LT PKG EXAM #11

Question 1

Question 1:
Effective operations require proper pressures and flows in both hose lines and standpipes. Which of the following choices is not in accordance with Department guidelines?

A: For a 3 length stretch (2” lead length) from a standpipe in a residential building, supply 80 psi.

B: For a 3 length stretch (2 ½” lead length) from a standpipe in a commercial or residential building, supply 70 psi.

C: If additional lengths of hose are required for a standpipe stretch, the control firefighter should supply an additional 10 psi for every length of 2 ½” hose added.

D: If the hoseline will be stretched from further than 1 floor away, the control firefighter should supply an additional 5 psi for every additional floor of elevation needed.

Answer 1

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) If additional lengths of hose are required for a standpipe stretch, the control firefighter should supply an additional 5 PSI for every length of 2 ½” hose added.
A Note: This is for two lengths 2 ½” hose, one length 2” hose, nozzle with 1” tip.
B Note: This is for three lengths 2 ½” hose, nozzle with 1 1/8” tip.
Eng Ch 8 5.3, 5.4.5, 5.4.6

Question 2

Question 2:
The power removal box in an underground subway can be incorrectly described in which choice?

A: The power removal box is only to be used when there is immediate danger and power must be shut-off to save lives in imminent danger. All other times requests for power removal must be made via Fire Department Dispatcher

B: The power removal box will always be found under a blue light

C: Whenever a member activates the power removal box, train headlights will remain on

D: With the activation of the power removal box, the possibility of coasting trains must always be expected

Answer 2

Answer: B

Explanation:
The power removal box and emergency telephone will be located NEAR a blue light. Can be across from the blue light….Last Capts exam
AUC 207 p- 3

Question 3

Question 3:
Members approach their Lieutenant while getting the meal and inform her that another FDNY apparatus is parked out front and they’re not sure if its marked with the proper security decal. The officer asked if they checked the correct location which is where on the apparatus?

A: Front bumper

B: Rear bumper

C: Adjacent to passenger side door

D: Adjacent to driver side door

Answer 3

Answer: D

Explanation:
THIS BULLETIN WAS HIT ON 2021 CAPT EXAM

TB Apparatus C2 Addendum 2 Appendix D 3.1

Question 4

Question 4:
At a fireproof high rise multiple dwelling fire where the fire is confined to the stairwell, members should follow each of the following tactics except?

A: If, upon arrival at a stairwell door, there is a light smoke condition present, immediately close the door to the stairwell. Notify the IC of a smoke condition in the stairwell and identify the stairwell.

B: Proceed via the contaminated stairwell to search for the source of smoke, one floor at a time. Another unit can begin searching for the source of smoke from the lower floors upward, one floor at a time, using the clear stairwell.

C: The roof firefighter shall proceed to the roof via the clear stairwell and vent the contaminated stair bulkhead from the roof. If flammable paint in the stairwell ignites, this will give it a place to vent and possibly prevent horizontal extension on any upper floors.

D: When the source of smoke has been located, approach and extinguishment shall be made from the floor below, with either a can or a handline, based on the volume of burning material.

Answer 4

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) Proceed via the CLEAR stairwell to search for the source of smoke, one floor at a time. Another unit can begin searching for the source of smoke from the lower floors upward, one floor at a time, using the CONTAMINATED stairwell.
Note: Due to the flammability of the paint, under no circumstances shall members operate above the smoke in the involved stairwell, until complete extinguishment of the burning material has been accomplished.
Variation: In a low rise fireproof multiple dwelling with only one stairwell, once it has been ascertained that the cause of the upper floor smoke condition is from the stairwell fire, the search shall be conducted from the lower floors upward.
MD Ch 6

Question 5

Question 5:
Store fires in Old Law Tenements may challenge even the most experienced engine officers. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: The first hose line should be stretched to the store and a second hose line stretched to the entrance hallway.

B: A 2 1/2” hose line is required for fires in commercial occupancies of Old Law Tenements.

C: When assured that the second line is not needed on the first floor, it may be advanced to the floor above the fire.

D: A charged hoseline must be ready before the store is ventilated. It is especially important that no plate glass windows be broken without a charged line being ready.

Answer 5

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) Depending on the size of the fire area and the fire conditions encountered, the use of a 2 ½” hoseline may be CONSIDERED. However, a 1 ¾” hoseline may be MORE APPROPRIATE for fires in smaller commercial occupancies common in Old Law Tenements.
Note: Fires in stores may extend to the upper floors by auto-exposure or via openings in the store ceilings. These store ceilings were usually constructed of metal panels. The metal ceiling can communicate heat to the floor above.
MD Ch 1 3.3.1-3.3.3

Question 6

Question 6:
The incorrect engine operation during the winter months can be found in which choice?

