UPDATES PKG EXAM #3

Question 1

Question 1:
Each of the following responses are classified correctly except?

A: Response to BARS alarms will be a single unit response – 1st due Engine only (emergency mode).

B: Response to Class “E” alarms will be a single unit response – 1st due Engine or Ladder (emergency mode).

C: Response to Class “J” alarms between 0700 and 1900 hours will be a single unit response (emergency mode).

D: Response to Class “J” alarms between 1900 and 0700 hours will be a single unit response (10-20 mode).

Answer 1

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) Response to Class “J” alarms between 1900 and 0700 hours will have 1ST DUE UNITS in EMERGENCY mode.
Comm 6 Add 1 2.2

Question 2

Question 2:
Tower Ladder 99 arrives on scene of worker who fell in a shaft at a construction site. The IC orders them to set the rig up as a high point anchor. The Lieutenant would be correct to consider which one point below?

A: The preferred location of the high point anchor is the top of the bucket.

B: The landing pads of the bucket should only be used as a high point anchor as a last resort.

C: The metal stokes basket should be utilized at all high point anchor operations.

D: The tower ladder can be used as a crane to “lift” a patient for life-saving purposes only.

Answer 2

Answer: C

Explanation:
A. The preferred location of the high point anchor is UNDER the bucket.

B. UNDER NO CIRCUMSTANCES SHALL the landing pads of the bucket be used as a high point anchor.

D. UNDER NO CIRCUMSTANCES SHOULD A tower ladder be used as a crane to “lift” a patient.

NEW INFO WHEN BULLETIN WAS RELAEASED IN OCTOBER 2019

Tower Ladder Ch 5 5.4

Question 3

Question 3:
During aircraft fires a transitional attack could be utilized. Transitional attack is correctly described below in all choices except?

A: Initially, application of extinguishing agents are used offensively, then, as additional resources arrive,lines are transitioned to a defensive attack.

B: A 10-86 should be considered for aircraft fires and/or spills in addition to the crash box assignment on airport property. The use of Foam Tankers, and Satellites will be needed at a large aircraft fire and/or spill.

C: For aircraft incidents off airport property, a 10-60 and 10-86 should be considered.

D: First alarm Engine Companies might need to consider the use of large caliber foam or water streams depending on fire conditions, life hazards and exposures.

Answer 3

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) Initially, mass application of extinguishing agents are used DEFENSIVELY, then, as additional resources arrive, hose-lines are advanced for an OFFENSIVE attack.
B Note: In addition to Foam and Haz-Mat resources assigned on the 10-86, Incident Commanders should consider utilizing the two assigned Purple K Units on the 10-86 for fires involving metal components and/or fires involving hazardous materials stored on the aircraft.
C Note: The first arriving Engines should follow the procedures found in Training Bulletins Foam:
1) First arriving units should place a foam handline into operation.
2) First alarm units should obtain a positive water source and set up for a Foam Tanker.
AUC 325 6.6.1-6.6.3

Question 4

Question 4:
Members of a Brooklyn ladder company are back at quarters discussing a fire in a Brownstone from earlier in the tour where a cornice was involved in fire. They made the following comments. Which one is incorrect?

A: When a cornice is exposed to heat or involved in fire, unless the exposure is minor, a cornice may become weakened and can suddenly, without warning, collapse at one end, swinging down across the front of the building injuring or killing firefighters at the other end.

B: A cornice is also a structure that can burn and spread fire.

C: If fire from any floor is auto-exposing and heating a cornice or has extended to the cornice, the rapid application of an exterior stream from a safe area may be utilized to limit the further weakening of the cornice and its connections.

D: Engine and ladder company operations may need to be conducted by flanking the front wall of the building or by operating only from “corner-safe” areas.

Answer 4

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. When a cornice is exposed to heat or involved in fire, EVEN IF THE EXPOSURE IS MINOR, a cornice may become weakened and can suddenly, without warning, collapse at one end, swinging down across the front of the building injuring or killing firefighters at the other end.

NEW SAFETY BULLETIN AS OF APRIL 2022

Safety Bulletin 7 Ch 6 4, 5, 9.2, 9.5

Question 5

Question 5:
For a fire on the first floor in a Place of Worship, the correct tactic/procedure can be found in which choice?

