LT PKG EXAM #23 Flashcards by Leonard Peabody

Question 1:
When operating in or on a roof of a building with solar panels there are many safety and health concerns to consider. Choose the correct safety/ health concern.

A: When power is shut at the main building panel, electrical energy will be considered removed throughout the building including the solar panels

B: Utilizing disconnects ahead of or after the inverter ensures electric current is removed from the solar panels

C: Combiner boxes should be opened by firefighters in an attempt to shutdown the solar panels

D: Lightening flashes occurring at night can energize the solar panels

Answer: D

Explanation:
A- Even though the electrical power from the utility grid can be disconnected at the main distributeion panel, electrical energy is still present as long as the PV array is connected
B- Utilizing disconnects ahead of or after the inverter still does NOT eliminate the electric current coming from the solar panels
C- Combiner boxes should NOT be opened by firefighters in an attempt to shutdown the solar panels
AUC 351 sec 7

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Question 2:
When operating at a vehicle fire on a highway, the blocking apparatus shall be placed at least how many feet behind the first operating unit to create a safe working area?

A: 25 ft

B: 50 ft

C: 75 ft

D: 100 ft

Answer: B

Explanation:
TB Fires 8 6.5

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Question 3:
The engine officer has many responsibilities at a structural fire. Which responsibility is not entirely correct?

A: Before calling for water, the engine officer should confirm that sufficient hose has been stretched and flaked out and confirm with the nozzle and back-up firefighters that they are ready for the line to be charged.

B: The engine officer should ensure each firefighter is properly equipped with all required PPE and that their SCBA is donned and in use.

C: The engine officer should ensure the line is properly bled before the attack begins. At standpipe operations, a long bleed will be necessary to allow the control firefighter to properly set the operating pressure at the standpipe outlet.

D: The long bleed is not necessary when a 2 ½” hoseline is stretched from the apparatus. In this case, a short bleed is preferred.

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) The long bleed WILL ALSO BE NECESSARY when a 2 ½” hoseline is stretched from the apparatus. In this case, the low operating pressure may be below the preset of the Pro-Pressure Governor. This will require the ECC to set the pressure manually and necessitate a long bleed by the nozzle firefighter to allow the pressure to be properly set.
Note: The engine officer should ensure the line is properly bled before the attack begins. This is to confirm water at the nozzle, allow air to escape the hoseline, and to allow for the proper setting of the operating pressure.
Eng Ch 4 8.1. 8.2

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Question 4:
When submitting a CIDS card, the following information must be transmitted in the proper order. Which choice is CORRECT?

A: Occupancy, Description of Building, FD Designation, Description of Dangerous, Hazardous or Unusual Condition, Minresp.

B: FD Designation, Occupancy, Description of Building, Description of Dangerous, Hazardous, or Unusual Condition Minresp

C: FD Designation, Occupancy, Description of Building, Minresp, Description of Dangerous, Hazardous, or Unusual Condition.

D: Occupancy, FD Designation, Description of Building, Description of Dangerous, Hazardous, or Unusual Condition, Minresp.

Answer: B

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 4 – CIDS
B IS CORRECT – The ECIDS application will assist in placing the information in the CORRECT order, however, this has been a question used on multiple exams in different forms. FD DESIGNATION, OCCUPANCY, DESCRIPTION OF BUILDING (Height, Dimension, Class in that order), DESCRIPTION OF HAZARD, MINRESP is the only order. 4.5.3B

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Question 5:
When using Positive Pressure Fans (PPV) to pressurize the attack stairwell, all stairwell doors in the attack stairwell shall be kept closed. However, the pressure delivered to the attack stair by the PPF will be great enough to allow a number of stairwell doors in the attack stair to be open to remain effective. The correct number of doors can be found in which choice?

A: 4

B: 3

C: 2

D: 1

Answer: B

Explanation:
The pressure delivered to the attack stair by the PPF will be great enough to allow for up to 3 stairwell doors to be open and pressurization to remain effective. However, all members should understand that keeping as many doors closed as possible is the goal. Members are permitted to move from one area to another as long as they remember to close the stairwell door behind them.
AUC 349 sec 7.3

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Question 6:
Which natural gas tool is used to determine the amount of gas present in an area? How does it display the levels of gas?