A: Where conditions do not permit the engine apparatus to the scene, rolled or folded lengths of hose must be carried to the scene. Use of a portable ladder or tarpaulin as a sleigh to haul hose and equipment should be considered

B: In the interest of getting fast water on a fire, a direct hook-up to the hydrant is permissible initially. When this is done, a two-way gate shall be connected to the hydrant

C: Consideration should be given to backing the engine apparatus into streets for greater traction, ease of hose stretch, and simpler towing and removal if snowbound.

D: At large fires with limited street accessibility, the use of the mini-manifold carried by all battalion and division vehicles has been found to be very effective in fast hoseline stretches

Answer 6

Answer: D

Explanation:
At large fires with limited street accessibility, the use of the mini-manifold carried by all Satellite Units, and stretching of Satellite hose to supply engine company apparatus on maneuverable avenues has been found to be very effective
AUC 200 sec 5.3.10.E

Question 7

Question 7:
When operating at a compactor chute fire which member(s) of the ladder company operates with the engine to provide access to the chute and check for extension?

A: Roof FF

B: LCC

C: OV FF

D: Officer & inside team

Answer 7

Answer: C

Explanation:
A. Roof FF generally proceeds to the roof.

B. The LCC duties will vary and will generally be directed by the officer to provide special tools in the compactor room or assist in search and venting etc.

D. The officer and inside team will operate in the compactor room.

TB Fires 7 8.2

Question 8

Question 8:
An After-Action Review is being held following a fire in a street transformer that eventually extended into an electrical room in the subcellar of a High-Rise building. Below are some of the codes used and decisions made during the operation are listed below. Which choice is CORRECT?
1 – 10-25 Code 1 was transmitted for the transformer fire extending into the building.
**2 – 10-45 Code3 was transmitted for 3 Orange tag workers removed from the cellar.
**3 – 10-37 Code 3 was transmitted for 2 civilians that were injured tripping over hoseline on the sidewalk.
**4 – 10-35 Code 4 was transmitted for an alarm activation in an adjoining building because of the smoke condition.
***5 – 10-29 Code 1 was transmitted for a pair of occupied stalled elevators in another adjoining building.

A: 1, 2, & 5 Only

B: 1, 2, & 4 Only

C: 2, 4, & 5 Only

D: 1, 3, & 5 Only

Answer 8

Answer: A

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL CHAPTER 8
A IS CORRECT – 1,2,& 5 Only 25-1 transmitted for a manhole, conduit, transformer that extends into the building.
1045 code 3 = Orange/Yellow tag patients
1037 only used for Medical Assignment Not Associated with Fire Operations – This was a fire Operation.
1035 Codes 1-4 (DO NOT use this code when there is a fire or other condition warranting an emergency response) This was a fire Operation.
1029 Code 1 used for Occupied Elevators.

Question 9

Question 9:
Be able to “read” smoke is a carefully acquired skill. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: The volume of smoke may indicate the size, location and stage of the fire within a structure.

B: Smoke velocity is an indicator of pressure that has built up within a structure.

C: Turbulent Smoke indicates extreme heat (closer to the fire).

D: Laminar Smoke indicates high heat or smoke that is close to the fire.

Answer 9

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) Laminar Smoke indicates LOW heat (either because it is a small fire, or the smoke is REMOTE from the fire and has cooled).
A Note: However, the volume of smoke may not always be visible and can be concealed by various building configurations.
B Note: The pressure is developed by buoyancy and expansion due to the amount of heat released by the fire.
C and D Note: Smoke flow can be either laminar (smooth) or turbulent based on the velocity and temperature. Cooler smoke appears to flow smoother. Hotter smoke will appear to boil and move quickly upwards in a turbulent fashion.
TB FD Ch 2 3.5.1, 3.5.2

Question 10

Question 10:
When relocated to another quarters near the change of tours you must notify the dispatcher that relief will or may be required. This notification shall be made at what time?

A: 0800 or 1700 hours

B: 0830 or 1730 hours

C: 0845 or 1745 hours

D: 0900 or 1800 hours

Answer 10

Answer: A

Explanation:
AUC 217 sec 4.1

Question 11

Question 11:
Main valves are usually not present on _____ pressure gas systems. Stopping the flow of gas will require the street mains to be excavated and stoppers installed, which may take several hours.