A: It’s not a must to ventilate the Rose window or side windows in conjunction with hoseline placement, its best to vent the window closet to the fire in conjunction with hoseline advancement and fire extinguishment

B: The first Ladder will ensure the cellar is examined for fire

C: When an Aerial Ladder is first to arrive, it should be set up in a corner safe area when possible

D: A properly positioned Tower Ladder can cover a building with a frontage of 125 feet

Answer 5

Answer: A

Explanation:
Places of Worship (2019)
A- sec 7.2.1
B- The SECOND Ladder will ensure the cellar is examined for fire…sec 7.3.2
C- Aerial Ladders are to placed away from the immediate fire building in order to leave the area accessible for a TL….sec 7.4.2
D- A properly positioned Tower Ladder can cover a building with a frontage of 100 feet…sec 8.9

Question 6

Question 6:
Natural vertical ventilation (ventilation without the use of fans), is an option at high rise office building fires and is accomplished by opening the doors at the top and bottom of the stairway once the fire is extinguished. This will increase the stack effect and assist in the removal of smoke via the stairway. Which of the following choices contains incorrect information?

A: Positive stack effect is the upward movement of air in a vertical shaft while negative stack effect is the downward movement of air in a vertical shaft.

B: Negative stack effect increases as the outside air temperature decreases in relation to the temperature inside the building. Positive stack effect may occur when the outside temperature is greater than the temperature inside the building.

C: Wind may overpower the stack effect. To obtain the greatest benefit from the stack effect, the doors at the top and bottom of the stairway must be opened when a stairway is used for smoke removal. The street floor near this stairway must also be vented to the outer air.

D: Fire towers are not recommended for use as fire attack stairs because they may draw the heat and smoke of the higher pressure area near the fire, towards the possible lower pressure area of the stairway.

Answer 6

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) POSITIVE stack effect increases as the outside air temperature decreases in relation to the temperature inside the building. NEGATIVE stack effect may occur when the outside temperature is greater than the temperature inside the building.
The stack effect of vertical shafts could cause the movement of air into the building and not allow the smoke to escape to the exterior.
Horizontal ventilation by the removal or opening of windows - safety precautions shall be taken in the area that will be affected by falling glass shards.
Horizontal ventilation should be the last consideration as its effects are least likely to be beneficial.
HROB 6.3.8 D, E

Question 7

Question 7:
Various size hoselines are acceptable at fireproof loft building fires based on the type of occupancy and conditions encountered. Which one provision mentioned is incorrect?

A: When the standpipe system is used in any fireproof residential loft building, the initial hoselines should have a lead length of 2-inch lightweight hose (with a 1 -inch tip).

B: In a residential fireproof loft, if hoselines are stretched from the apparatus in a building equipped with a standpipe, the use of 2 1/2 hose is not mandated.

C: When using a standpipe system for large fires in large, uncompartmented areas in a loft building, a lead length of 2 1/2 inch lightweight hose should be used.

D: For fire operations in non-residential fireproof loft buildings, initial hoselines shall be 2 1/2 inch.

Answer 7

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. When the standpipe system is used in a fireproof residential loft building, the initial hoselines MAY have a lead length of 2-inch lightweight hose (with a 1 -inch tip). HOWEVER, WHEN USING THE STANDPIPE SYSTEM FOR LARGE FIRES IN LARGE, UNCOMPARTMENTED AREAS IN ANY LOFT BUILDING, A LEAD LENGTH OF 2 1/2 INCH LIGHTWEIGHT HOSE SHOULD BE USED.

THIS WAS UPDATED IN MAY 2022

LOFTS 6.3.1, 6.3.2

Question 8

Question 8:
Which duty of the 1st arriving Ladder Company is not in compliance with Department policy for a fire in a high rise office building?

A: Realize that due to the HVAC and stack effect, smoke can permeate the entire zone (up to 25 floors) and cause confusion as to the specific fire floor. Numerous reports of fire or smoke may be received and even the original alarm may be from the incorrect floor.

B: Proceed to a floor at least two floors below the fire floor using a “Fire Service” elevator. A firefighter equipped with a HT shall be assigned to remain with the elevator and to operate the elevator until relieved.

C: Upon arrival at the floor below the fire, determine if the reported fire floor is the correct location and return the elevator to the lobby to transport engine companies.

D: Determine the location of the fire on the fire floor and select the best attack stairway. Once selected, the Ladder Company Officer shall notify the IC of the identity of the attack stairway.

