LT PKG EXAM #22

Question 1

Question 1:
Which of the following choices represents the INCORRECT use of the 10-41 Code?

A: A 10-41 Code 1 is transmitted for fire in a vacant apartment in an occupied building.

B: A 10-41 Code 2 is transmitted for fire in a coffee shop in a taxpayer that was closed for the night.

C: A 10-41 Code 3 is transmitted for fire in a car which was unoccupied and parked in front of a residence.

D: A 10-41 Code 4 is transmitted for fire in an occupied shed in the rear of a private dwelling.

Answer 1

Answer: D

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 8 – RADIO COMMUNICATIONS
D IS INCORRECT – 1041 CODE 1 – includes a vacant apartment in an occupied building, or a store with a dwelling above, or an occupied detached garage, shed or similar structure.
C – Unoccupied vehicle with or without plates
B – A structure that is normally occupied that is unoccupied at the time of the fire.

Question 2

Question 2:
Subway station entrances that had been open part-time are now open full time (Green Globe) due to the installation of High Exit Entry Turnstiles (HEETs). From the choices listed below, which one correctly describes the item that would be found adjacent to the HEET?

A: Emergency Evacuation Device (EED)

B: Blue Light

C: Dry Chemical extinguisher

D: A gate with a Fire Department 1620 lock

Answer 2

Answer: D

Explanation:
At HEET locations a Fire Department 1620 lock (designated with a red cylinder or red faceplate) has been installed on the gate that is adjacent to the HEET in the fare area. This will allow access to the system. Any unit that finds a gate at one of these entrances without a FD 1620 lock shall forward a report through the chain off command to the PTSU. Bureau of Operations…….AUC 207 add 3 sec 4
Blue light found in the track area. Near the Blue Light there is a power removal box, phone, and a dry chemical fire extinguisher (located approximately 600 feet apart) ….AUC 207 sec 8.1, 8.4
Emergency Evacuation Device (EED) at underground stations is located at the first Blue Light south of the southbound platform (typically within 50 feet of the platform end. At elevated stations the EED is found in the area of the full time token booth….AUC 207 add 11 sec 3

Question 3

Question 3:
Units operating at several gas emergencies and encountered the following conditions: 1) 20% LEL outside; 2) 10% LEL in an unvented subsurface structure; 3) 9% LEL at two subsurface structures; 4) Serious damage to a Master Meter serving many appliances. Which of these is indicative of a Major Gas Emergency?

A: 1, 2, 3 only

B: 1, 3, 4 only

C: 3, 4 only

D: 2, 3, 4 only

Answer 3

Answer: B

Explanation:
2. 20% LEL or greater in an unvented subsurface structure

Note #3: Gas present in two or more subsurface structures is indicative of a major gas emergency.

The amount of gas doesn’t matter when its two or more subsurface structures.

Natural Gas 5.0

Question 4

Question 4:
When an Engine Company loses water in their hoseline while operating, certain actions must be taken. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: The Engine Officer should transmit an URGENT message via handie-talkie. This will alert the entire fireground of the emergency.

B: The Incident Commander must initiate action to remedy the situation.

C: It is important for the Engine Officer to coordinate with the ECC to identify the problem and correct it as soon as possible.

D: Shutting the water supply to the hoseline should be avoided, if possible.

Answer 4

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) The ENGINE OFFICER must initiate action to remedy the situation.
Once the problem is accurately identified, there may be corrective action that can be taken that would not require the water supply to the hoseline to be shut down.
Eng Ch 10 3.1, 3.2

Question 5

Question 5:
Certain criteria have to be met in order to remove a facility from the CFRD response matrix. Which of the following is INCORRECT?

A: The specific floors being requested for removal in the building must be CFR Hold Eligible. This must be included in the transmitted data section of the request.

B: The facility must be operational 24/7

C: On duty personnel are trained in the use of the defibrillator, and all the necessary equipment is available to the trained personnel.

D: On duty personnel are trained in CPR and are able to provide oxygen to the patient.