A: Low

B: Low and medium

C: Medium and high

D: High

Answer 11

Answer: A

Explanation:
Natural Gas 6.7.3 #7 (Pg 26)

Question 12

Question 12:
Which of the following choices contains incorrect information regarding traditional ladder company operations?

A: All ladder companies shall have a riding list posted conspicuously on the apparatus floor assigning positions and/or tools. This is in addition to the required riding list on the apparatus and in the officer’s possession.

B: Upon the receipt of an alarm, the information received shall be conveyed to all members. How the unit is assigned on the box, the address, apartment number and floor, type of dwelling, occupied or vacant. This information is vital to the size-up of the members responding.

C: Any additional information including CIDS or that which is received while responding (such as persons trapped or instructions to have apparatus enter from a specific direction) must be relayed to all members.

D: When two ladder companies arrive at approximately the same time but out of response sequence, they shall be guided by their order of arrival.

Answer 12

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) When two ladder companies arrive at approximately the same time but out of response sequence, they shall be guided by their ALARM BOX ASSIGNMENT. The second due unit shall make no extraordinary effort to arrive at the location before the first due unit.
A Note: All riding lists are generally prepared and predicated on the 1.”level of experience and training” of the members working, 2.their experience in the “type of occupancies to which the unit responds the GREATEST NUMBER OF TIMES” and 3.where the “greatest life hazard” exists.
Lad 3 2.2-2.4

Question 13

Question 13:
Engine officers should be aware of the capabilities of building fire pumps in high rise office buildings. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: The building fire pumps shall be capable of delivering their rated capacity at a pressure of 50 psi at the highest floor hose outlet.

B: A relief valve is required at the fire pump limiting the pressure to 25 psi above that required to deliver its rated capacity at the highest floor outlet.

C: The primary water supply to the standpipe system in many buildings is a gravity tank. In many instances, there will be inadequate head pressures supplied to the uppermost floor hose outlets supplied by that gravity tank.

D: Pump capacity is usually 750 gpm. Most high-rise buildings have two pumps side by side which are connected in the parallel position.

Answer 13

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) A relief valve is required at the fire pump limiting the pressure to 15 PSI above that required to deliver its rated capacity at the highest floor outlet.
A & B Note: Because of this, the building fire pump may not be capable of supplying adequate nozzle pressure to hoselines at the upper floors.
C Note: For these reasons, the primary water supply for firefighting in most operations shall be the Fire Department Engines.
HROB 4.1.8 C, 4.2.1-4.2.3

Question 14

Question 14:
If a vent pipe placed over a manhole has a _____ stripe on ____ of it, this indicates that the steam is the result of a water leak, not a leaking steam main.

A: green; top

B: green; bottom

C: blue; top

D: blue; bottom

Answer 14

Answer: C

Explanation:
Steam 4.3

Question 15

Question 15:
Which SCBA policy is incorrect?

A: When a Company Officer receives notification that one of his members is running low on air, the Company officer must accompany that FF to a safe area

B: Members operating in smoke or toxic atmospheres should not remove SCBA regulator except: 1- If the member cylinder becomes depleted. 2- If the member’s SCBA is malfunctioning so as to cut off the air supply

C: Facepiece sharing with other members and/or civilians is prohibited in all circumstances

D: If unable to remove a trapped civilian in a timely fashion, then you can supply air to the civilian using a FAST Pak other than the FAST Unit’s FASK Pak or a spare SCBA

Answer 15

Answer: A

Explanation:
Company Officers receiving notification where a member’s cylinder becomes depleted or the SCBA is malfunctioning, the member must leave the contaminated area immediately and be accompanied to a safe area by another member
AUC 220

Question 16

Question 16:
All members should be well versed in the operation of the EFAS System. Which of the following is CORRECT about Emergency Alert activations and mayday transmissions?

A: In a vehicle with EFAS capability, A member transmitting a verbal mayday will automatically be highlighted in Red in the EFAS.

B: If a vehicle with EFAS capability is within HT range of a member transmitting a verbal mayday, the MDT will automatically switch from Starfire to EFAS.

C: In a vehicle with EFAS capability, an EAB activation will produce a hard copy print showing the company, position, name, and time of Mayday.

D: In a vehicle with EFAS capability, an EAB activation will cause the company, position, and name to be listed in red in both the radio status & Emergency Alerts/Mayday areas of the MDT.

Answer 16

Answer: D

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 9 ADDENDUM 3
D IS CORRECT – 5.1.1
A & B – EMERGENCY ALERT BUTTON ACTIVATION – Verbal maydays must be manually entered. 5.1.1 note.
C – Company, Position, & Time – member’s name is not displayed on the apparatus printout. 5.1.2 & figure 6.

