LT PKG EXAM #10

Question 1

Question 1:
Officers should be aware of the different types of hose stretches that may be employed at a fire operation. Which stretch below is incorrectly described?

A: When stretching up a “wrap around stairway,” an estimated 1 length per floor would be required for a wrap-around stretch.

B: When stretching up a “wrap around stairway,” to minimize the incidence of the hoseline being caught on the turns, both the nozzle and back-up firefighters should carry their lengths in their outside arms and make their turns around the elevator shaft as wide as possible.

C: To execute a fire escape stretch, members can use a six-foot hook to pass the hoseline up the exterior of the fire escape. As an alternative, a rope stretch may be executed.

D: When employing a fire escape stretch, initially, the hose is stretched to an area near the fire escape drop ladder. Once the hose is available below the fire escape, one member will climb to the second floor of the fire escape and wait for the line to be passed to them.

Answer 1

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) When stretching up a “wrap around stairway,” an estimated 1 ½ lengths per floor would be required for a wrap-around stretch.
4 turns are required to be made for each floor, which is twice as many as typical return stairways. In addition to being obstacles themselves, the added turns demand more hose per floor. Instead of a single length per floor, a more accurate estimate would be 1 ½ lengths per floor for a wrap-around stretch.
D Note: On the floor below the fire, the member receiving the hoseline will pull up sufficient hose to reach and cover the fire area. The hose should be secured with a hose strap to the fire escape railing. This ONE hose strap will effectively secure the hose; additional hose straps are not necessary.
Eng Ch 7 7.2, 7.6, 8.2, 8.3, 8.5

Question 2

Question 2:
Which of the following responses to a verbal alarm while assigned to another response is INCORRECT according to department policy?

A: While enroute to an electrical emergency, Engine 223 is flagged down on a verbal for a large rubbish fire that is extending to an unoccupied car. The officer advises the dispatcher of the verbal and stops to extinguish the extending fire.

B: While enroute to a first due gas leak, Engine 244 is flagged down on a verbal for a civilian hit by a bus. The officer advises the dispatcher of the verbal and stops to provide medical care to the injured civilian.

C: While enroute as the extra engine to a fire in an MD with reported people trapped, Engine 256 is flagged down on a verbal for fire coming from the windows of a PD. The officer advises the dispatcher of the verbal and stops to operate at the second structural fire.

D: While enroute to a difficulty breathing CFR response, Engine 269 is flagged down on a verbal for fire coming from the windows of an isolated vacant building where there is no life hazard. The officer advises the dispatcher of the verbal and continues onto the CFR response.

Answer 2

Answer: A

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 6 – ALARM RESPONSE
A IS INCORRECT – In the event the unit is responding to another alarm, and it is evident human life is NOT in jeopardy at the scene of the verbal alarm, the unit shall proceed to the original alarm after transmitting radio notification of a verbal alarm to dispatcher and receiving acknowledgement. 6.5.2
B – Until the unit stops to assess, it is unknown whether human life is in jeopardy.
C – Until the unit stops to assess, it is unknown whether human life is in jeopardy.
D – There is no life hazard. The unit is required to proceed to the original alarm.

Question 3

Question 3:
When operating as a Task Force Leader with a Rapid Response Vehicle Task Force, the amount of FFs found under your supervision can be found in which choice?

A: 2-4 FFs

B: 3-5 FFs

C: 3-6 FFs

D: 6-10 FFs

Answer 3

Answer: C

Explanation:
The initial Task Force may consist of:
An officer serving as Task Force Leader
3-6 FFs
Two apparatus consisting of:
-RRV-SOC Support Ladder second piece(s)
-One RRV and a TAC Unit
-One RRV and BFU
AUC 159 add 8 sec 3.2

Question 4

Question 4:
Which description of the SCBA Pak-alert alarm system is incorrect?

A: The full alarm condition can only be cleared by manually pressing the reset button twice, located on the side of the control console.

B: The pre-alarm condition can be reset by pressing and holding the reset button until 3 quick audible chirps are heard and the red flashing light on the control console is replaced by a green flashing light or by shaking the control console.

C: If the sensor module does not sense motion of the SCBA for 20 seconds, the Pak-alert will signal a pre-alarm condition. If there is still no motion for the next 12 seconds, the full alarm will sound.

D: Provided working batteries are in the Pak-alert, the manual alarm may be activated by pressing the manual alarm button at any time, even when the SCBA is not pressurized.