Answer 8

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) Determine the location of the fire on the fire floor and COMMUNICATE with the ENGINE OFFICER to assist in determining the best attack stairway. Once selected, the ENGINE OFFICER shall notify the IC of the identity of the attack stairway.
HROB 8.3.1

Question 9

Question 9:
The Drager 6500 CO meter is has been issued to units for monitoring Carbon Monoxide (CO) gas in ambient air. Which one feature of this meter is described incorrectly?

A: The Drager meter is always to remain on.

B: The alarm threshold 2 (A2) is activated at 100 PPM and cannot be acknowledged or be silenced.

C: The alarm threshold 1 (A1) is activated at 35 PPM and can be acknowledged and silenced by pressing the OK button.

D: The Drager CO meter will display reading up to 2000 PPM.

Answer 9

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. The alarm threshold 2 (A2) is activated at 100 PPM and CAN BE acknowledged AND silenced BY PRESSING THE OK BUTTON.

THIS SPECIFIC FEATURE WAS UPDATED MARCH 2021

Haz Mat Ch 4 Addendum 2 2.1, 2.3, 2.5, 2.7

Question 10

Question 10:
What is the primary in-building repeater channel for an FDNY programmed auxiliary radio communications system (ARCS)?

A: Channel 9

B: Channel 10

C: Channel 11

D: Channel 12

Answer 10

Answer: C

Explanation:
A. Tactical Secured
B. Command Secured
D. Secondary in-building repeater channel (ARCS)

CHAPTER UPDATED JULY 2020

Communication Ch 13 3.1

Question 11

Question 11:
There are five major defects or faults in the construction of Places of Worship. The incorrect defect/fault can be found in which choice?

A Collapse potential found in the later stages of the fire

B: Numerous concealed voids

C: The vast quantity of combustible material used in the truss roof construction

D: Lack of fire suppression and detection systems

E: Large open areas with limited or no fire stopping

Answer 11

Answer: A

Explanation:
Places of Worship (2019) sec 1.3.11
A- Early collapse potential

Question 12

Question 12:
There are certain tasks that a Fire Safety/Emergency Action Plan Director (FS/EAPD) can be expected to fulfill in the event of an emergency. Which of the following is incorrect?

A: The FS/EAPD is responsible for communicating with building occupants during emergencies utilizing the building’s Fire Alarm Communications System. Announcements should be made on a regular basis to keep occupants up-to-date on the progress of the incident.

B: First arriving units should request a briefing on any and all actions taken prior to their arrival.

C: Units should be aware that the FS/EAPD is authorized to implement the Emergency Action Plan (EAP) and take actions to ensure occupant safety.

D: FS/EAPS actions may include public announcements and evacuations. The use of elevators by building is not permissible.

Answer 12

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) FS/EAPS actions may include ELEVATOR RECALL, public announcements and evacuations. The use of elevators by building personnel to facilitate the movement of occupants IS permissible and should be anticipated under the EAP.
A Note: The Incident Commander can also direct the FS/EAPD to make announcements as necessary.
HROB Add 1 4

Question 13

Question 13:
Following a major collision, if it becomes imperative to an involved tractor trailer, how many corners of the tractor trailer must be marked?

A: 2

B: 4

C: 6

D: 8

Answer 13

Answer: C

Explanation:
THIS CHANGED FROM PREVIOUS VERSION OF THE SAFETY BULLETIN

OTHER THAN TRACTOR TRAILER, THE FOUR CORNERS OF INVOLVED VEHICLES GET MARKED

Safety Bulletin 3 10.2

Question 14

Question 14:
Which consideration is not in accordance with Department policy when it comes to aircraft fire operations?

A: Overhaul should be conducted if needed; however, during this phase any potential evidence of a crime should be safeguarded as per FDNY procedures.

B: Engine Companies will need to ensure escape/egress paths are protected by large caliber streams and/or handlines. Handlines might also be needed to suppress fire inside the aircraft.

C: It is extremely crucial that Fire apparatus and/or handlines are positioned to ensure that escape/egress paths are protected.

D: Operations shall be conducted from an upwind position; in no case shall an attack be conducted from a downwind position.

Answer 14

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) Operations are typically from an upwind position; however, an attack from a downwind position is ACCEPTABLE when operations preclude an upwind attack and escape/egress paths need to be protected for the crew and passengers.
AUC 325 6.7.5, 6.7.6

Question 15

Question 15:
How long shall the company journal be retained?