Question 17

Question 17:
Two members discussing private dwellings of lightweight construction had to be corrected by the officer, who knew which one statement made was the only correct comment?

A: For fires in “traditional” private dwellings built of ordinary/wood frame construction, early collapse is always a primary consideration.

B: In “traditional” private dwellings built of ordinary/wood frame construction, depending on the duration and intensity of fire, the size of the structural components, and the type of construction involved, the amount of time before collapse occurs is generally estimated to be two hours.

C: In “traditional” private dwellings built of ordinary/wood frame construction, when there is no ceiling to provide protection, therefore exposing structural components during a fire, failure can occur within 20 minutes.

D: In private dwellings constructed with lightweight materials, when fire extends from the building’s contents to its structural components, collapse may occur within 10 to 15 minutes.

Answer 17

Answer: C

Explanation:
A) For fires in “traditional” private dwellings built of ordinary/wood frame construction, early collapse is NOT a primary consideration.
B) In “traditional” private dwellings built of ordinary/wood frame construction, depending on the duration and intensity of fire, the size of the structural components, and the type of construction involved, the amount of time before collapse occurs is generally estimated to be AN HOUR.
In private dwellings constructed with lightweight materials, when fire extends from the building’s contents to its structural components, collapse may occur within 5 TO 10 MINUTES.
D Note: Collapse in lightweight structures can occur suddenly, and with little or no warning signs. Collapse is ALWAYS the primary consideration in buildings constructed with lightweight materials.
PD Ch 6 1.6, 1.7

Question 18

Question 18:
You are taking up from a minor fire in a commercial occupancy when the chief hands you a padlock lock to safeguard the premises. Upon return to quarters, you need to take several actions according to the “Safeguarding Property” policy. Choose the incorrect action.

A: Place key in company office in a secure area

B: Notify the dispatcher of securing the premises, for entry on his/her Secured premises List

C: Upon receipt of instructions from the dispatcher that the owner or appropriate person is at the premises, the company shall respond to the premises as soon as practicable

D: Upon arriving back to the premises, the officer shall secure positive identification of the person desiring entry, and have the appropriate receipt signed and have padlock removed

Answer 18

Answer: A

Explanation:
Key shall be put in a secure place on the apparatus selected by the Officer on duty
AUC 231 sec 4.2

Question 19

Question 19:
When a valid DNR order is presented to members on a CFR run which protocol is incorrect?

A: Relief of choking by removing a foreign body is appropriate, and if breathing has stopped ventilation shall be assisted.

B: If a valid DNR order is presented after resuscitative efforts have been initiated, discontinue resuscitative efforts.

C: A DNR order shall be disregarded and full resuscitative efforts shall be initiated if the patient is unable to state his/her desire and a family member is present and requests resuscitative measures for the patient and a confrontational situation is likely to result if the request is denied.

D: If a patient is not in cardiac or respiratory arrest, full treatment for all injuries, pain, difficult or insufficient breathing, hemorrhage and/or medical conditions must be provided.

Answer 19

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. Relief of choking by removing a foreign body is appropriate, BUT if breathing has stopped, ventilation SHALL NOT be assisted.

DNR RELATED QUESTIONS ARE COMMONLY HIT INCLUDING THE MOST RECENT CAPT EXAM.

CFR CH 2 ADD 1 4.2, 4.3, 4.4, 4.6

Question 20

Question 20:
In order of highest to least priority, first alarm engine companies are to take which actions at the scene of a structural collapse?
1. Protect exposures.
2. Extinguish burning vehicles within the vicinity of the collapse.
3. Extinguish active fire in the affected building and surrounding debris.

A: 1,2,3

B: 2,3,1

C: 3,2,1

D: 3,1,2

Answer 20

Answer: D

Explanation:
1. Extinguish active fire in the affected building and surrounding debris.
2. Protect exposures.
3. Extinguish burning vehicles within the vicinity of the collapse.
Note: At scenes where there is no active fire, stretch and charge precautionary 2½” lines in sufficient number and length to cover the entire operation. In addition, a 3½” line shall be stretched and charged to supply the first arriving tower ladder.
Note: At a suspected terrorist event, 2½” hoselines should be located between two apparatus, or other substantial shielding, to protect personnel from secondary blasts set to injure emergency responders.
Note: If flooding occurs, shutting off the water mains and obtaining dewatering pumps will aid victims trapped in the lower areas.
Collapse 7.1

Question 21

Question 21:
Which of the following is an incorrect feature of flooring found in Mill Lofts?