Answer 4

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. The pre-alarm condition can be reset by pressing and holding the reset button until 3 quick audible chirps are heard and the red flashing light on the control console is replaced by a green flashing light. SHAKING THE CONTROL CONSOLE WILL NOT RESET THE PAK-ALERT.

THE MOTION SENSOR IS IN THE SENSOR MODULE UNDER THE AIR CYLINDER VALVE AND NOT IN THE CONTROL CONSOLE, SO THAT ACTUAL MOVEMENT OF THE SCBA BACKFRAME IS REQUIRED FOR RESET.

TB SCBA 3.10.5, 3.10.6 C & D 3.10.7 B, 3.10.8 B

Question 5

Question 5:
Which statement below contains incorrect information regarding fire operations in vacant buildings?

A: When a vacant building is heavily involved on arrival, hose streams should be placed between the involved building and the most severe life exposure.

B: When life is not endangered in any exposure, the first stream should immediately be positioned for interior operations in the vacant building.

C: When possible, units should take a position that not only protects exposures, but also enables the stream to be used on the main body of fire. In cases when it is impossible to confine the fire in this manner, the stream should be alternated from the fire to the exposure.

D: At large or advanced fires, the primary attack strategy should consist of a defensive exterior attack and should focus on the protection of exposures.

Answer 5

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) When life is not endangered in any exposure, the first stream should be positioned to protect the GREATEST AMOUNT OF PROPERTY.
D Note: The IC may vary from this guideline in critical situations involving life hazards.
Vacants 5.2

Question 6

Question 6:
Which class of fire consists of cooking oil and fats?

A: Class A

B: Class B

C: Class C

D: Class K

Answer 6

Answer: D

Explanation:
Class A - Common combustibles
Class B - Flammable liquids and gasses
Class C - Energized electrical equipment
Class D - Combustible metals
Class K - Cooking oils and fats
TB FD 4

Question 7

Question 7:
The incorrect tactic/procedure during FireIce operations can be found in which choice?

A: A Company Officer or a Chief Officer can order the application of FireIce

B: When using FireIce a 1 3/4” handline is used

C: FireIce is not effective on the flammable oil used to cool transformers

D: When FireIce operations commence, a minimum standoff distance is 50’, but may decrease to a minimum safe distance of 25’ when the nozzle team is advancing towards the manhole

Answer 7

Answer: A

Explanation:
Only a Chief Officer
AUC 180 add 2

Question 8

Question 8:
When operating the power saw if the guide man slaps the operator two times on the back, the operator should be aware that this means he/she should do what?

A: Stop cut.

B: Cut.

C: Shut down the saw.

D: Start the saw.

Answer 8

Answer: B

Explanation:
ONE SLAP = STOP (ONE WORD)
TWO SLAPS = START CUT (TWO WORDS)
THREE SLAPS = SHUT DOWN SAW (THREE WORDS)

TB Tools 9 4.4.6

Question 9

Question 9:
Lt. Hawkins was training the newly assigned probationary firefighter on aerial ladder safety. In which choice below was the information incorrect?

A: Avoid moving the ladder while members are on it, except to remove them from serious exposure or for an extreme rescue effort.

B: Do not extend or retract the ladder while members are on it.

C: Avoid extending the tip of the ladder against a structure, except when attempting to open sealed windows in vacant buildings.

D: Never move the truck with the ladder raised to one side. Retract the sections substantially and turn the ladder parallel to its bed.

Answer 9

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Avoid extending the tip of the ladder against a structure. This INCLUDES pushing or lifting cornices and trying to open sealed windows in vacant buildings.
Lad 2 8.9, 8.10, 8.14, 8.21

Question 10

Question 10:
Which of the following questions is CORRECT regarding the activation of an Auxiliary Radio Communications System?

A: To activate a building ARCS, insert a 1620 key into the dedicated receiver console and rotate the key one position counterclockwise.

B: When choosing the primary HT building repeater channel, Channel 11 or 12 may be selected. All incoming units must be notified of this channel.

C: If both channels are needed, to activate a second repeater channel, a second 1620 key will be required.

D: Similar to the elevator lobby control panel, when you insert your 1620 key into the ARCS console, the key is removeable in the ON/Active position.