A: The natural gas detector; % of gas in air

B: The natural gas detector; % of LEL

C: The CO meter; % of gas in air

D: The natural gas meter; % of LEL

Answer: D

Explanation:
THE METER SHOWS THE % OF THE LOWER EXPLOSIVE LIMIT (LEL). THE EXPLOSIVE RANGE OF GAS IS 5%-15%. THEREFORE, THE LEL IS 5%.

FOR EXAMPLE, 5% GAS IN AIR WOULD BE 100% OF THE LEL ON THE GAS METER. 2.5% GAS IN AIR WOULD BE 50% OF THE LEL ON THE GAS METER AND SO ON…

Natural Gas 6.4

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Question 7:
Your unit is the first arriving aerial ladder at a serious fire in an isolated building where roof access and egress via conventionally positioned aerial ladders is endangered by the serious fire condition. Which choice below would be an incorrect action in this scenario?

A: Consider placing the aerial ladder at a safe angle to the least exposed sidewall of the building.

B: Placing the apparatus on the sidewalk is permitted to obtain the necessary position.

C: Under no circumstances should the aerial ladder be placed in the cantilever position.

D: Members should ascend or descend at well spaced intervals.

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Initially place the aerial ladder in the cantilever position with the tip fairly close to the building.
C Note: Do this so that when placed under load it will either not touch or barely touch the wall. This should eliminate any twisting stress.
Lad 2 3.6

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Question 8:
At a fire in a high rise office building, the second arriving ladder company shall take all of the following actions except?

A: Report to the ICP and determine if the fire floor has been verified by the first arriving ladder company.

B: Obtain an elevator car that provides the safest access to the fire area and place it on “Fire Service.” If possible, the same elevator car used by the first arriving ladder (staffed by a HT radio equipped member of the first ladder company) should be utilized.

C: Upon arriving at the floor below the fire (or on the fire floor) obtain as much information as possible from the first arriving ladder company - areas searched, fire area location, occupants reported missing, etc.

D: Initiate the search of the floor above the fire floor.

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) COORDINATE the search operation of FIRE FLOOR with first arriving ladder company.
B Note: If a different car must be utilized, a HT radio equipped member of the 2nd ladder shall be assigned to remain with the elevator and operate car until relieved.
HROB 8.4.2

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Question 9:
The First Responder Bridge and Tunnel manual shall be kept in a secure location on the apparatus with the Emergency Response Guidebook for Hazardous Material incidents (orange book). The correct color of the First Responder Bridge and Tunnel manual can be found in which choice?

A: Green

B: Red

C: White

D: Gray

Answer: A

Explanation:
Report lost or stolen manuals forthwith to the PTSU by phone, email, and forward FS-112 lost property report
AUC 344 p- 3-5

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Question 10:
On the thermal imaging camera, what color represents the most amount of heat in the scene?

A: Black

B: Gray

C: White

D: Green

Answer: C

Explanation:
NOTE: BLACK INDICATES THE PRESENCE OF THE LEAST AMOUNT OF HEAT OR THE COOLEST OBJECT IN THE SCENE.

TB Tools 27 2.3.3

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Question 11:
Proper use of elevators in high rise fireproof multiple dwellings (HRFPMD) is essential for successful operations in these buildings. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: Some elevators open directly into apartments or foyers while others open onto a small landing or foyer with only two doors, each serving one apartment. There are no stairs or other means of egress from this type of foyer and these types of elevators should not be used by members.

B: A service/freight elevator shall not be used until it has been evaluated and declared safe for use by the company officer. Once deemed safe for use, members shall take the service/freight elevator to two floors below the fire and take the stairs to the correct floor.

C: Standpipes are usually found in the service stairway. Service stairs may be locked on the first floor with a wire mesh door that permits egress from upper floors but no entry into the stairs from the first floor. These mesh doors are easily forced.