A: Heavy timber floors consist of plank floors, 3 inches thick, laid directly onto beams and girders which are a minimum of 6-inches in any dimension.

B: The underside of the floors are normally left exposed.

C: Girders resting atop wooden or cast-iron columns are sometimes joined together using metal brackets (dog-irons) on both sides, providing marginal enhanced stability.

D: A general rule of thumb for the run of original hardwood finished flooring is from the side to side of the building. A firefighter lost on a floor can utilize this knowledge to find a means of egress.

Answer 21

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) A general rule of thumb for the run of original hardwood finished flooring is from the FRONT to REAR of the building. A firefighter lost on a floor can utilize this knowledge to find a FRONT or REAR means of egress. *This is an important point!
A Note: These floors were covered with three layers of resin sized building paper, mopped with tar and topped with a 1 ¼ inch, hard wood finished floor. Total floor thickness averages at least 4 inches.
Note: Cutting and opening these floors to facilitate the placement and operation of cellar pipes and distributors will be manpower intensive.
Lofts 5.3.3

Question 22

Question 22:
Which ladder company operation at a fire in a place of worship is described incorrectly?

A: When fire is found to involve the truss space, exterior operations should be the primary tactical consideration.

B: Consider the use of search ropes due to the large floor areas of these structures.

C: Venting the Rose window will always provide adequate ventilation of the large vaulted spaces.

D: Member shall use the thermal imaging camera from below to asses when the fire has involved the truss space.

Answer 22

Answer: C

Explanation:
C. Venting the Rose window MAY NOT provide adequate ventilation of the large vaulted spaces.

Places of Worship 7.1.2, 7.1.3, 7.1.5, 7.2.1

Question 23

Question 23:
You just discovered that members under your command are drinking alcohol in the firehouse. From your study days you remember the following actions must be enacted. Choose the incorrect action.

A: Prohibit on and off-duty members at the time of discovery from leaving the firehouse

B: Immediately relieve the on-duty member(s) from emergency response duty, and have unit placed OOS

C: Notify the administrative battalion chief

D: Notify the IG

E: Document the incident in the company journal

Answer 23

Answer: D

Explanation:
Notify Bureau of Investigations and Trails (BITS)
AUC 202 sec 5.5

Question 24

Question 24:
Engine 244 goes out on a single unit Class E response for an alarm activation in a commercial building. Upon arrival they receive information that indicates there may be a fire on an upper floor. The box is filled out with Engine 256, Engine 269, Ladder 171, Ladder 177 and Battalion 70. It is determined that the building has an ARCS system which will need to be activated to enable communications. Which officer ensures notification is made to the Dispatcher for re-transmittal to all incoming units if the proprietary repeater system has been activated?

A: First Engine Officer

B: Second Engine Officer

C: First Ladder Officer

D: Second Ladder Officer

Answer 24

Answer: C

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 13 – ARCS
C IS CORRECT – 3.2.1 5
Officer will ensure notification is made to Dispatcher for re-transmittal to all incoming units if the proprietary repeater system has been activated.
1st arriving BC must ensure dispatcher is notified anytime an ARCS system (simplex or duplex) is activated sec 3.1.2

Question 25

Question 25:
The original layout of the interior rooms of a Brownstone are described below. Which description is incorrect?

A: The first floor (basement) was composed of a kitchen in the rear with a dining room in the front, and an interior stairway to the second floor (parlor) and cellar. There is also a large closet.

B: The second floor (parlor) is the only floor with two means of egress to the outside.

C: The second floor (parlor) contained the front and rear parlor rooms, a hall, bedroom in the rear and the main entrance to the building.

D: The third and fourth floors contained two bedrooms each, with hall rooms in the front and the rear, off the stairway. These may have been bedrooms or bathrooms.

Answer 25

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) The FIRST FLOOR (BASEMENT) is the only floor with two means of egress to the outside.
BS/RF 2.1.2

Question 26

Question 26:
When standing by at an incident involving a suspicious or confirmed explosive device, the minimum standoff distance for a cell phone or a handie talkie to be used can be correctly found in which choice?

A: 50 feet

B: 100 feet

C: 150 feet

D: 200 feet

Answer 26

Answer: C

Explanation:
300 feet for apparatus. Post, and Marine radios
ERP add 3 sec 4.1.1
QUEENS PACKAGE

Question 27

Question 27:
The drag rescue device incorporated into the bunker coat can be used for which type(s) of removal?

