LT PKG EXAM #1

Question 1

Question 1:
All Engine Officers should be familiar with the capabilities of Fire Department pumpers. In which choice below is the information incorrect?

A: “High Pressure Engines” have been fitted with a high-pressure discharge elbow and issued specialized high-pressure equipment which allows them to safely perform high-pressure pumping operations up to 600 psi.

B: “3rd Stage Engines” have been fitted with two special high-pressure discharge elbows and issued high-pressure equipment which allows them to safely perform high-pressure pumping operations up to 700 psi.

C: The idle pressure of an apparatus in “Volume” Operation is roughly 55 psi.

D: The idle pressure of an apparatus in “Pressure” Operation is roughly 85 psi.

Answer 1

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) The idle pressure of an apparatus in “Pressure” Operation is roughly 110 PSI.
Note: This is double the idle pressure in Volume (i.e. 55X2=110)
Eng Ops Ch 2 2.1.1, 2.1.3, 2.2.1 C, 2.2.2 C

Question 2

Question 2:
The FDNY has implemented the Community Assistance Program in 2019. This program assists children and adults who are experiencing trouble in the streets and seek refuge and/or help (e.g. harassment, being followed, abuse, etc.). From the choices listed below, choose the only correct procedure the officer on duty implemented when someone came seeking assistance.

A: While in quarters and someone requests assistance, the officer on duty remains in service and notifies the dispatcher and requests NYPD

B: While out of quarters and someone requests assistance, the officer on duty shall notify the dispatcher that the company is OOS and that the unit is operating at a verbal alarm to assist a civilian. Request NYPD and give particulars as warranted

C: A letterhead report, with full endorsements shall be forwarded to the Fire Commissioner after assistance has been mitigated

D: If child abuse is suspected, the officer on duty is mandated to file a report

Answer 2

Answer B

Explanation:
A- While in quarters the officer shall notify the dispatcher the unit is operating at a verbal alarm to assist a civilian and request NYPD that a civilian is in need of help (provide particulars)
C- A letterhead report, with full endorsements shall be forwarded to the CHIEF OF OPERATIONS
D- If child abuse is suspected, the officer on duty shall request NYPD, FDNY EMS Supervisor, and an ambulance. The ambulance crew will be responsible for filing the mandated report
AUC 3

Question 3

Question 3:
A new Lieutenant is working her first tour in Tower Ladder 99. The junior firefighter is busy inspecting the apparatus after roll call. Which one item listed below is required to be checked each tour on the apparatus?

A: Tire pressure

B: Hydraulic System

C: Intercom

D: Tower Ladder Emergency System

Answer 3

Answer: C

Explanation:
Checked Each Tour CODE: “Proby Inspect Rig First Sink Last”

Purge Air Tanks
Intercom (Note: This was added to the list to be checked EACH TOUR in 2019)
Response Warning Devices
Fill Fuel Tank
Seat Belts
Lights (Non-response Lights)

A, B, D are all Weekly Checks

TB Apparatus C-2 3.1

Question 4

Question 4:
Which size-up consideration is incorrectly described when dealing with a fire in a nonfireproof tenement?

A: Weather - The most serious factor at any fire.

B: Time - Governs the life hazard.

C: Occupancy - Determines the severity of the life hazard and the intensity of the fire.

D: Height - Governs the use of the Aerial and/or Tower Ladder and portable ladders.

Answer 4

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) Life - The most serious factor at any fire.
Acronym: COAL WAS WEALTH
Construction
Occupancy
Auxiliary Appliances
Life
Weather
Apparatus and Equipment
Street Conditions
Water Supply
Exposures
Area
Location and Extent
Time
Height
Lad 3 1.4.1

Question 5

Question 5:
Which of the following is not an accurate description of a high rise office building built after 1968?

A: Exterior walls are curtain walls constructed of a combination of glass and metal.

B: Exterior windows are usually not openable.

C: Fire towers are not required.

D: Core construction techniques are not used.

Answer 5

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) Core construction techniques are used extensively.
HROB 2.4.4, 2.4.9, 2.4.10, 2.4.12

Question 6

Question 6:
After a fierce debate during a recent study group regarding the Buckeye Pipeline, you discovered that the only correct statement made on this important subject can be found in which choice?