Answer 5

Answer: A

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 4 – ADDENDUM 1
A IS INCORRECT – The facility must be CFR Hold Eligible on all floors of the building’s address. 2.1
A, B, C – 2.1

Question 6

Question 6:
You are the officer where a reserve apparatus is stored. Upon return of the reserve apparatus that was used for a staged event, you compared the outstanding RT-2 with the tools and equipment being returned, and discovered several tools to be missing. Following the discovery of missing tools, you took several actions. Which action is incorrect?

A: You filled out and forwarded a Lost Property Report for the missing tools

B: You filled out and forwarded a report to the Chief of Department documenting the missing items and explaining the circumstances of the loss

C: You notified the administrative battalion chief

D: You recorded the particulars in the company journal

Answer 6

Answer: A

Explanation:
The officer who was in charge of the apparatus, while it was out of storage, is responsible for the preparation and forwarding of the Lost Property Report
AUC 259 sec 7.5.4

Question 7

Question 7:
The Purple K Unit is a completely self-contained firefighting unit. The Purple K is contained in a sphere and is expelled by two pressurized nitrogen cylinders. Several operating procedures associated with Purple K are outlined below. Which one is incorrect?

A: Start the attack about 20-30 feet from the fire, wind at your back, and use a side to side sweeping motion.

B: A straight stream may be used as a shield to allow a safer approach to leaking valves.

C: Continue discharging the chemical agent well after all fire is extinguished.

D: The Purple K truck mounted system will last less then 2 minutes.

Answer 7

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. A FOG STREAM may be used as a shield to allow a safer approach to leaking valves.

TB Purple K Addendum 1 1.3.3, 1.3.5, 1.3.8, 1.3.9

Question 8

Question 8:
“Ventilation for Extinguishment” in a nonfireproof multiple dwelling (tenement) facilitates the Engine Company’s extinguishment of the fire. However, this tactic requires strict timing and coordination. Of the following choices, which is not in accordance with Department policy?

A: This tactic must coincide with the application of water on the seat of the fire. Once a building is horizontally ventilated the time for effective extinguishment is limited since the fire will rapidly expand.

B: The member on the exterior may be in position prior to the hoseline placement and must coordinate their actions to prevent premature ventilation.

C: The member on the exterior waiting to perform horizontal ventilation for extinguishment of the immediate fire area shall listen for transmissions from the Engine Company Officer to the Engine Chauffeur to start water or to the Incident Commander that they are applying water on the fire. These transmissions are an indication to the exterior member to prepare to conduct ventilation for extinguishment.

D: Before venting the window(s) the member must communicate with and receive approval from the Engine Company Officer. The approval to perform this horizontal ventilation for extinguishment tactic only applies to the window(s) in the immediate area and only for the member venting the immediate fire area.

Answer 8

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) Before venting the window(s) the member must communicate with and receive approval from the LADDER Company Officer. The approval to perform this horizontal ventilation for extinguishment tactic only applies to the window(s) in the immediate area and only for the member venting the immediate fire area.
D Note: Any additional horizontal ventilation tactics must be communicated with and coordinated by the Ladder Company Officer in the area prior to performing such ventilation. This communication and coordination with interior operations will lessen the likelihood of any negative impact on interior fire conditions.
A Note: This ventilation tactic entails venting the window(s) of the immediate fire area as the Engine Company is extinguishing the fire.
B Note: Premature ventilation can precipitate fire extension, endangering occupants and firefighters. To properly coordinate ventilation for extinguishment between the interior and exterior operating force, all members must monitor handie-talkie transmissions to ensure proper communications prior to performing ventilation.
Lad 3 5.7.2

Question 9

Question 9:
Which of the following choices CORRECTLY indicates the letter designation of the Systems Control Unit?

A: S

B: Y

C: C

D: K

Answer 9

Answer: B

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 2 – COMPUTER ASSISTED DISPATCH
B IS CORRECT – Y = Systems Control Unit – Ch 2 – pg 2-18
A – S = Communications Unit
C – C = CFRD Engine
D – K = Division Task Force

Question 10

Question 10:
Which incident requires an immediate notification to BITS?