A: Horizontal drag only

B: Horizontal drag; vertical lift or dragging up stairs

C: Vertical lift only

D: Vertical lift or dragging up stairs

Answer 27

Answer: A

Explanation:
THERE IS A CONFLICT ABOUT DRAGGING UP STAIRS. MMID CH 3 ADD 2 2.1 “NOTE” SAYS MEMBER SHOULD NOT BE DRAGGED UP STAIRS UTILIZING THE DRD. MMID CH 3 ADD 4 2.3 SAYS AFTER THE DRD IS SECURED AROUND THE RIGHT SHOULDER STRAP OF THE SCBA IT CAN BE USED TO MOVE MEMBERS UP OR DOWN STAIRS.

“A” WAS STILL THE ONLY GOOD CHOICE, THE DRD CANNOT BE USED FOR VERTICAL LIFTS. JUST BE AWARE OF THIS CONFLICT.

Managing Member in Distress Ch 3 Addendum 2 2.1

Question 28

Question 28:
Tower ladder bucket operations should not be taken for granted and require careful control. Of the following choices, which is correct?

A: Due to lack of space, the number of firefighters operating in the bucket should be limited to three.

B: Each member operating in a Tower Ladder bucket must personally verify the placement of both door latches in the locked position prior to movement and ensure proper use of the installed safety belt or life belt/personal harness secured to a substantial part of the bucket prior to raising the boom from a bedded position.

C: Bucket railings are a substantial part of the bucket and may be used as a substantial object when tying off.

D: Under normal conditions the member on the pedestal should control movement of the bucket. However, the member operating from an elevated position should take over when delicate maneuvers are required.

Answer 28

Answer: B

Explanation:
B
B Note: A substantial part of the bucket includes “one of the bucket posts” or the “waterway.”
A) Due to lack of space, the number of firefighters operating in the bucket should be limited to TWO.
C)Bucket railings are NOT a substantial part of the bucket and shall NOT be used as a substantial object when tying off.
D) Under normal conditions the MEMBER OPERATING from an ELEVATED position should control movement of the bucket. However, the MEMBER on the PEDESTAL should take over when DELICATE MANEUVERS are required, as long as this member’s line of sight is not obstructed.
TL Ch 1 1.3

Question 29

Question 29:
Ice accumulations on an unsupported aerial ladder under certain conditions may lead to twisting and possible collapse of the ladder. Which of the following choices is not in accordance with Department policy?

A: When ice prevents the chauffeur from raising the aerial ladder away from a building, the hydraulic mechanism may be assisted by placing a portable ladder under the extended ladder and using a number of members to exert additional pressure.

B: At a high ladder angle, in addition to using a portable ladder under the extended aerial ladder, consider exerting additional pressure with the life saving rope. The rope is tied near the tip of the ladder and members on the roof or in the window of a building across the street pull the rope taut in order to assist the hydraulic power.

C: When ice prevents retraction of ladder sections, care must be exercised to avoid damaging the rungs or weakening the cables. A heavy coating of prescribed lubricant will inhibit the formation of ice at critical points and will also facilitate deicing.

D: In sub-freezing temperatures, drain ladder pipes, hose, piping, siamese connections, etc., as soon as the stream is shut down.

Answer 29

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) At a high ladder angle, in addition to using a portable ladder under the extended aerial ladder, consider exerting additional pressure with a UTILITY ROPE. The rope is tied near the tip of the ladder and members on the roof or in the window of a building across the street pull the rope taut in order to assist the hydraulic power.
A Note: Care must be taken to avoid injury to the members or damage to either ladder.
Lad 2 8.19.1 - 8.19.5

Question 30

Question 30:
There are general procedures units must follow when operating at an incident involving a detonated explosive device. Choose the incorrect procedure.

A: Transmit a preliminary report describing the scene, number of victims, resources required and possible location of the ICP. Consider transmitting a 10-60 with the appropriate code

B: Members should don the appropriate PPE, including a SCBA with facepiece donned in all circumstances

C: Request NYPD to search all areas for additional explosive devices. FDNY never searches for explosive devices

D: Units shall bring skeds, meters, and CFR equipment to the Point of Impact area and to the Triage Transfer Point

Answer 30

Answer: B

Explanation:
Wearing the facepiece could inhibit vision at this type of operation……Members should NOT don their facepieces unless there are indications of respiratory danger based on victim reaction (SLUDGEM) or meter readings.
ERP add 3 p-9-10

Question 31

Question 31:
Which choice detailing the features of the Altair digital gas meter is incorrect?

A: Although the meter is capable of detecting other combustible gases, the displayed readings will not be accurate. For this reason, the meter should not be used to detect gases other than natural gas.

B: Before turning the meter on, the member must be in an area free of contamination.

C: When the meter is powered on it will run through a self-check test which takes approximately 40 seconds.