D: After all units are in position, and two elevators are available and serviceable, maintain one elevator on standby in the lobby and one on the floor below the fire.

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) After all units are in position, and two elevators are available and serviceable, maintain one elevator on standby in the lobby and one TWO FLOORS below the fire.
A Note: In these buildings, the service/freight elevator will usually service all floors.
C Note: This information, and location of the service/freight elevator and service stairs, should be entered into the CIDS program.
MD Ch 2 5.7-5.9

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Question 12:
Which of the following CORRECTLY describes a High-Rise Fire-Protected structure which is occupied as a residential building?

A: CL1R

B: CL2R

C: CL3R

D: CL6R

Answer: B

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 4 – CIDS
B IS CORRECT – CL2R for a high-rise fire-protected structure – 4.5.3 3iiiA

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Question 13:
The most correct statement made in regards to the EBF-4 can be found in which choice?

A: The EBF-4 should be completed immediately after the start of the tour. The EBF-4 should not be be completed prior to the start of the tour

B: Company officers shall submit a preliminary EBF-4 prior to the start of each tour, then finalize the EBF-4 after the start of the tour when details from other companies arrive

C: Once a final EBF-4 is submitted it cannot be changed

D: When a member is using a spare radio it is not necessary to enter the spare radio number onto the EBF-4

Answer: A

Explanation:
B- Company officers shall submit a preliminary or final EBF-4 at the start of each tour
C- Final EBF-4 shall be updated anytime during the tour as necessary (ML, early relief, staffing change, reduced staffing)
D- Spare radio number shall be listed beside that riding position on the EBF-4
***Units with “IN-RIG” EBF-4 can be used to complete the EBF-4 while outside of quarters. The “IN-RIG EBF shall be used every Sunday in lieu of the EBF-4 application on the Intranet
AUC 346 sec 2 and sec 6

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Question 14:
At a fire in a Place of Worship, which unit is responsible to ensure the cellar is examined for fire?

A: First Ladder

B: Second Ladder

C: Third Ladder

D: Fourth Ladder

Answer: B

Explanation:
FIRST TRUCK ATTEMPTS EXAMINATION OF THE CELLAR

Places of Worship 7.3.2

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Question 15:
Of all the conditions that can affect fire behavior, wind has the most dramatic impact and can override the effects of some or all of the other variables that define traditional fire behavior. Which of the following choices contains correct information regarding wind?

A: Wind can overpower the Stack Effect, change flow paths, significantly change the volume and intensity of a fire, and the speed at which materials burn.

B: Wind introduces large amounts of oxygen and causes forced conduction of the fire area and burning materials.

C: “Backdraft” is the appropriate description of what can occur when fire conditions are impacted by the wind. Wind can dramatically change a fire in seconds.

D: Although wind impacted fires are typically associated with fires in fireproof multiple dwellings, they can occur at fires in other structures, excluding private dwellings.

Answer: A

Explanation:
B) Wind introduces large amounts of oxygen and causes forced CONVECTION of the fire area and burning materials.
C) “BLOW TORCHING” is the appropriate description of what can occur when fire conditions are impacted by the wind. Wind can dramatically change a fire in seconds.
D) Although wind impacted fires are typically associated with fires in fireproof multiple dwellings, they can occur at any fire INCLUDING those in PRIVATE DWELLINGS.
B Note: The fresh air moving with wind currents at Wind-Impacted Fires cause significant changes to fire development, fire travel and smoke movement.
D Note: Wind can also have significant impact on non-structural fires such as brush fires or large area rubbish fires.
TB FD Ch 4 2

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Question 16:
What is the priority order of roof access for peaked roof private dwelling operations?

A: Tower Ladder, Aerial Ladder, Portable Ladder

B: Aerial Ladder, Tower Ladder, Portable Ladder

C: Portable Ladder, Tower Ladder, Aerial Ladder

D: Tower Ladder, Portable Ladder, Aerial Ladder

Answer: A

Explanation:
PD Ch 4 6.2

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Question 17:
When operating at a Con-Ed facility involving live electrical equipment, the primary means of applying water can be correctly stated in which choice?