A: To shut off a manual valve, the 3’ 1/2” wrench is inserted into the valve box with the female end first, and turned 84 full turns clockwise

B: To shut off a manual valve on the Shipper’s lines, the 3’ 1/2” wrench is inserted into the valve box with the female end first, and turned 42 full turns clockwise

C: Engine Companies responding from quarters on the 2nd alarm for a street box associated with a leak should place additional cans of foam on the apparatus

D: Engine companies out of quarters receiving a notification to respond to a 2nd alarm for a pipeline leak must return to quarters for the additional cans of foam

Answer 6

Answer: C

Explanation:
AUC 149
A- 42 full turns (84 half turns)….sec 2.3.2
B- 24 full turns (48 half turns)…..sec 2.3.2
C- sec 4.12
D- Engine companies out of quarters receiving a notification to respond to a 2nd alarm for a pipeline leak must NOT return to quarters for the additional cans of foam….sec 4.12.Note

Question 7

Question 7:
An important element in the investigation of fire is the preservation and packaging of evidence. Which one method outlined below is incorrect?

A: One method is to use an air-tight container made from non-odorous materials such as a new one gallon metal paint can. (Never use a can that was previously used).

B: Try to avoid the use of plastic containers.

C: Never use a plastic bag.

D: If a new can is not available, use a clean glass jar with a tightly fitting lid.

Answer 7

Answer: C

Explanation:
C. A plastic bag CAN BE USED IN AN EMERGENCY. It should be new, of heavy gauge and used in pairs.

TB Arson has been it on many past company officer exams

TB Arson 5.3

Question 8

Question 8:
Portable ladders are an important tool in the arsenal of Fire Departments. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: The base of the portable aluminum ladder is provided with either steel spikes or swiveling rubber safety shoes and aluminum spikes. For ladders equipped with the swiveling device, the rubber pads should be utilized when the ladder is to be raised and used on hard surfaces.

B: If ladders cannot be held securely, the Fire Tools and Equipment Unit shall immediately be notified by telephone, a requisition forwarded and an entry made in the company journal. Provision shall be made to secure ladders as safely as possible pending repair or relocation and these temporary fastenings shall be checked after each response.

C: If the officer on duty feels that a particular ladder cannot be temporarily secured to the spare apparatus in a safe manner, and there is a danger of loss of the ladder during response, the ladder shall be left off the apparatus and an entry made in the company journal.

D: 20 foot straight and/or 35 foot extension ladders are carried in the internal slide-in racks on ladder company apparatus. If another apparatus arriving at a fire or emergency is positioned closer than 35 feet to the rear of the ladder apparatus, these ladders cannot be removed from the racks due to insufficient clearance.

Answer 8

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) 20 foot straight and/or 35 foot extension ladders are carried in the internal slide-in racks on ladder company apparatus. If another apparatus arriving at a fire or emergency is positioned closer than 20 FEET to the rear of the ladder apparatus, these ladders cannot be removed from the racks due to insufficient clearance.
Lad 1 2.2, 5, 7.1

Question 9

Question 9:
Firefighters at Engine Company 269 are discussing receiving responses on the PC/ATS Housewatch Computer with the new proby and the following statements were made. Which one is CORRECT?

A: When a response is received, the housewatch firefighter is responsible for acknowledging for units responding from “on the air” as well as in quarters.

B: The Housewatch has 60 seconds to acknowledge. If there is no response in 60 seconds, the dispatcher will prompt the unit to verify response via the voice alarm.

C: If more than one unit is responding, unit identification buttons must first be depressed for all such units followed by 10-4 and send buttons.

D: To obtain additional copies of a response message, press the 10-4 button followed by send. Before any copies of response messages are made, all responding units shall acknowledge.

Answer 9

Answer: C

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS CHAPTER 2 – COMPUTER ASSISTED DISPATCH
C IS CORRECT 2.2.1D
A – The housewatch acknowledges only for those units responding from quarters. 2.2.1B
B - 20 seconds 2.2.1C
D – Press the 10-5 button followed by send. 2.2.1E

Question 10

Question 10:
Brownstone buildings were built in the late 1800’s as private dwellings. Of the choices below, which contains incorrect information regarding these structures?

A: They are three to five stories in height, with a cellar.

B: The basement is the first floor and the word “basement” shall only be used in fireground communications for Brownstone buildings.

C: The interior is of combustible construction, while the exterior shell is made of non-combustible material.

D: Their width is 20 to 25 feet, and their depth varies to about 60 feet.