D: During the self-test if the display reads “FAS” the meter has malfunctioned and must be placed out of service.

Answer 31

Answer: D

Explanation:
D. During the self-test ONE screen WILL DISPLAY “FAS” PROMPTING THE USER TO PERFORM A “FRESH AIR SETUP”. PRESS THE POWER BUTTON AGAIN TO PERFORM THE FAS (ENSURE THE METER IS IN AN AREA FREE OF CONTAMINATION). THE FAS IS USED TO “ZERO” THE LEL SENSOR TO AMBIENT AIR. NOT PERFORMING THE FAS MAY AFFECT THE ACCURACY OF METER READINGS.

Natural Gas Addendum 2 1.2, 2.1, 2.2

Question 32

Question 32:
Which of the following statements is correct regarding portable ladders?

A: If another apparatus arriving at a fire or emergency is positioned closer than 20 feet to the rear of the ladder apparatus, the 20 foot straight or the 35 foot extension ladder cannot be removed from these racks due to insufficient clearance.

B: If another apparatus arriving at a fire or emergency is positioned closer than 30 feet to the rear of the ladder apparatus, the 20 foot straight or the 35 foot extension ladder cannot be removed from these racks due to insufficient clearance.

C: If another apparatus arriving at a fire or emergency is positioned closer than 22 feet to the rear of the ladder apparatus, the 20 foot straight or the 35 foot extension ladder cannot be removed from these racks due to insufficient clearance.

D: If another apparatus arriving at a fire or emergency is positioned closer than 20 feet to the rear of the ladder apparatus, the 12 foot straight or the 20 foot extension ladder cannot be removed from these racks due to insufficient clearance.

Answer 32

Answer: A

Explanation:
20 foot straight and/or 35 foot extension ladders are carried in the internal slide-in racks on ladder company apparatus. If another apparatus arriving at a fire or emergency is positioned closer than 20 feet to the rear of the ladder apparatus, the 20 foot straight or the 35 foot extension ladder cannot be removed from these racks due to insufficient clearance.
Lad 1 7.1

Question 33

Question 33:
All officers should be familiar with proper line placement for fires in Old Law and New Law nonfireproof tenements. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: The first line stretched for a fire in a multiple dwelling should be stretched by way of the interior stairs.

B: The door to the fire apartment must not be opened while people are coming down the stairway from the floors above. When the safety of the stairway is assured, this first line may be advanced to extinguish the fire.

C: The second hoseline is usually stretched by way of the interior stairs to the same floor as the first line. It is meant to augment the first line, if necessary; however, if not needed on the original fire floor, it is then advanced to the floor above.

D: The third hoseline is usually stretched by way of the interior stairs to the floor above if the second line is augmenting the first line; however, if the second hoseline has advanced to the floor above, this line may augment the first hose line.

Answer 33

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) The third line in the building should usually be stretched VIA THE FIRE ESCAPE OR ROPE STRETCH VIA A WINDOW. This is especially true in Old Law Tenements because the stairway is narrow and the stretching of a third line via the interior stairs would result in congestion and inability to move any of the hoselines.
A Note: This positioning allows the first line to safeguard the stairway so that it can be used by the escaping occupants.
MD Ch 1 2.2.11

Question 34

Question 34:
When operating at wires down in the street units shall stretch a line with a fog nozzle and use distance as a safety factor keeping at least how many feet away from any downed wire while operating this handline?

A: 10

B: 15

C: 25

D: 50

Answer 34

Answer: C

Explanation:
CROSS REF AUC 180 AND AUC 180 ADDENDUM 2 8.4

WHILE OPERATING WATER INTO A MANHOLE, VAULT OR SERVICE BOX MAINTAIN A DISTANCE OF AT LEAST 25 FT FROM THE NOZZLE TO THE MANHOLE, VAULT OR SERVICE BOX.

FIRE ICE: COMMENCE OPERATIONS AT STANDOFF DISTANCE OF 50 FT AND WHEN ADVANCING MAINTAIN 25 FT

TB Emergencies 3 8.2

Question 35

Question 35:
There are several procedures you must follow when operating at a possible chemical suicide inside of a vehicle. Choose the incorrect procedure.

A: Stretch a charged hoseline with a fog nozzle attached. This line is primarily for fire suppression in case of ignition or explosion

B: Ventilate the vehicle prior to entering

C: Avoid disturbing the container, generally found in a bucket, as it may increase chemical mixing and poisonous gas emissions

D: Once removed from vehicle, remove victims clothing and flush with copious amounts of water as a part of emergency decon before transport

Answer 35

Answer: A

Explanation:
This line is primarily for DECON…..the line can also be used for vapor dispersal and fire suppression in case of ignition or explosion
Haz-Mat 11 sec 4.1

Question 36

Question 36:
The control firefighter carries the standpipe kit, which is “required” to include each of the following items except?