A: An off-duty arrest

B: Preference of charges against a member

C: Misuse or misappropriation of the Department’s time

D: An instance of incompetence so serious that the officer believes disciplinary charges are warranted

Answer 10

Answer: A

Explanation:
B, C, D are written notifications to BITS
Immediate notifications to BITS are:
- On-duty incidents involving possession or use of drugs or alcohol
- Physical altercations among members, serious confrontations with civilians, dangerous misuse of Department vehicles
- Arrest of Department employees
- On-duty confrontations between members and members of the NYPD, or other government agencies which may lead to possible disciplinary action
AUC 268A sec 3.1 and sec 4

Question 11

Question 11:
Inflatable water rescue hose may be used during water/ice rescue incidents involving one or more conscious victims. Which procedure description of the use of this hose is incorrect?

A: The apparatus air outlet can fill one length of hose in approximately 5 minutes.

B: When deployed as a loop, it increases buoyancy and can be used for multiple victims.

C: Units shall have air filled hose secured with utility rope.

D: It can also be used to reach victims on ice.

Answer 11

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. The apparatus air outlet can fill FIVE LENGTHS of hose in approximately 1 MINUTE.

Water Rescue 2 Addendum 1 3.3, 4.1, 4.3

Question 12

Question 12:
Portable ladders may be utilized as barriers to dangerous areas or conditions to protect members or civilians from injury. When utilized in this manner, each of the following would be considered correct except?

A: Short ladders may be placed over holes in floors of buildings to prevent members from falling through during operations.

B: During any operation where ladders are used as barriers and exposed to the public, care must be exercised to prevent theft.

C: A portable ladder secured across a doorway in an area where operations are in progress will indicate that entrance to that section or room of the building is restricted.

D: Portable ladders placed on both beams, elevated to the waist level on supports and properly secured, can act as a barrier to civilian pedestrian traffic near a hazardous condition or fire operation.

Answer 12

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) Portable ladders placed on ONE beam, elevated to the waist level on supports and properly secured, can act as a barrier to civilian pedestrian traffic near a hazardous condition or fire operation.
Lad 1 9.2.2

Question 13

Question 13:
You are the member assigned to EFAS duties. Flagging is a way to track members making transmissions. Which of the following choices is an INCORRECT reason to flag a transmission?

A: A member transmits a message via HT while their vibralert is going off.

B: A member transmits a verbal Mayday for a member sustaining a serious injury.

C: A member transmits a message that is out of character, under stress or unusual

D: A member transmits a message that is garbled or incoherent but made with some urgency and requires follow-up by the IC.

Answer 13

Answer: B

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 9 ADDENDUM 3 – EFAS
B IS INCORRECT – Flags can be used to track specific member’s transmitting something of concern that does not fall under the Mayday transmissions. 5.3
A, C, D – 5.3.1

Question 14

Question 14:
All of the following equipment is found in the High-Rise Roof Kit that is used for the High-Rise Rescue plan except?

A: 6 SCBAs (1 hr cylinders)

B: 2 axes and 2 halligans

C: 2 search ropes, 1 bolt cutter, and 1 rabbit tool

D: 2 six foot hooks and a stokes basket

Answer 14

Answer: D

Explanation:
No Hooks or Stokes on a helicopter ( Bell 412 Aircraft)
Air rescue teams shall board and depart the Bell 412 from the front within the field of vision of the pilot
Semi crouched position in single file
AUC 269 add 1 sec 5 and figure 1

Question 15

Question 15:
The FDNY’s ventilation bulletin outlines specific provisions for ventilation in high-rise fireproof multiple dwellings. Which one stated is incorrect?

A: Horizontal ventilation of the fire apartment is limited and controlled by the Incident Commander.

B: Horizontal ventilation for smoke removal is usually performed after the main body of fire has been controlled.

C: Smoke and hot fire gases increase the air pressure inside the fire compartment. This higher air pressure will always travel toward areas of lower air pressure.