Answer 10

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) The word basement shall NOT be used in fireground communications. Members referring to the first story of the building during fireground communications SHALL ONLY use the terminology, “first floor.”
BS/RF 2.1.1

Question 11

Question 11:
There are 9 classifications of Hazardous Materials (1-9). The classification number for Corrosives can be found in which choice?

A: 3

B: 6

C: 7

D: 8

Answer 11

Answer: D

Explanation:
Acronym: Every Good Lieutenant Standard Operating Procedure Requires Coordinated Members
1- Explosives
2- Gases (compressed)
3- Liquids (flammable)
4- Solids (flammable)
5- Oxidizers
6- Poisons
7- Radioactive Material
8- Corrosives
9- Miscellaneous Dangerous Goods
Haz Mat ch 2 sec 2.1

Question 12

Question 12:
Members operating at elevator incidents and emergencies must take certain precautions to ensure the operation is conducted as safely as possible. Which elevator SOP outlined below is correct?

A: When passengers are removed from a car between floors, they should be taken up and out of the car if practical.

B: When performing emergency removal procedures shutting power is essential and one member should be dispatched to the elevator machinery room to shut off power to the stalled car.

C: Primary and secondary removal procedures are simple approaches and may be performed without turning off the elevator power.

D: Upon completion of the operation restore power to the stalled car.

Answer 12

Answer: A

Explanation:
B. When performing emergency removal procedures shutting power is essential and TWO MEMBERS should be dispatched to the elevator machinery room to shut off power to the stalled car.

C. PRIMARY REMOVAL procedures are simple approaches and may be performed without turning off the elevator power.

WHENEVER SECONDARY OR EMERGENCY POWER REMOVAL PROCEDURES ARE USED, POWER REMOVAL IS ESSENTIAL.

D. Upon completion of the operation DO NOT restore power to the stalled car.

TB Elevators 3.3, 3.5.1, 3.5.2 B

Question 13

Question 13:
Which private dwelling description is not entirely accurate?

A: Balloon frame construction is commonly found in Straight Line Colonial private dwellings.

B: A Wide Line Cape Style home may have two window dormers that are normally found facing the street. The presence of dormers usually increases the likelihood of 2nd floor bedrooms.

C: In Queen Anne type private dwellings, platform construction is most common and early attempts at built-in fire stopping are negated by poor workmanship, open holes for house service lines, etc.

D: Flat Roof Private Dwellings, in most cases, are readily apparent from the street. However, in some areas a decorative peak can be found in the front. The absence of a window in this peak may be an indication of a flat roof.

Answer 13

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) In Queen Anne type private dwellings, BALLOON construction is most common and early attempts at built-in fire stopping are negated by poor workmanship, open holes for house service lines, etc.
PD Ch 1 3.1 - 3.4

Question 14

Question 14:
The Abandoned Infant Protection Act was enacted for a mother or father to provide a safe place to abandon their infant. One of these safe places can be a local firehouse. Which choice below is incorrect in referencing The Abandoned Infant Protection Act.

A: Infants being abandoned must be not more than 30 days old, and members must inquire such age when receiving an infant.

B: Upon excepting custody of an infant, the officer shall place the unit OOS (10-99) until an ambulance has assumed custody of the infant

C: Upon excepting custody of an infant, the officer shall immediately notify their administrative battalion

D: When the dispatcher advises a Fire Company that an infant has been reported abandoned at the firehouse, the officer shall immediately order a diligent search of the area immediately adjacent to quarters. If search proves negative, the dispatcher shall be notified, and an Unusual Occurrence Report shall be forwarded. If an abandoned infant is found, follow all proper procedures

Answer 14

Answer: A

Explanation:
AUC 7
A- Members are not expected or required to determine if the infant is less than 30 days old or has been abused before assuming custody…sec 1.2.1 and 2.4
B- sec 2.1.1.Note
C- sec 2.6.1
D- 2.7, 2.7.1, 2.7.2………..If infant is found follow procedures in 2.1 and 2.2

Question 15

Question 15:
When necessary to shut down a malfunctioning hydrant using a street valve, which choice below indicates the correct action to close the valve?

A: 12 turns clockwise

B: 12 turns counter-clockwise

C: 17 turns clockwise

D: 17 turns counter-clockwise

Answer 15

Answer: D

Explanation:
Note: Not until about 12 turns is there a noticeable decrease in water flow.

Be careful with this, it’s the opposite of most valves that are clockwise to close and counter-clockwise to open.