A: Indefinitely

B: 10 years

C: 15 years

D: 20 years

Answer 15

Answer: A

Explanation:
UPDATED WITH RELEASE OF NEW BULLETIN APRIL 2022

Regulations Ch 15 15.2.2

Question 16

Question 16:
The fourth arriving Ladder Company’s duties at a high rise office building fire are correctly indicated in all choices below except?

A: Upon arrival at the roof area, do not undertake roof ventilation unless ordered by the Incident Commander. Determine the identification of all stairways and elevator shafts so that when ordered, the correct ventilation can be carried out.

B: Conduct a primary search of the top five floors. Remove any occupants to a safe area or assure the occupants that they are safe to remain where they are. Remain in the roof area to monitor and report any changing condition until otherwise ordered by the IC.

C: A logical assignment after roof operations would be the lower floors of the elevator bank serving the top floor.

D: Operate under the control of the IC until the SAE Group is established, at which time they shall operate under the command of the SAE Group Supervisor.

Answer 16

Answer: A

Explanation:
C) A logical assignment after roof operations would be the UPPER FLOORS of the elevator bank serving the FIRE floor.
HROB 8.6

Question 17

Question 17:
Which of the following items is the only one not required to be included in the standpipe kit?

A: Pipe wrench (18 inch)

B: Spare operating wheels

C: 2 1/2 inch in-line pressure gauge

D: 1 1/2 inch to 2 1/2 inch increaser

Answer 17

Answer: B

Explanation:
CODE: “CAP SING”

CHOCKS
ADAPTER
PIPE WRENCH (18 INCH)
SPANNERS
INCREASER (1 1/2 TO 2 1/2)
NOZZLE (2 1/2 NOZZLE WITH 1 1/8 MST)
GAUGE (2 1/2)

SPARE WHEELS NO LONGER REQUIRED IN NEW ENGINE OPS AUGUST 2021

Engine Ops Ch 8 6.2, 6.3

Question 18

Question 18:
While drilling on aircraft incident response, members of the first due Ladder Company to JFK airport had to correct FF Maverick when he made which incorrect statement?

A: Members should be mindful of the dangers created by engine exhaust/ intakes; an unsuspecting rescuer within 100 feet of an operating engine could be drawn into the engine.

B: Auxiliary power units (APUs) are found on aircraft, typically in the tail; these units power the aircraft on the ground when the engines are off or idling.

C: Emergency escape slide systems can be found attached to each aircraft door and, depending on the type of aircraft, to exits found over wings. If the slide is opened from the interior by the crew it could seriously injure unsuspecting emergency personnel.

D: Never operate in the line of fire of any potential ordinance found on military aircraft. Avoid areas that appear to contain weapon systems.

Answer 18

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) Members should be mindful of the dangers created by engine exhaust/ intakes; an unsuspecting rescuer within 40 FEET of an operating engine could be drawn into the engine.
B Note: During any operation the IC should request that the engines and/or the APU are shut down by the pilot if possible.
C Note: Exercise extreme caution when gaining entry into the aircraft if the emergency slide systems have not been deployed.
AUC 325 6.5.4-6.5.6

Question 19

Question 19:
The incorrect statement in regards to Stack Effect can be found in which choice?

A: The magnitude of the Stack Effect will be dictated by the size of the temperature differential between the interior of the building and the exterior environment and the height of the building

B: Stack Effect will be more prominent in extreme weather; when air conditioning or heating systems make the temperature inside the building remarkably different from the outside temperature

C: Shorter buildings will experience a more powerful Stack Effect because more air will be moving a shorter distance inside the building

D: The “Stack Effect Neutral Pressure Zone” will be found near the center of the building that experiences no horizontal air exchange at all (air will not be pulled into or pushed out of an opening or pulled into or pushed out of a floor due to stack effect)

Answer 19

Answer: C

Explanation:
Fire Dynamics sec 1.4, 1.4.3 and 1.5 (2019)
TALLER buildings will experience a more powerful Stack Effect because more air will be moving over a longer distance inside the building. Also, the presence of large vertical shafts (stairways, elevators, compactors, etc.) will contribute to the strength of the Stack Effect
**This condition can cause smoke and fire gases to bypass several floors near the center of the building (near the stack effect neutral pressure zone), only to be pulled into floors somewhere above or below the center of the building depending on the direction of the stack effect
Choice D is in BOLD

Question 20

Question 20:
When using the tower ladder to remove an incapacitated patient, securing the patient to a stokes basket is the preferred removal method. What is the preferred way to lash the stokes basket to a substantial part of the bucket?