A: Use of Handlines with fog tips at 30 degree spray pattern

B: Use of a Satellite Unit

C: Water shall not be used onto live electrical equipment when operating at a Con-Ed facility

D: Use of a Tower Ladder

Answer: D

Explanation:
If conditions don’t allow for the use of a TL, consider the feasibility of using an Engine Apparatus Deck gun, Ladder Pipe on an Aerial, or a portable Akron New Yorker Multiversal
**Handlines shall Never be used on energized electrical components at Con-Ed facilities
Only a DC or higher can order the use of water in consultation with Con-Ed White Hat
AUC 338 sec 2.1, 5.4, 5.5

Question 18:
The Universal Air Coupling (UAC) of the FAST Pak is utilized to supply additional breathing air to a member’s SCBA when needed. Which additional point is incorrect?

A: This method will equalize air in both cylinders in approximately 30 seconds.

B: The 5 ft. high pressure hose will administer air to a member’s SCBA via the UAC.

C: When removing member from IDLH, the high-pressure UAC coupling must be removed.

D: If at any time during the filling process a leak is detected, immediately discontinue the filling procedure and supply air via one of the low-pressure methods.

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. This method will equalize air in both cylinders in approximately 60 SECONDS.

TB SCBA Addendum 1 9.4, 9.4., 9.7.6, 10.7

Question 19:
There are instances at a structural fire when the engine officer may decide to open up the hoseline on smoke. Which choice below is incorrect?

A: If there is a “smoke condition with high heat”, the nozzle should be opened on the smoke and operated as necessary to cool the area and then advance toward the fire.

B: If “turbulent smoke” is encountered at the entry point the nozzle should be opened and operated at this location until it is able to advance.

C: When an area is heavily involved in fire, the area adjacent to the fire room may also be at extreme temperatures. In this case, the officer should order the nozzle opened as the team approaches the area. This will cool the area and allow the nozzle team to make entry for extinguishment.

D: When opening the nozzle on smoke, the officer shall have the nozzle opened for constant flow during the advance. The nozzle shall never be operated intermittently.

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) When opening the nozzle on smoke, the officer MAY EITHER order the nozzle opened intermittently OR have the nozzle opened for constant flow during the advance.
Note: Smoke is to be considered fuel and flowing water on the approach to the fire can cool the area, preventing flashover and rapid fire development. The overhead temperatures within the smoke layer are often unknown and “conditioning the area” with the hoseline may be beneficial.
A & B Note: In the absence of high heat and turbulence in the smoke, conditions may be such that advancing the charged line in the smoke condition without opening the nozzle would be more effective. In this case, the line can be advanced with the nozzle closed until the fire can be hit directly with the stream.
Eng Ch 4 8.6

Question 20:
The overtime is drying up and members are debating who gets offered MSOT. There are overtime slots available for today’s night tour. Put the following in CORRECT order as the first through last options to be hired for an MSOT tour.
**1 – Firefighter A who is working a mutual exchange of tours and available.
**2 – Firefighter B who is working her second tour of duty and available.
**3 – Firefighter C who is working his first tour of duty and is available due to a mutual exchange of tours.
**4 – Firefighter D who is a 6th grade firefighter with less than 9 months of service working her second tour of duty and available.

A: 2,1,3,4

B: 3,2,1,4

C: 2,3,1,4

D: 3,2,4,1

Answer: C

Explanation:
PA/ID 3 – CHAPTER 1– MINIMUM STAFFING POLICY GUIDELINES
C IS CORRECT – First Option is Firefighter B (#2), Second Option if Firefighter C (#3) Third Option is Firefighter A (#1) Last Option is Firefighter D #4 – 3.1.1 - 3.1.5

Question 21:
The most correct tactic/procedure when operating at a building with a cell phone site mounted on the roof of a 6 sty non-fireproof building can be found in which choice?