TB Emergencies 3 6.2

Question 16

Question 16:
Engine Company equipment is vital to successful fire operations. In which choice below is the information presented incorrect?

A: The friction loss in each 50-foot length of 3 ½” hose is approximately 3 psi. This number depends upon several factors, including the length of the stretch and the amount of water flowing.

B: The only Outer Stream Tip (OST) used in the FDNY is the ½” tip. The OST should only be attached to the MST for the fire attack if deemed necessary by the Engine Officer.

C: When the cockloft nozzle is being used to extinguish fire in a cockloft, the nozzle may be placed above the ceiling on the top floor of a building or inverted and lowered into the cockloft area from the roof.

D: The Combination Nozzle System shall be visually inspected weekly.

Answer 16

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) The only Outer Stream Tip (OST) used in the FDNY is the ½” tip. The OST should ONLY be attached to the MST for OVERHAUL operations, if deemed necessary.
Eng Ops Ch 3 2.6.3 4, 3.4.2, 3.7.10 A, 3.7.11 E

Question 17

Question 17:
Engine 256 was in quarters and received a verbal for a person in cardiac arrest on the block. Which of the following actions taken by the company was INCORRECT?

A: They advised the dispatcher of the verbal alarm by selecting the verbal button on the PC/ATS.

B: They advised the dispatcher of the nature of the incident via telephone.

C: They advised the dispatcher of the location of the incident they were responding to via telephone.

D: They advised the dispatcher via apparatus radio that additional assistance was required.

Answer 17

Answer: A

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS CHAPTER 2 – COMPUTER ASSISTED DISPATCH
A IS INCORRECT 2.2.4 – There is no verbal button on the PC/ATS – Units receiving a verbal alarm while in quarters must notify the dispatcher as soon as possible via telephone or apparatus radio indicating.
B – 2.2.4A1
C – 2.2.4A2
D – 2.2.4A3

Question 18

Question 18:
Units must be properly positioned at the scene of a structural collapse. In which choice below is the positioning not in accordance with Department policy at a recent collapse?

A: Engine 1 and Engine 2 (the first and second arriving Engines) took separate hydrants outside the block, each on separate mains.

B: Engine 3 and Engine 4 (the third and fourth arriving Engines) took hydrants at the rear of the structure.

C: Engine 5 and Engine 6, both of which responded in on the second alarm, took positions to seal off the ends of the street. The chauffeurs of these units remained in the cab.

D: The first arriving Truck, Ladder 1 (aerial ladder), positioned the apparatus in front of the collapsed structure, outside of the collapse danger zone, while waiting for the arrival of Ladder 2 (tower ladder.)

Answer 18

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) The first arriving Truck, Ladder 1 (aerial ladder), positioned the apparatus away from the front of the building in a secondary staging area. The second arriving Truck, Ladder 2 (tower ladder), was placed in front of the collapsed structure, outside of the collapse danger zone.
Aerial ladders should be kept away from the front of the building in a secondary staging area unless needed for specific rescue purposes.
Subsequent arriving tower ladders should be positioned to reach and protect a different exposure.
Collapse 5.3, 5.4

Question 19

Question 19:
When operating at a Brush fire the proper terminology must be used when referencing the fire itself. Choose the incorrect terminology.

A: The head of the fire is the leading edge of a moving fire

B: The rear of the fire is the side opposite the head

C: Looking at the fire from the front (head) the left side is called the left flank while the right side is called the right flank

D: Fingers are strips of long thin sections of fire extending outward from the main blackened fire area

Answer 19

Answer: C

Explanation:
Looking at the fire from the REAR the left side is called the left flank while the right side is called the right flank
AUC 159 sec 3.3

Question 20

Question 20:
Lieutenant Newbie is discussing the increase in gas related emergencies that have occurred over the last few years. He is explaining some of the properties of natural gas to his firefighters. Which point made was incorrect?

A: Depending on the mixture, the explosive range is 5%-15%.

B: It has a natural “rotting” smell that aids in detection.

C: It is significantly lighter than air.

D: It is non-toxic, but in sufficient quantity can displace oxygen and cause asphyxiation.

Answer 20

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. It is COLORLESS AND ODORLESS; HOWEVER, TO AID IN DETECTION, MERCAPTAN IS ADDED TO NATURAL GAS AS AN ODORANT, GIVING IT A “ROTTING” SMELL.

Note “C”: Cross Ref Haz Mat 1 3.5.1 C: Natural gas is lighter than air (2/3 as heavy).