A: Spanner wrenches

B: 2 ½” nozzle with 1 1/8” MST

C: 1 ½” to 2 ½” increaser

D: Spare operating wheel

Answer 36

Answer: D

Explanation:
This is an update!
The following are REQUIRED to be in the standpipe kit.
Acronym: SNAP CGI
Spanner wrenches
Nozzle 2 1/2” with 1 1/8” MST
Adapters (National Standard thread and/or National Pipe thread to FDNY thread)
Pipe wrench (18 inch)
Chocks
Gauge (2 ½” in-line pressure)
Increaser (1 ½” to 2 ½”)
The following equipment MAY be included in the standpipe kit as deemed beneficial by the Company Commander, but are NOT required.
Acronym: MOS VFW
Mallet
Operating wheels (spare)
Single gate
Vise grips
Fog tip
Wire brush
Eng Ch 8 6.1-6.3

Question 37

Question 37:
Which choice below is CORRECT regarding the use of a Base Station Leaky Cable Simplex UHF or VHF Radio System?

A: It is s simplex radio that can operate on FDNY UHF HT channels 1-16 (FDNY Programmed), or it may utilize in-house radios.

B: Transmissions captured by the cable are received by the base station radio and retransmitted throughout the building on the repeater channel.

C: Important messages that need to be heard by all members should be retransmitted at the base station radio by the member monitoring transmissions.

D: Base Station Leaky Cable Simplex UHF or VHF Radio Systems are operated by a separate key available at the Command Station.

Answer 37

Answer: C

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 13 – ARCS
C IS CORRECT – 2.2 NOTE
A – Channels 1-8 2.2
B – Are not automatically re-transmitted. – 2.2
D – All of these systems are Operated by a 1620 Key – In Example

Question 38

Question 38:
You are first to arrive for smoke in a subway station. After an investigation you discover there is a small rubbish fire under the platform. Before extinguishment operations commence, you make sure of all of the following procedures are adhered to. Choose the incorrect procedure.

A: Power is removed

B: Confirmation of power removal must be by FDNY dispatcher

C: Post one member at the end of platform that the train is expected to travel from to act as a safety person

D: An alternate area of refuge is assured in case of train movement

Answer 38

Answer: C

Explanation:
Members are posted at EACH END of platform to act as safety people
AUC 207 sec 5.3

Question 39

Question 39:
As Class E & J alarms make their way into more buildings as the construction boom continues, companies and officers of all ranks must be aware of operations when responding to these boxes. Chief Sponge was discussing responsibilities with an engine and truck in his battalion and made the following statements. Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding company operations?

A: Engine and Ladder Company Chauffeurs remain in the apparatus to monitor the department radio and HT transmissions.

B: The officer shall remain at the alarm panel for approximately 1-2 minutes following reset to make sure the reset holds.

C: Engine Companies respond into the lobby with forcible entry tools leaving roll-ups behind on the apparatus.

D: Ladder Companies respond into the lobby carrying their normal complement of tools.

Answer 39

Answer: B

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS CHAPTER 6 ADDENDUM 2
A,C,D are correct as written Section 3.2, 3.3
B is incorrect – 2-3 minutes 3.4…

Question 40

Question 40:
Members responded to a reported fire in a high rise office building with several elevator banks. After determining the “B” bank provided the best access to the fire area, units initiated a phase 1 recall of the fireman service elevators in this bank. Which one choice describes a correct result of this action?

A: All elevators in the building will be returned to the street lobby or terminal floor.

B: The “emergency stop” buttons will be rendered inoperative.

C: An elevator traveling away from the street floor or from its lowest landing will immediately reverse direction.

D: All door reopening devices for power operated doors shall be rendered inoperative.

Answer 40

Answer: B

Explanation:
A. All elevators IN THAT BANK will be returned to the street lobby or terminal floor.

C. An elevator traveling away from the street floor or from its lowest landing will REVERSE DIRECTION AT THE NEXT LANDING WITHOUT OPENING ITS DOORS, AND RETURN NON-STOP TO THE STREET LOBBY OR TERMINAL FLOOR.

D. All door reopening devices for power operated doors shall be rendered inoperative EXCEPT FOR THOSE MECHANICALLY ACTIVATED BY A SAFETY EDGE.

TB Emergencies 1 5.3.1 D