D: The firefighter(s) assigned to roof operations must remain at the roof level to ensure that bulkhead doors remain closed until the Incident Commander orders them vented.

Answer 15

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. Horizontal ventilation of the fire apartment is limited and controlled by the LADDER COMPANY OFFICER OPERATING INSIDE THE FIRE APARTMENT.

Ventilation 14, 14.1, 14.2

Question 16

Question 16:
During multi-unit-drill at a local high rise fireproof multiple dwelling, each of the following points were correctly made with the exception of which choice?

A: When communications are difficult in the lobby, walking around in the vicinity of the elevators may help you find a spot that improves the quality of communications considerably.

B: The 10-77 signal shall be transmitted for a fire in a Fireproof Multiple Dwelling that is 75 feet in height or higher.

C: The FAST Unit and CFR Engine shall be assigned to the fire floor when the fire is above the sixth floor.

D: At lower floor fires (sixth floor or below), the position of the FAST Unit and the CFR Engine will be determined by the Incident Commander. The FAST Unit should carry a set of elevator keys.

Answer 16

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) The FAST Unit and CFR Engine shall be assigned to the FIRE SECTOR when the fire is above the sixth floor. They can be staged on the floor below the fire floor, ready for rapid deployment.
B Note: The 10-77 signal shall be transmitted for a fire in a High Rise Fireproof Multiple Dwelling. Note: High Rise Building includes all buildings 75 feet or more in height.
MD Ch 2 7.1.5, 7.2.1, 7.3

Question 17

Question 17:
You are the officer on duty and members are discussing what they thought were discrepancies in when members are entitled to CFRD differential. You make the following statements, which of the following is CORRECT?

A: CFRD certified Officers and firefighters who are working in Engine, Rescue, Squad, Haz-Mat, or Marine Division units on-line for CFRD responses are eligible to receive the differential provided they respond to CFR runs during the tour of duty.

B: If a member is placed on any type of leave prior to the end of the tour, they shall receive the differential only for the amount of time on duty prior to being granted leave.

C: Members responding to CFR runs while awaiting relief are entitled to CFR differential following those responses.

D: Ladder Company responses which include performing duties traditionally performed by these companies (vehicle extrication, forcible entry for EMS) shall be compensated. To be eligible, the officer must complete a PCR documenting the medical procedures performed by the eligible members.

Answer 17

Answer: B

Explanation:
PA/ID 4 – CHAPTER 1 – CFRD PAY DIFFERENTIAL
B IS CORRECT – 3.1 – Only for the amount of time on duty prior to being granted leave.
A – CFR-D eligibility does not require CFR responses during the tour of duty 2.1
C – CFRD certified personnel who meet the eligibility requirements shall be entitled to the differential only for the SCHEDULED TOUR and not beyond. The differential is not provided in situations where they work beyond the end of the tour.
D – Ladder responses where they perform duties traditionally performed by these units are NOT compensated. 2.2.5

Question 18

Question 18:
Upon arrival for a possible emotional disturbed person (EDP) the correct signal that should be transmitted can be found in which choice?

A: 10-31

B: 10-47

C: 10-48

D: 10-39

Answer 18

Answer: B

Explanation:
AUC 271 sec 1 and Communications ch 8
10-31 Assist civilian
10-47 Police Response
10-48 Police Response for Harassment (FFs being harassed)
10-39 FD standing by (suspicious package)

Question 19

Question 19:
When are Engine companies required to inspect and repack the Kernmantle Life Saving Rope (KLSR)?

A: Sunday 9x6

B: Monday 9x6

C: Tuesday 9x6

D: Saturday 9x6

Answer 19

Answer: C

Explanation:
ALL UNITS, EXCEPT ENGINE COMPANIES, SHALL INSPECT AND REPACK THE KLSR EVERY MONDAY 9X6 TOUR. ENGINE COMPANIES SHALL INSPECT AND REPACK THE KLSR EVERY TUESDAY 9X6 TOUR.

SAME AS REG LSR

TB Rope 10 4.13

Question 20

Question 20:
There are a number of considerations that members should take into account when removing a victim from a fire building using an aerial ladder. Which is not entirely correct?