Natural Gas 3.0

Question 21

Question 21:
The science behind fire dynamics is not always easy to understand. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: Pyrolysis is the chemical decomposition of a solid material caused by the absorption of heat. Pyrolysis often precedes combustion.

B: “Surface to Mass Ratio” significantly affects the ease of ignition of solid fuels.

C: Liquids are converted into gas by vaporization. Examples include boiling water or water in a container evaporating in sunlight.

D: Surface to Volume Ratio significantly affects the ease of ignition of liquid fuels. The greater the surface area compared to volume, the slower the liquid will vaporize.

Answer 21

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) Surface to Volume Ratio significantly affects the ease of ignition of liquid fuels. The greater the surface area compared to volume, the FASTER the liquid will vaporize.
TB FD 2.5.1, 2.5.2, 2.5.4

Question 22

Question 22:
When operating at a Haz-Mat incident, which area represents the Warm Zone?

A: Exclusion Zone

B: Contamination Reduction Zone

C: Support Zone

D: Torrid Zone

Answer 22

Answer: B

Explanation:
A- Exclusion Zone- Hot Zone
B- Contamination Reduction Zone- Warm Zone
C- Support Zone- Cold Zone
D- Not in our books
ERP sec 4.1.4

Question 23

Question 23:
Two-in two-out is a federally recognized safety standard set forth by OSHA. Which of the following components of this policy listed below is incorrect?

A: No member shall enter, leave or operate in an IDLH atmosphere unless the members teams-up with at least one other member and remains within visual or voice contact with that member.

B: If a known life hazard is discovered and immediate action is necessary to prevent the loss of life, appropriate action (rescue activity) may be taken by an individual member.

C: In all cases of such individual action, the company officer of the member performing the rescue shall forward a report detailing the full particulars to the Chief of Operations.

D: A known life hazard is defined as follows: a victim can be seen or heard by the rescuer; or a member has information from a credible source or person at the scene indicating the location of the life hazard.

Answer 23

Answer: C

Explanation:
C. In all cases of such individual action, the INCIDENT COMMANDER shall forward a report detailing the full particulars to the Chief of Operations.

MMID 1.2, 1.3, 1.4

Question 24

Question 24:
Which of the following is CORRECT regarding relocations?

A: If Ladder 171 is the second relocator into the quarters of Ladder 177, the members shall use the ACT’G button to acknowledge a response.

B: If Engine 256 original and Ladder 139 Act’g are both in quarters and both units receive a phone alarm response, the members shall acknowledge by pressing the 256 button and 139 ACT’G buttons simultaneously followed by 10-4.

C: Relocated units must be 10-8 before attempting to go AQ via the PC/ATS in their quarters.

D: If the original unit goes 10-8 while a relocated unit is in quarters. the relocator must immediately contact the dispatcher to receive a return from relocation ticket.

Answer 24

Answer: C

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS CHAPTER 2 – COMPUTER ASSISTED DISPATCH
C IS CORRECT – 2.2.6D
A – 2.2.6B NOTE – The ACT’G button can only be used by the first relocator into the original unit.
B – 2.2.6B – Acknowledgements and status updates involving relocated units must be done independently.
D – 2.2.6D – If the original unit goes 10-8 while the first relocator is in their quarters, a return from relocation ticket will be sent to that firehouse informing the relocated unit to return to its own quarters. If the ticket is not forthcoming, the relocated unit shall call the dispatcher by telephone.

Question 25

Question 25:
ECC Thomson was instructing other members of his company on proper pressures and friction loss in hoselines. In which choice was a correct comment made?

A: The friction loss in each 50-foot length of 1 ¾” hose is 30 psi.

B: 2 ½” hose is the most versatile type of hose in the FDNY and can be used as an attack line at a fire or emergency or as a supply line in a number of situations. The friction loss in each length is 5 psi.

C: 2” lightweight hose is red, with green stripes, and is only used as the lead (nozzle) length on the attack line from a standpipe system in residential buildings. The friction loss in each length of lightweight 2” hose is 10 psi.

D: 2 ½” lightweight hose is white, with red stripes, and is used as an attack line when using a standpipe system. The friction loss in each length of lightweight 2 ½” hose is 10 psi.