A: Vertically

B: Diagonally

C: Horizontally

D: Upright

Answer 20

Answer: B

Explanation:
Tower Ladder Ch 3 3.3

Question 21

Question 21:
During hydrant inspection, each hydrant should be opened to ensure the hydrant is serviceable and can be used as a viable water source. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: The hydrant should be flushed thoroughly to allow any debris to be flushed out of the barrel.

B: FDNY field units will use the Hansen Hydrant application (accessed via the FDNY Intranet) to record semi-annual hydrant inspections.

C: Defective hydrants are reported to the DEP through the Hansen Hydrant System. Defective hydrants include unserviceable hydrants. Hydrants that fail to drain or require a cap are not considered defective and should not be reported through the Hansen Hydrant application.

D: The Hansen Hydrant System is also used to record frozen hydrants for transmittal to the responsible FDNY Thawing Apparatus.

Answer 21

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Defective hydrants are reported to the DEP through the Hansen Hydrant System. Defective hydrants include unserviceable hydrants (e.g. broken spindle), hydrants that fail to drain, hydrants that require a cap, or hydrants with any other defect.
Eng 3 Add 2 2.3 -2.4.2

Question 22

Question 22:
A distressed member may be supplied air with the Fast Pak by any one of the following low pressure methods. Which one is incorrect?

A: The Schrader connection.

B: Replacing the members regulator with the Fast Pak regulator.

C: The Hansen fitting.

D: Replacing the member’s facepiece.

Answer 22

Answer: A

Explanation:
THE SCHRADER CONNECTION IS NOT PART OF THE NEW FAST PAK

Training Bulletins Addendum 1 8.5

Question 23

Question 23:
Units in Manhattan are operating at the scene of an occupied stalled suspended scaffold. Which one FDNY SOP for this type of emergency is incorrect?

A: Inspect worker’s safety lines; if lines are suspect or not present lower a lifesaving rope to workers and have them attach it to their harness via snap hook.

B: Determine if the wire rope hoist is jammed within the unit. If this has occurred, never allow the workers to attempt to continue to operate the hoist.

C: Window removal to retrieve stranded workers shall be performed by Rescue or Squad Company.

D: If the hoist is overheated, allow it to cool for 10 minutes, then have a worker push the reset button on the hoist.

Answer 23

Answer: D

Explanation:
D. If the hoist is overheated, allow it to cool for 15 MINUTES, then have a worker push the reset button on the hoist.

NOTE B: WINDOW REMOVAL AND GLASS CUTTING BY RESCUE OR SQUAD.

Scaffold Emergencies 5.2, 5.3, 5.4

Question 24

Question 24:
Which of the following choices indicates the most correct code to transmit for Fire units assisting a vessel in distress in the Hudson River?

A: 10-40 Code 3

B: 10-46 Code 1

C: 10-46 Code 2

D: 10-42

Answer 24

Answer: C

Explanation:
10-46 Code 1: Any fire in maritime environment (example: vessel, dock, pier)
10-46 Code 2: Emergency in maritime environment Examples: Vessel in distress, person(s) in the water removed by Marine personnel, hazard to navigation, hazardous materials incident in maritime environment.
Comm 8 8.5

Question 25

Question 25:
At a high rise office building fire, the 1st arriving Engine Company should abide by each of the following choices except?

A: The attack stairway does not need to be a stairway with a standpipe outlet. However, the attack stair should not be a fire tower.

B: Due to the large, uncompartmented areas in these commercial buildings, all hoselines stretched and operated shall be 2” lightweight hose.

C: With the assistance of the 2nd arriving Engine Company, stretch a hoseline from the standpipe outlet on a floor below the fire floor via the attack stairway.

D: Operate the first hoseline until relieved by the 2nd or a later arriving Engine Company.

Answer 25

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) Due to the large, uncompartmented areas in these commercial buildings, all hoselines stretched and operated SHALL be 2 ½” hose.
HROB 9.3.1 E-H

Question 26

Question 26:
When marking vacant buildings, which one criteria is correct?

A: Primary markings shall be made on the front entrance to the building.

B: Do not mark sealed door and windows.

C: The letters “FH” shall be made directly underneath vacant building markings in cases when members determine that floors within the building have holes that may endanger members.