A: The OV (tiller firefighter on a tiller apparatus) sets chocks and stabilizers. An alternative method, when staffing is available, is to have one member assigned to the inboard stabilizer and chocks while the OV takes care of the outboard side.

B: The OV must observe the building continuously while the chauffeur is operating the ladder. At night, use the apparatus spotlight to pinpoint and reassure the victim.

C: Climbing the ladder while it is being extended or retracted is prohibited.

D: The Chauffeur ascends the ladder followed by the OV, climbs in window, assists victim out feet first to the OV, closes the door to the fire area, and then searches the area.

Answer 20

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) Climbing the ladder while it is being extended or retracted is prohibited. The OV ascends the ladder followed by the CHAUFFEUR, climbs in window, assists victim out feet first to the CHAUFFEUR, closes the door to the fire area, and then searches the area.
Note: The OV ascending first will keep chauffeur closer to the controls.
A Note: This would enable the OV to observe the building and be in a better position to ascend.
Hint: O-O; OV = Outboard side
B Note. Prepare for a rapid ascent as the trapped people may attempt to climb onto the ladder without assistance. Be aware that someone may appear at another window or the trapped person may move to another location.
C Note: Only in an extreme emergency such as serious exposure to flame or high heat will the “movement” of the ladder with the firefighter and the victim on it be justified.
Lad 2 5.2-5.6

Question 21

Question 21:
All members assigned to Tower Ladder Units should be properly trained. What on the apparatus can be monitored to provide a snapshot of unit productivity as it relates to bucket training and fire-ground operations?

A: Aerial Hour Meter

B: Tower Hour Meter

C: Aerial Enable Foot Switch

D: Starter Enable Switch

Answer 21

Answer: A

Explanation:
TL Ch 8

Question 22

Question 22:
You have just been selected to be the Roll Call Officer (RCO) for a partial building collapse involving several members. Choose the correct procedure for the RCO.

A: With heavy rain and high winds, you chose to stand next to the IC while conducting the Roll Call

B: Weather not being an issue, you chose to stand away from the Command Post while conducting the Roll Call

C: Weather not being an issue, you chose to stand within 10’ from the Command Post while conducting the Roll Call

D: You asked your proby to retrieve the pre-printed Emergency Roll Call form from your apparatus

Answer 22

Answer: B

Explanation:
A- If weather is an issue, the RCO and assisting member shall take a position in a dry area, such as a Battalion vehicle/apparatus
C- AWAY from the Command Post while conducting the Roll Call
D- Pre-printed Emergency Roll Call forms found on all Battalion and Division vehicles
Communications ch 9 add 2 p-3

Question 23

Question 23:
At places of worship, all of the following features are considered collapse hazards except which one?

A: Bell Tower

B: Minaret

C: Steeple

D: Nave

Answer 23

Answer: D

Explanation:
The nave is the main body of the church. It provides the central approach to the altar.

Place of Worship Glossary

Question 24

Question 24:
During fire extinguishment operations, it is possible that members may encounter a failure of the Engine apparatus pump. When this occurs, each of the following actions should be taken with the exception of which choice?

A: If the problem is first noticed by the ECC, they should transmit an URGENT handie-talkie message for a water loss.

B: A signal 10-70 should immediately be transmitted.

C: The engine officer should withdraw the nozzle team to an area of safety and members in the street should provide whatever assistance necessary to solve the problem.

D: If the problem with the apparatus cannot be quickly solved, water supply can be restored to the hoseline by stretching a 2 ½” hose from a nearby apparatus connected to a hydrant, to the 1st due pumper, disconnecting the hose from the 1st due apparatus and connecting it to the new 2 1/2” line.