A: Transmit a 2nd alarm if the cell site installation is involved

B: Ladder Companies should consider utilizing the portable foam extinguisher at incipient fires on or near the cell site installation

C: Roof cuts should be made as close as possible to ensure fire and heat is removed before impinging on the metal support beams

D: Consider stretching a handline to the roof at upper floor fires. This handline can be used to maintain egress routes and to cool supporting “I” beams

Answer: D

Explanation:
A- Special call and extra engine and ladder if the cell site installation is involved m(ensure TL on initial response)
B- Portable Dry Chemical extinguishers
C- Avoid cutting roof openings too close to installation equipment, coaxial cables, or support system
AUC 331 sec 6

Question 22:
Members of Ladder 200 are drilling in quarters with the Life Saving Training Rope. The on-duty officer outlines some of the rules associated with use of the training rope, but she was incorrect in which one?

A: The Life Saving Training Rope shall never be used without the landing mat positioned beneath the line of descent.

B: The maximum number of times this rope may be used is 100 per end, for a total of 200 slides.

C: The practice of tying training ropes together in order to increase the length of the rope is strictly prohibited.

D: The Life Saving Training Rope may be used at heights to a maximum of two stories.

Answer: D

Explanation:
D. The Life Saving Training Rope may be used at heights to a maximum of THREE STORIES.

TB Rope 1 Data Sheet 3 2.2, 4.5, 5.3, 5.2

Question 23:
The 10-foot scissor ladder is a useful tool for the OV firefighter at a brownstone fire and can be used in a variety of manners. Which choice below is not a practical use of this tool?

A: Used in a closed position for venting.

B: Used to access the 2nd floor for VEIS.

C: Used to access the roof of a 1 story setback.

D: Used to access the 3rd or 4th floor from the roof of a setback for ventilation.

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) Used to access the 3RD FLOOR from the roof of a setback for ventilation.
Note: Prior to VEIS, the OV shall be teamed up with another available member.
Note: This tool can also provide means of climbing fences.
BS/RF 2.6 E, B

Question 24:
Portable ladders are versatile tools and have many uses. The “telescoping ladder” can be used in which choice below?

A: To ladder the 2nd floor of a fire building during a structural fire.

B: To assist victims out of a stuck elevator via the top hatch.

C: To be used horizontally as a bridge across an enclosed shaft.

D: Hung vertically off of a fire escape, secured at the top.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Due to the nature of the construction of telescoping ladders, they must not be:
used for laddering a fire building due to lack of heat resistance.
used horizontally as a bridge or plank.
secured at the top and hung vertically (like a straight hook ladder). The mechanisms inside the beams will not support weight when deployed in this manner.
Lad 1 8.5.1

Question 25: The correct number classification for Radioactive Materials according to the Department of Transportation can be found in which choice? A: 4 B: 5 C: 6 D: 7

Answer: D Explanation: Acronym: Every Good Lieutenant Standard Operating Procedure Requires Coordinated Members 1- Explosives 2- Compressed Gases 3- Flammable Liquids 4- Flammable Solids 5- Oxidizers 6- Poisons 7- Radioactive Material 8- Corrosives 9- Miscellaneous Dangerous Goods Haz-Mat sec 2.1

Question 26: What is the knotted breaking strength of the nylon tubular webbing? A: 1000 lbs B: 2000 lbs C: 3000 lbs D: 4000 lbs

Answer: C Explanation: *The breaking strength when not knotted is 4000 lbs* Managing Members in Distress 1.0

Question 27: Lieutenant Smith was training two probationary firefighters on the proper method of pulling ceilings of Old Law Tenements with the 6ft hook. Which statement made during this drill was incorrect? A: Beams in Old Law Tenements generally run parallel to front and rear walls. Lath is attached at right angles to the beams and runs front to rear with each piece of lath usually covering two or more bays. B: The ceiling is penetrated with one firm stroke with the hook end, perpendicular to the lath. The hook is then turned to form a right angle to the lath and then pulled with long, deep strokes close to the beam. C: Members pulling ceilings should not stand directly below the ceiling being pulled; they should keep the work in front of them. Eye shields shall be used. D: When pulling sheet rock ceilings, be aware they may fall in large, heavy sections.