Answer 10

Answer: C

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL - CHAPTER 13 – ARCS
C IS CORRECT – 3.1 PG 5
A – Rotate the key one position CLOCKWISE 3.1
B – Choose the primary HT building repeater channel – Channel 11 3.1
D – The key is NOT removeable in the ON/ACTIVE position. 3.1

Question 11

Question 11:
The NYC Transit Subway Repeater System can be incorrectly described in which choice?

A: Upon arrival, the first arriving officer must request the MTA to activate the repeater system via FDNY dispatcher

B: The two subway repeater channels are 14 and 15. These channels are 5-watts

C: Any member operating on a repeater channel must be teamed with a H/T equipped member operating on H/T channel 1

D: When encountering a dead spot on repeater coverage, members shall return to a safe location where previous communications were successful. If communications are now successful on the repeater channel, report the “dead spot” to the IC. If communications are unsuccessful, use H/T relay (Channel 1) to report the repeater failure to the IC

Answer 11

Answer: A

Explanation:
It is not necessary to request activation. Repeater Systems are on 24 hours a day 7 days a week
AUC 207 sec 1, 3.2, 4, 5.2.NOTE

Question 12

Question 12:
When conducting operations outside the potential blast zone at a major gas emergency which engine company tactic described below is correct?

A: Stretch a 2 1/2” precautionary hoseline; fog streams should be used to dissipate natural gas venting outside a structure.

B: Stretch a 1 3/4” precautionary hoseline; fog streams should be used to dissipate natural gas venting outside a structure.

C: Stretch a 2 1/2” precautionary hoseline; fog streams should not be used to dissipate natural gas venting outside a structure.

D: Stretch a 1 3/4” precautionary hoseline; fog streams should not be used to dissipate natural gas venting outside a structure.

Answer 12

Answer: C

Explanation:
DO NOT USE FOG STREAMS TO DISSIPATE GAS OUTSIDE THE STRUCTURE LET IT VENT NATURALLY

Natural Gas 9.2.1

Question 13

Question 13:
Proper overhaul and salvage are reflective of a professional Fire Department. Which choice below contains information that is not in accordance with Department policy?

A: Trim around windows and doors is put on last during the construction stage and should be the first pieces removed if examination is required at these points.

B: Floor joists or roof joists should not be removed if complete extinguishment can be accomplished in any other manner.

C: Lintels in brick walls over exterior doorways and windows should not be removed, unless deeply charred.

D: Wooden structural members that are deeply charred may be removed from the building. Those that have merely been scorched or on which the paint has been blistered shall be left in the apartment for possible reuse.

Answer 13

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Lintels in brick walls over exterior doorways and windows should NOT be removed, REGARDLESS OF CHARRING, as they support a considerable amount of brickwork.
Note: In addition….Before the Department leaves the premises, all broken glass must be trimmed from window frames so that glass shards will not fall causing injury or damage. Replace or position all drop ladders. Check for all assigned tools and equipment.
Lad 3 9.1, 9.3, 9.8, 9.15

Question 14

Question 14:
Marine companies carry 12 foot and 20 foot portable hook ladders with wood beams. Which of the following choices is an inaccurate description of these ladders?

A: They are painted white except for the hooks and for 18 inches at the base of each beam, which are painted black.

B: The length of the ladder and company identification is stenciled on the exterior of both beams.

C: The hooks, unlike those on roof or hook ladders carried by land units, are fixed.

D: These ladders do not have metal spurs at the base; there are simply the squared edges of the wood beams.

Answer 14

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) They are painted BLACK except for the hooks and for 18 inches at the base of each beam, which are painted WHITE.
Lad 1 1.2

Question 15

Question 15:
The incorrect information regarding NYC Subway Stations and Metrocards can be found in which choice?

A: A red globe on a light post at a subway street entrance indicates that there may, or may not be a token booth clerk at this location, and that the stairway will be closed at some point during a 24 hour day

B: A green globe on a light post at a subway street entrance indicates that the entrance is open 24 hours a day, and that there may, or may not be a token booth clerk at this location. In areas that are not served by a token booth clerk, access will be via a High Entrance/Exit Turnstile (HEET) or a gate

C: At every station where there is a full time token booth there will be a see-through protective folder, which contains a station map, list of all stairways within the station, list of all rooms within the station, list of all token booths within the station, and all emergency exits which service the station

D: When a Metrocard is lost, stolen, or damaged the officer on duty shall immediately notify the Public Transportation Safety Unit (PTSU) and the administrative battalion chief

Answer 15

Answer: D

Explanation:
Notify the FDNY Resource Center
AUC 207 add 3 sec 3.6.3

Question 16

Question 16:
When it comes to winter operations, which statement is most correct?