Answer 24

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) Since the problem is with the apparatus and not the water source, a signal 10-70 should NOT be transmitted. When a 10-70 is transmitted, resources are focused on securing a water source for the 1st due apparatus. In this case, the apparatus itself is not operational, so an URGENT transmission for water loss is more effective.
A Note: If the issue is first noticed at the nozzle, the engine officer would experience a loss of water and pressure in the line. An URGENT handie-talkie message should be given indicating the problem.
D Note: The hoseline can now be supplied by the new pumper. An alternative solution may be to supply water from a 2nd apparatus to the apparatus with the failed pump. The pumping operation can then be controlled from the 2nd pumper, with the original apparatus essentially functioning as a large manifold. In this scenario, the pressure supply to the original apparatus will be limited to 150 psi, as the relief valve will dispel any additional pressure.
Eng Ch 10 3.7.3, 3.7.4, 3.7.5, 3.7.6

Question 25

Question 25:
Which term below describes the chemical decomposition of a solid material that is caused by the absorption of heat?

A: Flash point

B: Vapor pressure

C: Pyrolysis

D: Convection

Answer 25

Answer: C

Explanation:
Note: When pyrolysis of a material occurs, gas is released from the solid material. Pyrolysis often precedes combustion.
TB FD 5.2

Question 26

Question 26:
During an underground chemical attack in a subway system, which unit is responsible to provide the IC with the number of victims that have been decontaminated and and sent to the Causality Collection Point?

A: 1st arriving Engine Company

B: 2nd arriving BC Company

C: 1st arriving Ladder Company

D: 2nd arriving Ladder Company

Answer 26

Answer: A

Explanation:
ERP add 2 7.1.7

Question 27

Question 27:
Whether or not the removal of a distressed firefighter involves a conscious or unconscious member, the following items must be addressed. Which is the first priority?

A: Immediate medical care

B: Air

C: Fire/Environment

D: Removal

Answer 27

Answer: C

Explanation:
“FAIR”

FIRE/ENVIRONMENT
AIR
IMEMDIATE MEDICAL CARE
REMOVAL

Managing Members in Distress Ch 3 4.1

Question 28

Question 28:
Your unit, an aerial ladder company, is operating at a fire on the 2nd floor of a 5-story Old Law Tenement type Row Frame (4-window front.) Your chauffeur was correct in all actions below except in which choice?

A: The LCC positioned and prepared the apparatus for complete coverage.

B: The LCC raised the aerial for roof access by the roof firefighter.

C: After the roof firefighter has reached the roof, the LCC repositioned the aerial for VEIS of the fire apartment when teamed up with the 2nd chauffeur (or another available member).

D: After VEIS of the fire apartment was complete, the the LCC and another member completed VEIS of the adjoining apartment and floors above.

Answer 28

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Repositioned the aerial for VEIS of the fire apartment IF fire is on the 3rd floor or above when teamed up with the 2nd chauffeur (or another available member). When fire is on the 1st OR 2nd FLOOR, VEIS the fire apartment from the exterior using PORTABLE LADDERS.
A Note: When unable to complete this assignment, the IC must be notified.
BS/RF 5.7 D

Question 29

Question 29:
Hoseline operations have slightly changed due to the study of extinguishment capabilities of various sized hoselines in different types of buildings. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: When a hoseline is hand stretched from the apparatus or standpipe in a fireproof multiple dwelling, the use of 1 ¾” line is permitted.

B: The size of the hoseline stretched (1 ¾” or 2 ½”) will be based on occupancy/conditions. This is true for high rise and low rise fireproof multiple dwellings alike.

C: The flowrate provided by 1 ¾” hose is sufficient to extinguish the majority of fires in fireproof multiple dwellings. Due to the fireproof construction, these fires will involve the contents only.

D: Considering the compartmented layout common in multiple dwellings, the speed and mobility of 1 ¾” hose may be most effective in these buildings when hand stretched from the apparatus.

Answer 29

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) When a hoseline is HAND STRETCHED from the APPARATUS into a fireproof multiple dwelling, the use of 2 ½” hose is NOT mandated.
When using the standpipe system in a commercial occupancy, all hoselines stretched from the outlet will be 2 ½”. In a residential occupancy, hoselines stretched from the outlet may have a lead length of 2” hose. 1 ¾” hose must NOT be stretched from a standpipe outlet. The larger diameter hose is required for the purpose of minimizing friction loss in the hose and maximizing water flow from the standpipe system.
MD Ch 2 8.7.1, 8.7.2, Eng Ch Ch 8 7.6.2

Question 30

Question 30:
All chemical agents are heavier than air except?