Answer 25

Answer: B

Explanation:
B
A) The friction loss in each 50-foot length of 1 ¾” hose is 20 PSI.
C) 2” lightweight hose is GREEN, with RED STRIPES, and is only used as the lead (nozzle) length on the attack line from a standpipe system in residential buildings. The friction loss in each length of lightweight 2” hose is 10 psi.
D) 2 ½” lightweight hose is white, with red stripes, and is used as an attack line when using a standpipe system. The friction loss in each length of lightweight 2 ½” hose is 5 PSI.
Note: Notice the trend - in general, the smaller the hose diameter, the larger the friction loss.
Eng Ops Ch 3 2.2.3, 2.3.1 D, 2.3.4 D, 2.4.1, 2.4.3, 2.4.4 D, 2.5.1, 2.5.3, 2.5.4 D

Question 26

Question 26:
When operating at a suspected explosive device, HT and cell phones shall not be used within how many feet of the device?

A: 50’

B: 75’

C: 100’

D: 150’

Answer 26

Answer: D

Explanation:
ERP add 3 sec 4.1.1

Question 27

Question 27:
After the start of the tour, in order to be in-service as a CFR-D unit for CFR-D responses, what is the correct minimum staffing of CFR-D certified personnel?

A: 2 firefighters

B: 2 members (2 firefighters or 1 firefighter & 1 officer)

C: 3 firefighters

D: 3 members (3 firefighters or 2 firefighters & 1 officer)

Answer 27

Answer: B

Explanation:
Note: While CFR-D Units must begin each tour with two certified firefighters, in the event that during a tour the minimum staffing reduces to 1 firefighter and 1 officer, the company shall remain available for CFR-D responses.

CFR Ch 2 1.8 & Note

Question 28

Question 28:
You are a new Lieutenant and respond to a report of a manhole fire. Upon arrival you discover no fire, but see smoke issuing under pressure. You should transmit what signal?

A: 10-25 code 1

B: 10-25 no code

C: 10-25 code 3

D: 10-25 code 2

Answer 28

Answer: D

Explanation:
Comm 8 p. 8-8
10-25-2 is for a blown cover or smoke issuing under pressure. Smoke SEEPING would be a code 3.

Question 29

Question 29:
Two newly appointed members discussing fire dynamics disagreed on which incorrect point?

A: Combustion is a chemical process of oxidation that occurs at a rate fast enough to produce heat and usually light in the form of either a glow or flame. Combustion can occur without fire.

B: The “fire triangle” best illustrates the elements required for non-flaming combustion; when burning is localized on or near the fuel’s surface where it is in contact with oxygen.

C: The “fire tetrahedron” was created to explain flaming combustion. Each element; fuel, oxygen, heat and uninhibited chemical chain reaction, must be present for flaming combustion.

D: Considering solids, liquids and gases, liquid fuels can be the most dangerous, because they are already in the natural state required for ignition and are the most difficult to contain.

Answer 29

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) Considering solids, liquids and gases, GASEOUS FUELS can be the most dangerous, because they are already in the natural state required for ignition and are the most difficult to contain.
TB FD 2.2, 2.3, 2.4.1, 2.5.5

Question 30

Question 30:
The procedures following the shutting of a valve on the Buckeye Pipeline can be correctly found in all of the following except?

A: When units have the responsibility of closing a manual valve and patrolling to adjacent valve(s), both functions are carried out simultaneously

B: Foot patrols are conducted by two handie talkie equipped FFs

C: When a unit officer determines that the duties of shutting down valves and patrolling the pipeline cannot be accomplished the officer must request the response of another unit directly through the dispatcher.

D: If a leak is discovered during patrol, the apparatus shall not be brought closer than 200’ to a leak

Answer 30

Answer: D

Explanation:
AUC 149
A- sec 6.3.2
B- sec 6.3.2.A
C- sec 6.3.2 B
D- If a leak is discovered during patrol, the apparatus shall not be brought closer than 500’ to a leak…sec 7.18
This not only removes a source of ignition but removes personnel from any vapor cloud present.

Question 31

Question 31:
Ladder 100 arrives at the Rock for an extrication drill. The instructor is discussing safe operating procedures in the vicinity of airbags. He makes the following statements, but was incorrect in which one?

A: Airbag systems are equipped with an energy storage feature that enables them to deploy even when the battery has been destroyed in an accident.

B: Members should observe a 10” safe operating distance from driver airbags.

C: Newer systems include the use of dual stage inflators which basically means that just because an airbag has deployed, it does not mean there cannot be a second deployment.