D: The letter “RO” shall be made directly over the main entrance in cases when a roof is opened to the degree that there is little need for future vertical ventilation.

Answer 26

Answer: B

Explanation:
A. Primary markings shall be made ALONGSIDE THE FRONT ENTRANCE OF A BUILDING AT A HEIGHT THAT IS IN LINE WITH THE AREA DIRECTLY OVER THE FRONT ENTRANCE.

C. THE LETTERS “FO” shall be made directly underneath vacant building markings in cases when members determine that floors within the building have holes OR OPENINGS that may endanger members.

D. The letter “RO” shall be made directly over THE VACANT BUILDING MARKINGS in cases when a roof is opened to the degree that there is little need for future vertical ventilation.

Vacants 3.1

Question 27

Question 27:
Basic knowledge of the Buckeye Pipeline is essential to units operating properly at pipeline incidents. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information?

A: There are some above-ground valves that may require shutting down by Fire Department personnel. These valves are located behind locked metal wire fences openable with a 1620 key.

B: There are four Buckeye Pipeline locations that are equipped with intruder alarms. If units need to enter these locations for any reason other than an emergency response (i.e. drills or training) the Buckeye Pipeline Control Center must be notified through the Borough Dispatcher after entry.

C: There are two locations along the pipeline that are equipped with Hazardous Vapor Detection Systems which will detect an accumulation of flammable vapors inside these spaces. For any response to these locations, the IC must transmit a 10-80.

D: The Hazardous Vapor Detection Alarm resembles a fire alarm strobe outside of these locations.

Answer 27

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) There are four Buckeye Pipeline locations that are equipped with intruder alarms. If units need to enter these locations for any reason other than an emergency response (i.e. drills or training) the Buckeye Pipeline Control Center must be notified through the Borough Dispatcher PRIOR to entry.
B Note: Due to increased security measures from the Department of Homeland Security, if an intruder alarm is received without prior notification, this will cause an emergency shut down of the pipeline.
C Note: Members must use extreme caution at these locations as they are potentially entering a flammable atmosphere. The IC must utilize Haz-Mat Co. 1, a Haz Mat Tech Engine or a Squad company with metering capabilities to confirm that there is not an accumulation of flammable vapors.
AUC 149 2.1.7, 3.1.1, 3.1.3, 3.2.1

Question 28

Question 28:
The Coordinated Attack Fire Behavior Curve will behave the same way as the Modern Content Fire Behavior Curve up until the _______ stage. Additionally, during the Coordinated Attack Fire Behavior Curve the ______stage is the stage where the firefighters can effectively operate and extinguish the fire.

A: growth; fully developed

B: growth; elongated decay

C: early decay; fully developed

D: early decay; elongated decay

Answer 28

Answer: D

Explanation:
THE COORDINATED ATTACK FIRE BEHAVIOR CURVE IS A NEW CONCEPT WITH THE RELEASE OF THIS BULLETIN IN 2019

Ventilation 2.4.7

Question 29

Question 29:
Maintaining egress is a key component of aircraft incident operations. Which of the following choices is not compliant with Department procedures?

A: Ladder Companies and Special Units will need to ensure that escape/egress paths are established and assistance is provided to all passengers and crew.

B: If slide systems fail to operate, portable and/or apparatus mounted ladders might be needed; additional Tower Ladders should be special called. Tower Ladders might also be needed for their large caliber stream capability.

C: Always ladder the rear of aircraft wings instead of the front; moving parts are found at the front of wings.

D: The cabin of the aircraft should receive a primary and secondary search as per normal procedures. In addition to the cabin, the cargo areas will need to be searched for fire conditions.

Answer 29

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Always ladder the leading edge or the FRONT of aircraft wings instead of the REAR; moving parts are found at the REAR of wings.
D Note: If hazardous materials are being stowed within the cargo areas utilize the services of Haz-Mat resources. If possible, ask the Pilot for the air-bill or cargo manifest.
AUC 325 6.7.1-6.7.4

Question 30

Question 30:
Members of Engine 399 are discussing some alternative types of hoseline stretches. Specifically, they are discussing the advantages and disadvantages of the wrap-around stretch and the rope stretch in a new law tenement. Which one comment made is correct?

A: When performing the wrap around stretch, instead of a single length per floor, a more accurate estimate would be 2 lengths per floor.