A: Hydrogen Cyanide

B: Lewisite

C: Cyanogen Chloride

D: Phosgene

Answer 30

Answer: A

Explanation:
Separator question for sure
ERP add 2 p-20

Question 31

Question 31:
Ladder 399 is called to the scene of an ambulance that got stuck in the soft ground on the shoulder of a highway after heavy rain. Members quickly discuss their options to pull the vehicle out utilizing the vehicle recovery strap. They have the following thoughts but were incorrect in which one?

A: Vehicle recovery straps shall never be attached to the front or rear bumper.

B: Recovery from the front is the preferred method for vehicle recovery.

C: The vehicle recovery strap shall not be used for towing or lifting.

D: Members shall maintain a 25’ safety zone due to the working length of the vehicle recovery strap.

Answer 31

Answer: D

Explanation:
D. Members shall maintain a 35’ SAFETY ZONE due to the working length of the vehicle recovery strap.

TB Apparatus C2 Addendum 6 2.4, 3.1, 3.2, 5.7

Question 32

Question 32:
The first arriving ladder company at a fire in a high rise office building shall obtain as much information as possible from the fire safety director or his/her surrogate as to each of the following except?

A: Location of the fire.

B: Evacuation procedures that have been implemented.

C: Status of elevators.

D: Service elevators serving the fire floor.

Answer 32

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) ACCESS STAIRS serving the fire floor.
Acronym: LEES
Location of the fire.
Evacuation procedures that have been implemented.
Elevator status.
Stairs (access) serving the fire floor.
HROB 8.3.1 A

Question 33

Question 33:
Which of the choices below contains incorrect information regarding features of lightweight constructed private dwellings?

A: Generally, the flooring used in lightweight construction is not as substantial as is found in ordinary construction.

B: Lightweight wood truss roofs may be flat or peaked. A large, open cockloft/attic will only be found in the peaked design.

C: The most common type of peaked roof found in lightweight construction is the open-web lightweight wood truss.

D: In some larger private dwellings, the plasterboard ceiling may be installed several inches below the lightweight supporting members to provide for the running of utilities.

Answer 33

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) Lightweight wood truss roofs may be flat or peaked. A large, open cockloft/attic is commonly found in EITHER design.
PD Ch 6 2.2.4, 2.2.5, 2.2.5 A, 2.2.6 B

Question 34

Question 34:
Exposure to chemical agents will result in immediate signs and symptoms (seconds to minutes), with the exception of what two chemical agents?

A: Sulfurs and Ammonia

B: Mustards and Phosgene

C: Sarin and Lewisite

D: Chlorine and Hydrogen Cyanide

Answer 34

Answer: B

Explanation:
Mustards and Phosgene will have delayed effects (hours)
ERP add 2 p-20

Question 35

Question 35:
Members must follow certain safety precautions when operating at incidents involving hybrid vehicles. They shall make sure the ignition is OFF and that the key or key FOB is at least how many feet away?

A: 5

B: 10

C: 15

D: 20

Answer 35

Answer: C

Explanation:
THIS NUMBER WAS ASKED ON 2009 LT EXAM

TB Fires 8 11.6 C

Question 36

Question 36:
Of the following choices, which is not an indication of a “burst length” in a hoseline?

A: Water loss at the nozzle.

B: Pressure loss in the lead length.

C: The pump panel would indicate normal pressure, but there will be a reduced water flow reading at the pump panel flowmeter (or standpipe outlet flowmeter).

D: Apparatus pump RPM increasing automatically.