A: Where the building involved is higher than 3 stories, preference shall be given to ladder company apparatus entering block first with the engine company personnel hand stretching from the nearest hydrant. Where the building involved is 3 stories or less, preference shall be given to the engine company apparatus entering the block first with ladder company personnel carrying portable ladders

B: Where the building involved is 3 stories or higher, preference shall be given to ladder company apparatus entering block first with the engine company personnel hand stretching from the nearest hydrant. Where the building involved is less than 3 stories, preference shall be given to the engine company apparatus entering the block first with ladder company personnel carrying portable ladders

C: Where the building involved is higher than 3 stories, preference shall be given to engine company apparatus entering block first with the ladder company personnel carrying portable ladders. Where the building involved is less than 3 stories, preference shall be given to the ladder company apparatus entering the block first.

D: Where the building involved is higher than 2 1/2 stories, preference shall be given to ladder company apparatus entering block first with the engine company personnel hand stretching from the nearest hydrant. Where the building involved is 3 stories or less, preference shall be given to the engine company apparatus entering the block first with ladder company personnel carrying portable ladders

Answer 16

Answer: A

Explanation:
This is a brain twister for sure. Question has been on past lieutenants exams.
AUC 200 sec 5.3.10.D.4……p-17

Question 17

Question 17:
When stabilizing a vehicle during an extrication operation, which tactic is incorrect?

A: Vehicles are stabilized as they are found.

B: Never right a vehicle with a victim inside.

C: Before disconnecting the battery, open the power windows and adjust power seats to assist with extrication.

D: Check under the vehicle for victims after stabilization methods are taken.

Answer 17

Answer: D

Explanation:
D. Check under the vehicle for victims BEFORE ANY stabilization methods are taken.

Disentanglement and Extrication 5.1

Question 18

Question 18:
The incorrect procedure when operating at a transformer fire can be found in which choice?

A: Rubbish fires near a transformer can be extinguished with a class C extinguisher or by using water with proper stand-off distances

B: Upon arrival to a transformer fire, transmit a 10-87

C: Operate Purple K on a transformer fire. This is the only agent recommended to be used directly on the transformer fire prior to utility arrival. Standoff distance is 10 feet

D: Applying water directly on the transformer should be avoided as an initial tactic

Answer 18

Answer: B

Explanation:
Upon arrival to a transformer fire, transmit a 10-86 (for purple K, F500, and foam response)
AUC 180 sec 6.3, 6.4.1, 6.4.2

Question 19

Question 19:
A number of tactics may be employed to improve operational efficiency at wind impacted fires in fireproof multiple dwellings (FPMD.) Which is incorrectly described below?

A: Prior to advancing to the reported fire floor, members must gather information by surveying the floor below, or two floors below if scissor stairs are present.

B: The roof firefighter in the apartment above the fire may be able to provide the size and layout of the fire apartment and visible fire or smoke coming from the fire apartment. By keeping the apartment door open and opening a window, the roof firefighter will be able to simulate how the wind will flow through the apartment.

C: An exterior stream such as the high rise nozzle is very effective in knocking down a wind impacted fire in a FPMD due to the smaller compartmented areas/rooms. Water must be applied to the room where the main body of fire is located to be most effective and the stream shall be deflected off the ceiling for best results.

D: To employ a flanking strategy, a small opening is made in the adjoining wall to the fire room as close to the apartment door as possible. Initially, the hole in the wall should be only large enough for the outer stream tip of the nozzle to be placed into the opening allowing the stream to be directed at the ceiling of the fire room.

Answer 19

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) To employ a flanking strategy, a small opening is made in the adjoining wall to the fire room as close to the EXTERIOR WALL as possible, so as not to create a flow path. The hoseline is operated into the opening to extinguish the fire. Initially, the hole in the wall should be only large enough for the MAIN stream tip of the nozzle to be placed into the opening allowing the stream to be directed at the ceiling of the fire room.
C Note: If members are trapped and a wind impacted fire is preventing their removal, the use of a HRN or an exterior stream may protect members and allow for their safe removal.
MD Ch 5 3.3.1, 3.3.5, 4.2.3 B, C, D, 4.2.5

Question 20

Question 20:
Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding Duplex Radio Repeater Systems?