Answer: B Explanation: B) The ceiling is penetrated with one firm stroke with the hook end, PARALLEL to the lath. The hook is then turned to form a right angle to the lath and the ceiling is pulled with SHORT, SHARP strokes close to the beam. C Note: In close quarters, firefighters shall keep their heads down to prevent injury. Lad 3 7.4.1 A

Question 28: Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding the Workplace Violence Policy? A: Members who do not feel reporting to the officer will result in Corrective action can report directly to the Workplace Violence Coordinator. B: A witness to Workplace Violence shall complete and submit a report to their officer for forwarding. C: The Workplace Violence Prevention Policy is required to be on display on firehouse bulletin boards. D: Once the officer receives the report, it shall be forwarded through the chain of Command to the Workplace Violence Coordinator.

Answer: C Explanation: PA/ID 1/2011 – WORKPLACE VIOLENCE PREVENTION POLICY C IS INCORRECT - A copy of the written Workplace Violence Prevention Policy is available on the Fire Department Intranet. It may also be obtained by requesting a hard copy from a supervisor or the FDNY OSHA Unit. 1.5 A – 10.4.1 B – 10.2.1 D – 11.1.1

Question 29: While searching a plane crash site on JFK property, you discovered a flight data recorder, which was rectangular. The correct color of this rectangular flight data recorder can be found in which choice? A: International Orange B: International Red C: Bright Yellow D: Bright Orange

Answer: A Explanation: As a general rule, the voice and flight data recorders are located in the rear of the fuselage. Spherical recorders are painted bright yellow, while rectangular recorders are red or international orange. Once located and secured, the recorders must not be opened or tampered with AUC 325 sec 4.2.3

Question 30: Which of the following statements concerning venting for extinguishment is incorrect? A: This ventilation tactic requires venting the window(s) of the immediate fire area while the engine company is stretching the hoseline to the point of operation. B: Before venting the window(s), the member must communicate and coordinate with the Ladder Company Officer inside the fire area to be vented. C: This horizontal ventilation for extinguishment tactic only applies to the window(s) in the immediate fire area (fire compartment) and only for the member venting the immediate fire area. D: The notification from the engine officer to the ECC to start water, and from the engine officer to the IC that water is being applied to the main body of fire are indications for the exterior member to prepare to conduct ventilation for extinguishment.

Answer: A Explanation: A. This ventilation tactic requires venting the window(s) of the immediate fire area while the engine company is EXTINGUISHING THE FIRE. Ventilation 11.2, 11.4

Question 31: Engine officers should develop a physical communication system with the nozzle firefighter for use when voice communications cannot be heard. Of the following touch signals indicated in Department publications, which one is correct? A: Open or close the nozzle – one or two slaps on the SCBA. B: Direction of stream – tap on the arm or nozzle, either left or right. C: Advance hoseline – steady push on back or SCBA. Stop line advance – pull back on shoulder, bunker coat, or SCBA. D: Emergency withdrawal – 3 slaps on the shoulder and pull in direction of retreat.

Answer: C Explanation: A) Open or close the nozzle – one or two slaps on the BACK or SHOULDER. B) Direction of stream – TUG on the arm or nozzle, either left or right. D) Emergency withdrawal – 4 SLAPS on the shoulder and pull in direction of retreat. Note: These touch signals can be used in conjunction with verbal commands to relay orders. Eng Ch 4 9.7

Question 32: The minimum safety distance when operating at a Energy Storage System (ESS) containing Lithium-Ion batteries can be correctly stated in which choice? A: 25 feet B: 50 feet C: 75 feet D: 100 feet

Answer: B Explanation: Minimum of 50 feet radius from the ESS container or cabinet Minimum of 100 feet from the container exhaust fan opening (usually located on the container's side opposite FDC)......Note, ESS cabinets may not have exhaust systems Haz-Mat 19 sec 4

Question 33: When operating near a suspected explosive device, HTs and cell phones shall not be used within how many feet of the device? A: 25 feet B: 50 feet C: 150 feet D: 300 feet