D: Airbags can be deployed either electronically or mechanically. Disconnecting the battery will start the drain time, which varies, for both types of airbags.

Answer 31

Answer: D

Explanation:
D. Airbags can be deployed either electronically or mechanically. Disconnecting the battery will start the drain time, which varies, for AN ELECTRONICALLY ACTIVATED DEVICE, BUT NOT A MECHANICALLY ACTIVATED ONE.

Note “B”: CODE:

Side airbags = 5” (shortest word = shortest distance)
Driver airbags = 10” (middle length word = middle distance)
Passenger airbags = 20” (longest word = longest distance)

Disentanglement & Extrication 2.6

Question 32

Question 32:
Knowledge of the Tower Ladder apparatus is essential to effective firefighting operations. Which choice below is incorrect?

A: The outriggers, when fully extended, produce a solid foundation for the apparatus during operations involving the Tower Ladder bucket. All stabilizing components are equipped with locks (pins) that must be inserted manually in case of hydraulic failure.

B: Jacks and outriggers are controlled either through individual levers or an “All Jacks” lever which operates all jacks and outriggers simultaneously. The individual levers are the preferred method for lowering when on level ground.

C: Tower Ladders are not designed to operate with outriggers and jacks down on one side only. If the apparatus is not level, lower the jacks and outrigger on the low side first, followed by the jacks and outrigger on the high side until the green lights indicate that all stabilizers are properly deployed.

D: Stabilizers should not be lowered into deep sand or mud as these surfaces will not support the apparatus.

Answer 32

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) Jacks and outriggers are controlled either through individual levers OR an “All Jacks” lever which operates all jacks and outriggers simultaneously. The “ALL JACKS” is the preferred method for lowering when on level ground.
Note: Jacks and outriggers must be lowered until every green light is illuminated on the Outrigger Control Panel prior to raising the boom.
TL Ch 1 1.1

Question 33

Question 33:
All members should be familiar with Under River Rail Operations. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: On the track bed, personnel and evacuating passengers should walk between the running rails to avoid the danger of contacting the third rail.

B: Most tubes have no access to the adjacent tube throughout the underwater areas. You cannot ride a train halfway across the river, get out of the train and cross over to the adjoining tube.

C: Under river tubes are narrower than underground tunnels and there is very little space between the train and the tube. In the event of a collision or an explosion, it may be impossible to obtain access to the side of the train from the exterior.

D: A Tunnel-to-Tube Transition Area is the point where the underground tunnel connects to the under river tube. In most cases, it is the location of the last emergency exit and the last crossover to the adjacent tube until the other side of the river.

Answer 33

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) On the track bed, it would be unsafe to walk between the running rails due to the drainage trough. Personnel and evacuating passengers should walk in the area OUTSIDE the rails, OPPOSITE to the third rail; be aware that the 3rd rail may alternate sides.
URR Figure 1, 2.2.2, 2.4

Question 34

Question 34:
The incorrect procedure when operating at an Iroquois Pipeline (natural gas) incident can be found in which choice?

A: Due to the extreme high pressure found in this pipeline system, during a leak units must use a fog line to assist in dispersal

B: The initial actions of units responding to pipeline boxes are to set up a perimeter and eliminate sources of ignition

C: The primary consideration when operating at an Iroquois Pipeline incident is the evacuation of the area involved

D: Patrolling the pipeline to locate the leak will be performed by a Squad Company or SOC Support Ladder Company

Answer 34

Answer: A

Explanation:
AUC 150
A-Due to the extreme high pressure found in this pipeline system, consideration shall be given to allow escaping gas to naturally disperse into the atmosphere without the the use of fog lines to assist in dispersal. The use of fog lines may actually hinder the dissipation of the gas….sec 7.1.2
B- sec 7.1.1
C- sec 7.2.1
D- sec 7.2.3

Question 35

Question 35:
Places of worship have several unique architectural features that firefighters should be aware of in order to successfully mitigate fires in these occupancies. Which feature described below is incorrect?

A: The attic or cockloft vent provides an excellent location for water application to extinguish fire in the area above the concealed attic or cockloft. When located in the front of a place of worship, it will be a few feet below the Rose window.

B: A bell tower is considered a collapse hazard.

C: The upper portion of a masonry dome is always in compression while the base and lower portion is in tension.

D: Buttresses are fairly common on older places of worship, as a means of providing support to act against the lateral forces from the roof structures that lack adequate bracing.