A: Duplex radio repeater systems will not support multiple simultaneous transmissions.

B: Multiple transmissions given at the same time may cancel out all transmissions.

C: Failure of the repeater system, for any reason, will also negate all communications on the repeater channel.

D: There will be an audible warning on the HT or visual indication in the lobby that the repeater system has failed or is on the verge of failing.

Answer 20

Answer: D

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 13 – ARCS
D IS INCORRECT – 2.1 There will be NO audible warning on the HT or visual indication in the lobby.
A – 2.1
B – 2.1
C – 2.1

Question 21

Question 21:
Exterior walls can be breached with a maul and/or power tools for life saving or stream penetration. When employing this tactic, a knowledgeable officer would know which choice below to be incorrect?

A: When using the maul to breach cinder blocks, start at the top.

B: When the power saw is being used to cut through brick and concrete, the combination metal/concrete saw blade (diamond blade) shall be used.

C: Cuts in brick walls should be triangular with the vertex angle downward to prevent further collapse.

D: The first and second cuts should be at the brickwork since the easiest cut is at the mortar joint and the blade at this point will usually be worn.

Answer 21

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Cuts in brick walls should be triangular with the vertex angle UPWARD to prevent further collapse.
A Note: In many instances blocks are filled with concrete to provide an added layer of strength and starting at the top will provide quick access as this area is usually hollow.
B Note: Electric or pneumatic hammers may also be used for breaching operations from the bucket, when necessary.
D Note: Additionally, the cut at the mortar joint may not be necessary since bricks along this plane may be loosened and removed easily with hand tools.
TL Ch 5 5.2

Question 22

Question 22:
When a distressed member is in need of removal which one operating guideline is incorrect?

A: In all cases, a member should be positioned at the distressed members head.

B: The company officer should never get physically involved in the operation.

C: Whether or not the removal involves a conscious or unconscious member, the priorities will be: fire/environment; air; immediate medical care, if required and possible; removal.

D: The company officer shall call for an additional FAST Pak if the first is placed into operation.

Answer 22

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. UNLESS THERE IS NO ONE ELSE AVAILABLE, the company officer should NOT get physically involved in the operation.

NOTE “C”: “FAIR”

Managing Members In Distress Ch 3 1.3, 3.1, 3.1.9, 4.1

Question 23

Question 23:
The Carbon Monoxide (CO) statement is incorrectly found in which choice?

A: A CO “Incident” is when no occupants are symptomatic and meter readings are 9 PPM or less

B: A CO “Emergency” is when occupants are symptomatic or meter readings are more than 9 PPM

C: Each company is assigned 2 CO meters. The Engine’s second meter shall be carried with the CFR equipment, and attached to the O2 bag

D: When using a CO meter, take an initial reading near the CO detector that activated

Answer 23

Answer: D

Explanation:
When using a CO meter, take an initial reading at the front door of premises, then continue investigation to find source of CO in premises
Haz-Mat 4 sec 2.6, 4.2.1, 4.2.2, 4.1.3

Question 24

Question 24:
When providing pre-hospital care to minors, which of the following procedures is incorrect?

A: Immediate medical intervention must be provided for life threatening injuries, regardless of whether the parent/guardian is available.

B: Immediate medical intervention must be provided for life threatening injuries, even if the parent/guardian refuses consent.

C: Under the NYS Social Services Law, if there is reasonable cause to suspect the child has suffered abuse, the ambulance crew is responsible to file the mandated report.

D: For a non-urgent injury, if a parent guardian refuses to allow treatment, no further action is necessary and the unit may return to service.

Answer 24

Answer: D

Explanation:
D. For an non-urgent injury, if a parent guardian refuses to allow treatment, THE FOLLOWING STEPS SHOULD BE TAKEN:

1. CAREFULLY EXPLAIN THE REASONS(S) FOR TREATMENT, WHAT INTERVENTION IS NECESSARY TO CORRECT THE PROBLEM AND THE CONSEQUENCES IF THE INJURY/ILLNESS IS NOT TREATED.
2. NOTIFY THE DISPATCHER OF THE EVENT UNFOLDING AND HAVE THEM NOTIFY EMS. CONTACT FDNY/EMS TELEMETRY IF PHONE AVAILABLE. IMPLEMENT THERE RECOMMENDATIONS (IF ANY) WHILE AWAITING EMS. DO NOT LEAVE BEFORE EMS ARRIVES.
3. RETURN TO SERVICE AFTER EMS ARRIVES.