B: When performing a rope stretch, a rope is used to pull the hoseline up to the fire floor via the outside of the building.

C: During the wrap around stretch, a technique that is effective in maintaining the methodical pace necessary to minimize hose being caught up is to use voice contact between members to execute the stretch one turn at a time.

D: When the rope stretch is made, the location of the fire must be definitely known.

Answer 30

Answer: D

Explanation:
A. When performing the wrap around stretch, instead of a single length per floor, a more accurate estimate would be 1 1/2 LENGHTS PER FLOOR.

B. When performing a rope stretch, a rope is used to pull the hoseline up to THE FLOOR BELOW TH FIRE via the outside of the building.

C. During the wrap around stretch, a technique that is effective in maintaining the methodical pace necessary to minimize hose being caught up is to use VISUAL CONTACT between members to execute the stretch one turn at a time.

THIS SECTION OF MD’S WAS UPDATED IN MARCH 2022 AND IS A GOOD CROSS REF WITH CH 7 OF NEW ENGINE OPS

Engine Ops Ch 7 7.2, 7.7; Multiple Dwellings 4.3.3 B

Question 31

Question 31:
Which statement incorrectly describes a Ventilation-Induced Flashover?

A: Ventilation-Induced Flashover is initiated by the introduction of oxygen into a pre-heated, fuel rich (smoke filled) oxygen deficient area

B: Modern content fires rapidly consume more of the available oxygen within the fire compartment creating conditions favorable for a ventilation-induced flashover to occur

C: Ventilation-Induced Flashover occurs when oxygen is introduced to a fire which has entered an early decay stage. Once Ventilation-Induced Flashover occurs, the fire within the compartment is said to be in the Flashover stage

D: Ventilation-Induced Flashover is similar to a backdraft except a backdraft involves significantly more pressure, causing an explosion

Answer 31

Answer: C

Explanation:
Fire Dynamics (May, 2021) sec 4
Ventilation-Induced Flashover occurs when oxygen is introduced to a fire which has entered an early decay stage. Once Ventilation-Induced Flashover occurs, the fire within the compartment is said to be in the FULLY DEVELOPED stage
4 stages of fire
- Incipient
- Growth
- Fully Developed
- Decay

Question 32

Question 32:
First alarm ladder companies have specific duties during fires in high rise office buildings. Which of the following is incorrect?

A: Gain control of elevators, locate the fire floor and determine the best access thereto. Ascertain the general area and extent of the fire on the floor.

B: Provide the necessary search and evacuation of occupants on the fire floor as well as reconnaissance of the exterior of the building.

C: Conduct a primary search and examination of the floor above the fire. Initiate search and examination of the upper most floors of the building.

D: Initiate search and examination of all stairways, especially the evacuation stairway. Care must be taken that doors to these stairways on the upper floors are left open to ventilate the upper floors.

Answer 32

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) Initiate search and examination of all stairways, especially the ATTACK stairway. Care must be taken that doors to these stairways on the upper floors are NOT left open which would contaminate the upper floors and could significantly affect fire operations.
HROB 8.2.1

Question 33

Question 33:
When securing the Kernmantle Life Saving Rope, what is the minimum number of wraps required for the tensionless hips?

A: There is no predetermined number of wraps.

B: 3

C: 4

D: 5

Answer 33

Answer: A

Question 34

Question 34:
Sabbath elevators are designed for religious purposes, operate automatically without the need to push any buttons and are a challenge for members operating at a fire. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: When in Sabbath mode, these elevators typically stop at every floor or every other floor automatically.

B: These elevators are required to be operable in fire service mode. Units shall verify the firefighter service feature is operational before electing to utilize any Sabbath Elevator.

C: Most often a sign will be present indicating this type of elevator. There may also be a sabbath key switch plate.

D: Sabbath elevators may be used if the firefighter service feature is missing/not operational and there is no other elevator. Notification to the IC is required.

Answer 34

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) Sabbath elevators SHALL NOT be used if the firefighter service feature is missing or not operational.
Note: Buildings where Sabbath elevators exist, should be considered for inclusion in ECIDS.
TB Emerg 1 6.4.7

Question 35

Question 35:
Engine 450 just received a brand new cockloft nozzle to add to their repertoire of tools. Members are explaining some information about the tool to a member of Ladder 350, who is detailed and working in the engine. They were incorrect in which one statement below?