Answer: C Explanation: HT and cell phones shall not be used within 150 feet of a suspected device, and apparatus, Post and Marine radios should not be operated within 300 feet of a suspected device. These distances are only guidelines and should not normally hamper FDNY operations since the isolation zone surrounding a device would generally exceed 300 feet ERP add 3 sec 4.1.1

Question 34: A ladder company is drilling with a junior firefighter on cutting operations with the portable power saw. The lieutenant is discussing utilizing a “boxer stance” while cutting. He would be correct to advise the firefighter that his feet should be placed how far apart when taking this stance? A: 16-18 inches B: 18-20 inches C: 20-22 inches D: 22-24 inches

Answer: B Explanation: *MAKE SURE YOU LOOK AT PICTURES FOR ANY POSSIBLE TEST QUESTIONS* TB Tools 9 Figure 3

Question 35: You are the officer on duty in Ladder 171 and a firefighter advises you that she is scheduled to work a mutual on Monday’s Day tour before her own tour Monday night. She also advises you that she is scheduled to begin vacation Tuesday 0900 and that she received a jury duty alert notice effective Monday. According to the regulations surrounding Jury Duty, which was the only CORRECT info you according to the Jury Duty PA/ID? A: You advise her that her vacation leave will be postponed by the Jury Duty Alert. B: You advise her that she is unable to participate in a mutual exchange of tours while on Jury Duty Alert. C: You advise her that if summoned for jury duty leave, the leave will begin at 0900 on the day scheduled for the start of service. D: You advise here that Jury duty leave will end at 1800 hours on the last day of jury duty service.

Answer: B Explanation: PA/ID – 1 CHAPTER 8 – JURY DUTY LEAVE B IS CORRECT - 6.1.1 Members shall not participate in any mutual exchange of tours from 1800 hours on the Sunday prior to the first day of Jury Duty Alert (or 1800 hours on Monday if Monday is a holiday), until they are either released from their jury duty obligation or their period of standby notification expires, whichever is first. B – Vacation is interrupted by Jury Duty SERVICE – Not Jury Duty Alert. 8.1 & 8.2 C – The leave will begin at 1800 hours on the day before the scheduled start of service. 4.2 D – Jury duty leave will end at 0900 following the last date of jury duty service. 4.3

Question 36: Fire extension is always a possibility when fighting a fire in an H-type building. Which of the following choices is incorrect? A: The most probable point for vertical fire extension will be the vertical steel channels (in buildings that have steel frame construction). These columns have no specific location and many are completely hidden. Any boxed out area, if involved in fire, must be opened up and examined. B: Closets are a very probable point of vertical extension. At times the vertical steel columns are located in the walls of these closets. C: Always examine walls in the vicinity of the bathroom for the large void enclosing the waste pipe. D: In renovated and/or rehabilitated buildings, the boxed out interior shafts for plumbing, electrical, steam, etc., must be checked as they may be open from basement to cockloft. These large shafts are generally found behind kitchens and bathrooms and are discernible by unusually thin partition walls, which readily blend in with features of the previous structure.

Answer: D Explanation: D) In renovated and/or rehabilitated buildings, the boxed out interior shafts for plumbing, electrical, steam, etc., must be checked as they may be open from basement to cockloft. These large shafts are generally found behind kitchens and bathrooms and are discernible by UNUSUALLY THICK partition walls, which are INCONSISTENT with previous structures. Note: Other vertical voids to examine would be pipe recesses and shafts of any type, such as elevator, dumbwaiter, vents etc. Any time fire enters a vertical void, the top and bottom must be checked for extension. Note: Fires in channel rails necessitate opening up above and at the top floor ceiling to check for extension into the cockloft. MD Ch 1 4.10.1, 4.10.2

Question 37: Emergency shoring may be required at the scene of a structural collapse. Of the following choices, which is not consistent with Department policy? A: First arriving units (except for Rescue and Squad) are never permitted to perform emergency shoring as they are not trained to conduct such operations. B: Units other than Rescue or Squad Companies should not perform any cutting of load bearing elements, since first alarm units are not trained or equipped to properly shore around such loads. C: As a guideline, the FDNY will only install shoring whenever human life is in danger to provide a safe area around victims/rescuers, or when shoring will permit a building to remain safe to occupy. D: A vacant or unoccupied building will not be shored when there is a substantial risk to members installing the shoring, or the use of shoring is unlikely to substantially improve the overall outcome.