Answer 36

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) ELEVATED water flow reading at the pump panel flowmeter (or standpipe outlet flowmeter).
In the case of KINKING, the pump panel would indicate NORMAL PRESSURE, but there will be a REDUCED WATER FLOW reading at the pump panel flowmeter (or standpipe outlet flowmeter). There will also be a DECREASE in the engine RPM.
D Note: This indicates that water is leaving the pumper, but not reaching the nozzle. This diagnosis from the pump panel must be followed up with the confirmation of the location of the burst length itself.
Eng Ch 10 3.3.3, 3.5.3

Question 37

Question 37:
Knowing where to search for victims is a key part of collapse operations. Which of the following choices is not in accordance with Department guidelines?

A: In Lean-to voids, there is an excellent chance of survival for persons who were on the floor below if they were near the failed wall. The smallest chance of survival is for anyone on the lower floor in the vicinity of the remaining wall.

B: In V-shaped voids, the shape of the collapse produces two voids on the sides of the debris, both of which should be searched. Victims directly below the collapse will have the least chance of survival, while those along the perimeters will have the greatest.

C: In pancake collapses, survival depends on the presence of strong objects nearby to keep the weight of the entire load from landing on the victim. Locating the victims of pancake collapses is often simpler than in other types of collapses, since the floors usually maintain their physical aspect and the victims aren’t as likely to be thrown as they would if the floor were to incline.

D: Individual voids may be found in any type of collapse. They result from spaces formed by strong objects that prevent a collapse into that particular section and are difficult to locate, for they occur at random depending on the layout of partitions and furniture.

Answer 37

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) In Lean-to voids, there is an excellent chance of survival for persons who were on the floor below if they were near the REMAINING wall. The smallest chance of survival is for anyone on the lower floor in the vicinity of the FAILED wall.
A Note: People on the falling floor may also survive if heavy objects don’t crush them.
B Note: Victims on the collapsing floor not in the vicinity of the collapse will be thrown toward the center along with the loose debris.
Collapse 11.4

Question 38

Question 38:
The Blue Light on the Airtrain system is located how many feet apart?

A: 800 feet

B: 600 feet

C: 200 feet

D: 700 feet

Answer 38

Answer: A

Explanation:
Blue Light station power removal boxes are located every 800 feet apart along the guideway. Inside each Blue Light station power removal box there is a red power removal button. In a life threating situation and the Blue Light station removal box has been activated, one HT equipped member must remain at the Blue Light station removal box to ensure that the power remains off
AUC 207 add 12
Blue Light is 600 feet apart for subways…..AUC 207 sec 8.1, 8.4

Question 39

Question 39:
For fire operations in vacant buildings, to the extent possible, the use of fire escapes should be avoided. When it is absolutely necessary to use fire escapes at vacant buildings, members should consider each of the following guidelines except?

A: Use a Fire Department ladder to access the balcony in preference to drop ladders.

B: If it is absolutely necessary to use a drop ladder, either for a civilian life hazard or for fire operations, members lowering the drop ladder should never stand beneath the fire escape balcony due to the risk of balcony collapse.

C: When operating on a fire escape, members should pay particular attention to areas of the metal structure that appear rusted or loose, and climb ladders with their feet as close to supporting stringers as possible to minimize step deflection.

D: Members should avoid gooseneck ladders associated with vacant buildings whenever possible.

Answer 39

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) If it is absolutely necessary to use a drop ladder, either for a civilian life hazard or for fire operations, members lowering the drop ladder SHOULD stand beneath the fire escape balcony in order to reduce the risk of being injured if the drop ladder falls free from its supporting guides.
Vacants 6.2 F

Question 40

Question 40:
Listed below are several safety precautions while operating at vehicle disentanglements and extrications with spreaders and cutters. Which one is incorrect?

A: Whether using the spreaders or cutters always remove the top hinge first.

B: A good practice would be to point the couplings down when disconnecting.

C: An area of safety measuring half the opened length and width of the jaws must be maintained.

D: Never position any part of your body between the tool and the vehicle.

Answer 40

Answer: C

Explanation:
C. An area of safety measuring THE FULLY OPENED length and width of the jaws must be maintained.

Disentanglement and Extrication 14.2, 14.7, 14.8, 14.12