Answer 35

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. The attic or cockloft vent provides an excellent location for water application to extinguish fire in the area above the concealed attic or cockloft. When located in the front of a place of worship, it will be a few feet ABOVE the Rose window.

This wasn’t an easy question but don’t give up the glossary when studying, especially when it contains a lot of unique information

Places of Worship Glossary

Question 36

Question 36:
Two ECCS discussing basic Engine operations were interrupted by the probationary firefighter who made which incorrect comment?

A: The Engine apparatus should be maintained in “Pressure Operation” unless the pumping operation needs to overcome head pressure (i.e. supplying a standpipe system in a high-rise building) in which case the pump should be switched to “Volume Operation”.

B: Switching from “Volume Operation” to “Pressure Operation” is done using the transfer valve. Prior to using the transfer valve, the engine RPM should be returned to idle pressure.

C: The Master Inlet Pressure Gauge is also called the “Intake Pressure Gauge” and provides a reading of the intake pressure of the apparatus (i.e. the pressure a hydrant is supplying to the apparatus.)

D: The Master Pressure Gauge provides a reading of the total amount of pressure currently being generated by the apparatus pump. When properly primed, this will be equal to the sum of the pressure the Engine is being supplied plus the additional pressure being generated by the pump.

Answer 36

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) The Engine apparatus should be maintained in “VOLUME Operation” unless the pumping operation needs to overcome head pressure (i.e. supplying a standpipe system in a high-rise building) in which case the pump should be switched to “PRESSURE Operation”.
Eng Ops Ch 2 2.3, 2.4, 6.1.4, 6.1.5. 7.3

Question 37

Question 37:
There are several Fire and Life Safety programs that officers and firefighters must be familiar with such as, Open House, Operation Sidewalk, Firehouse visits, etc. From the choices listed below, choose the incorrect statement made in regards to these programs.

A: Visits to the Firehouse are not to be scheduled during BISP, hydrant inspections, scheduled training activities or any other period designated by the Chief of Operations

B: All fire safety education programs are exempt from the 10-51

C: During Operation Sidewalk, units shall only respond to only 10-75 signals or greater

D: Units shall remain in service during Firehouse visits and Open House visits

Answer 37

Answer: B

Explanation:
AUC 4
A- sec 2.3
B- All fire safety education programs are exempt from the 10-51 EXCEPT Operation Sidewalk or when ordered by the Chief of Operations…sec 2.5 and 3.3.6
C- sec 3.3.2
D- 3.1.2 and 3.2.3

Question 38

Question 38:
Which of the following letters is CORRECT for an Engine Company designated as part of a Division Task Force?

A: I

B: K

C: D

D: T

Answer 38

Answer; B

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL - -COMPUTER ASSISTED DISPATCH
B IS CORRECT 2.12.1#2 PG 2-18 (Engine or Truck)
A – FireIce Unit
C – Tech Decon Task Force Engine
D – Transport Backup Unit (Engine or Truck)

Question 39

Question 39:
At gas emergencies, the ramifications of closing, or damaging, a main valve are far greater than closing or damaging a curb valve. When identifying these valves, which point below is incorrect?

A: Con Edison gas main valves have ID numbers on tags inside the valve cover.

B: Main valves covers are larger than curb valve covers to allow servicing and may be round or square.

C: Curb valves are always found on the sidewalk side of the curb, and these valves shut gas to the entire building.

D: Main valves are generally found near street corners, but may also be located along the street or on the sidewalk.

Answer 39

Answer: C

Explanation:
C. Curb valves are USUALLY found on the sidewalk side of the curb and these valves shut gas to the entire building.

Note: On the National Grid “Long Service” system, the curb valve is sometimes located across the street from the building it supplies, AND MAY BE FOUND IN THE STREET. This type of curb valve can be identified by an arrow cast into the cover pointing to the building it supplies.

Natural Gas 4.3 & 4.4

Question 40

Question 40:
The placement of an aerial ladder apparatus (tractor-trailer and rear mount) is dependent on four conditions. Which condition is listed incorrectly?

A: Whether immediate rescue is apparent.

B: Where no immediate rescue effort is required, the location and number of windows on the building.

C: Smoke, heat or fire causing an exposure that would endanger a victim, a member or the ladder.

D: Area or street conditions that might hamper optimum positioning.

Answer 40

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) Where no immediate rescue effort is required, the SIZE OF THE FRONTAGE of the building to be covered in case of future need.
Lad 2 2.1