Answer: A Explanation: A) First arriving units MAY be forced to perform some “emergency” shoring using available materials on hand in order to SAFELY REACH TRAPPED VICTIMS. B Note: Once a Rescue Company is on-scene, the installation of additional shoring should generally be left to these units, supported by Squad Companies and SOC Support Ladder Companies. C Note: Buildings in which there is no civilian life hazard will only be shored if the shoring can be safely installed at minimal risk to members, and where there is a substantial property risk that can be safeguarded by the shoring. D Note: If the building is going to be demolished, even after shoring, it will not be shored, except to facilitate rescue operations or the safe evacuation of occupants. Note: Once installed, shoring will only be removed when the load is otherwise stabilized, or the situation permits the shores to be removed from a safe area. Collapse 11.5

Question 38: Hi-Ex foam is best suited for use in confined areas on Class “A” fires. Several features of Hi-Ex foam are outlined below. Which one is correct? A: Hi-Ex is effective at suppressing or minimizing the release of toxic or flammable vapors including Liquified Petroleum Gas (LPG). B: Fresh or salt water can be used to develop Hi-Ex foam. C: Maintain between 150 PSI and 200 PSI a the inlet of the educator to deliver sufficient water under proper pressure to the foam generator. D: The eductor may be placed one length from the pumper or at the generator; at the generator is the recommended position for most fire situations.

Answer: B Explanation: A. Hi-Ex is effective at suppressing or minimizing the release of toxic or flammable vapors WITH THE EXCEPTION OF Liquified Petroleum Gas (LPG). C. Maintain between 200 PSI AND 220 PSI a the inlet of the educator to deliver sufficient water under proper pressure to the foam generator. D. The eductor may be placed one length from the pumper or at the generator; ONE LENGTH FROM THE PUMPER is the recommended position for most fire situations. TB Foam 13.2, 13.8, 13.9, 13.10

Question 39: There are times when positioning a Tower Ladder in a vacant lot may be necessary to properly cover a fire building. When conducting this operation, each of the following choices should be followed except? A: The officer and chauffeur must conduct a survey for potential collapse zones and voids (cellar areas beneath foundations, drywells, drainage basins, cesspools, etc.) At times, only a portion of the Tower Ladder may have to be placed in a lot to obtain desired coverage. B: Where the ground is of doubtful stability, it may be more advantageous to position the apparatus perpendicular, or nearly perpendicular, to the fire building. C: Shoring placed under outriggers and jacks will provide greater stability. SOC may be able to facilitate operations where extensive shoring is required. D: When positioned in lots, the boom should be operated at right angles to the chassis at low elevations to improve performance.

Answer: D Explanation: D) When positioned in lots, the boom should not be operated at right angles to the chassis at low elevations; it should be operated at narrow angles over the front and rear of the apparatus. B Note: This will tend to equalize pressure on the outriggers resulting from lateral movement of the boom, thereby reducing the possibility of the apparatus "pole vaulting" should the footing of an outrigger collapse. TL Ch 2 2.5

Question 40: Members who work in certain areas of NYC should be familiar with “Segmental Arch Floors.” Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding these construction features? A: Segmental Arch Floors are found in newer Cast-iron loft buildings as well as some Mill construction. B: Segmental Arch Floors were used to span the gap between cast-iron or wrought iron I-beams. C: All parts of a floor arch system are in compression. Wrought-iron rods run from beam to beam to counter the outward thrust of the arch, which was exerted on the beams. D: Segmental Arch Floors should be carefully breached, when required for ventilation or to check for extension.

Answer: D Explanation: D) Segmental Arch Floors should NOT be breached for fear of causing a general floor collapse spanning a wide area. Loft 5.2.1