: National Pipe threads (NPT) adapters can be differentiated by the length of the threaded coupling; National Pipe threads are shorter than FDNY or National Standard (NST) threads.

B: When supplied at 50 psi nozzle pressure, the Bresnan distributor will deliver 250 GPM of water. It is supplied with 2 ½” hose and a shut-off should be placed one length from the distributor.

C: To properly use the Bresnan distributor, it should be lowered into the fire area via an opening and the shut-off should be opened to begin water flow. The distributor is lowered until it hits the floor, then raised several feet to position for optimal distribution.

D: The ideal location on a length of hose to secure the hose strap is just below the coupling. This minimizes the likelihood of the hose slipping through the girth hitch, while also relieving pressure on the coupling.

Answer 40

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) National Pipe threads (NPT) adapters can be differentiated by the length of the threaded coupling; National Pipe threads are LONGER (DEEPER) than FDNY or National Standard (NST) threads.
Eng Ch 3 5.3, 10.3-10.5, 15.5