A: The two OST’s should not be removed when the nozzle is being used to extinguish fire in a horizontal are like a cockloft.

B: Any engine company can be tasked with placing the combination nozzle into operation.

C: Only the IC or sector chief should determine when to place the cockloft nozzle into operation.

D: An 1 3/4 inch or 2 1/2 inch hoseline can be utilized to supply the cockloft.

Answer 35

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. Any engine company can be tasked with placing the COCKLOFT nozzle into operation.

ENGINE COMPANYS NOT TRAINED IN THE USE OF THE COMBINATION NOZZLE SHOULD CONTINUE TO USE THE CONVENTIONAL COCKLOFT NOZZLE.

MANY UPDATES TO THIS BUULETIN WITH RELEASE OF NEW ENGINE OPS IN AUGUST 2021. ADDITIONAL UPDATES IN MAY OF 2022

Engine Ops Ch 7 Addendum 1 1.3, 2.1, 3.3, 3.8

Question 36

Question 36:
In order to remove a facility from the CFR response matrix, the company officer shall ensure that the facility meets all the following criteria, except in which incorrect choice?

A: On duty personnel are trained in CPR. Trained personnel are able to provide oxygen to the patient.

B: On duty personnel are trained in the use of a defibrillator, and all the necessary equipment is available to the trained personnel.

C: All equipment and appropriately trained personnel are available during all hours of operation.

D: All trained personnel and equipment must be present during the facilities “office hours” and the facility must be “CFR Hold Eligible” on at least one floor of the building’s address.

Answer 36

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) The facility shall be operational on a 24/7 BASIS and must be “CFR Hold Eligible” on ALL floors of the building’s address.
Note: The following are NOT eligible for removal from the response matrix:
Facilities that do not operate 24/7.
Facilities which are not “CFR Hold Eligible” on ALL floors.
New CIDS example found in this chapter:
CFRH HIP CENTER 3 STY 75X100 CL3 OPEN 24/7
Comm 4 Appx B Example 11, Add 1 2.1

Question 37

Question 37:
Engine 99 is operating at the scene of a lithium ion battery mobility device fire. The IC orders the on-duty Lieutenant to have the mobility device moved until it can be appropriately over packed/mitigated by Haz Mat. Which one of the following locations is the first preference when deciding where to move it assuming they’re all large enough to fit it?

A: Sink

B: Garbage Pail

C: Bucket

D: Tub

Answer 37

Answer: D

Explanation:
CODE: “BATTERIES SHOULD GET WET”

BATHROOM TUB
SINK
GARBAGE PAIL OR BUCKET
WINDOW IN FIRE APT (IC ONLY)

NEW BULLETIN AS OF APRIL 2022

Haz Mat Ch 20 5.5

Question 38

Question 38:
Backdraft indicators can be found in all of the following choices except?

A: Black-yellow smoke seeping out from around closed and intact doors and windows

B: No visible/active flaming within the compartment

C: Extremely limited or no ventilation of the fire compartment

D: Pulsating smoke, usually pulsating in an in-and-out movement, giving the impression the compartment is breathing

Answer 38

Answer: A

Explanation:
Gray-yellow smoke seeping out from around closed and intact doors and windows…sec 7.3
Fire Dynamics (May 2021)

Question 39

Question 39:
Each of the following incidents are considered modified single unit emergencies (assigned a single unit response) and responding units should operate in the 10-20 mode, except in which choice?

A: Electrical emergencies

B: Trees down (no wires, buildings or vehicles affected)

C: Lock-ins (no reported food on the stove or other associated emergency)

D: Salvage Truck

Answer 39

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) This is a Group 2 Response (not single unit)
Note: Also…ERS no contact (2300 to 0800 hours) and Water Leaks are Group 1 Responses (single unit 10-20)
Note: When a single unit responding to a Group 1 call type receives additional information, or the dispatcher fills out the assignment, the officer or assigned Battalion Chief may direct an emergency response, if warranted. The dispatcher shall announce that the 10-20 response is cancelled and that all units shall respond in the emergency mode.
Comm 6 Add 1 2.1

Question 40

Question 40:
Generally, _____ supply source(s) at the base of a tower ladder should be used. ______ psi is the recommended pressure at the gated inlet for an effective operation.

A: one; 200-250

B: one; 150-200

C: two; 200-250

D: two; 150-200

Answer 40

Answer: A

Explanation:
Tower Ladder Ch 4 4.1