CFR CH 2 6.1.1

Question 25

Question 25:
First alarm units are responding to a reported train stuck in an under-river tube. The Lieutenant in Ladder 500 has the following thoughts about the sound powered phone system but was incorrect in which one?

A: In the street to tunnel sound powered phone system coverage includes a particular under river tunnel or tubes (both directions) and a location on both sides of the tunnel, typically the nearest emergency exit.

B: There is usually no connection from one sound powered phone system to another (e.g., from and under river tunnel system to a nearby station.)

C: Headsets are preferred for use throughout the NYC transit system, due to the high noise levels that may be encountered.

D: In under river tubes, sound powered telephone connectors are found at standpipe outlets; approximately 300 feet apart.

Answer 25

Answer: D

Explanation:
D. In under river tubes, sound powered telephone connectors are found at standpipe outlets; approximately 200 FEET APART.

NOTE “A”: IN THE STREET TO STATION SYSTEM COVERAGE INCLUDES A PARTICULAR STATION AND THE STREET ABOVE.

TB Tools 31 4.1.1, 4.1.2, 4.1.3, 4.3.2

Question 26

Question 26:
Units are operating at a fire in a taxpayer. There are four stores to the right of the original fire store followed by a separate row of 3 story frame buildings. What is the identity of the last store to the right of the fire building and the first frame in the row of frames?

A: O4B & O4C

B: O4C & 4

C: O4C & 4A

D: O4B & 4

Answer 26

Answer: B

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 10 – ADDENDUM 2 EXPOSURE IDENTIFICATION SECTORING
B IS CORRECT – 5.2 & 5.6 & 6.3 The entire taxpayer is O and the first building to the right is exposure 4. Subdivided, the stores to the right of the fire store are 04, 04A, 04B, 04C
Be sure to draw a picture on test day…

Question 27

Question 27:
During multi-unit drill, Lt. Dillon had his members stretch a hose line up an aerial ladder into the 3rd floor of a vacant building. In which choice below was the operation performed incorrectly?

A: The nozzle firefighter left her length on the ground and carried the nozzle with the hose playing out behind her. The hose was carried under her left arm and the nozzle draped upward across the front of her torso and back over her right shoulder.

B: Once the nozzle firefighter reached the destination, she momentarily passed the nozzle to the engine officer, allowing her to safely dismount the aerial.

C: The back-up firefighter climbed the ladder behind the nozzle firefighter, advancing hose as they climbed. The hose was maintained on the right side of the aerial ladder.

D: When sufficient hose was stretched, a hose strap was used to secure the hoseline to a rung of the aerial ladder at the window level. Once secured, all members on the aerial completed their ascent up the ladder and proceeded to the point of operation.

Answer 27

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) The back-up firefighter climbed the ladder behind the nozzle firefighter, advancing hose as they climbed. The hose was maintained on the LEFT side of the aerial ladder.
Note: The engine officer will wait until ALL of the firefighters are off the aerial before calling for water in the line. The line should be charged gradually.
Eng Ch 7 9.5, 9.6, 9.7, 9.10, 9.11

Question 28

Question 28:
When approaching a vehicle with a possible chemical suicide, the indicators that may be found include all of the following except?

A: Person’s skin tone may be red in color

B: Person may be wearing gloves or swimming goggles

C: Tape may be placed around vehicle’s windows or doors, or use of plastic to contain the vapors

D: Presence of chemical containers or strong chemical odors, such as hydrogen sulfide have an odor of musty hay

Answer 28

Answer: D

Explanation:
Presence of chemical containers or strong chemical odors, such as hydrogen sulfide (rotten egg smell)
Haz-Mat 11 sec 3.2

Question 29

Question 29:
The new coordinated attack fire behavior curve differs from the modern fire behavior curve. However, the fire will behave in the same way up until which stage?

A: Early decay stage.

B: Fully developed stage.

C: Rapid second growth stage.

D: Second decay stage.

Answer 29

Answer: A

Explanation:
Ventilation 2.4.7

Question 30

Question 31:
In order to vent natural gas to open air, FDNY personnel are allowed to pull rectangular or square electric manhole covers under which of the following conditions?

A: FDNY personnel shall not pull these covers.

B: The approval of the on-scene Chief Officer only.

C: It needs to be requested by an on-scene utility company worker and the approval of the on-scene Chief Officer is required.

D: It needs to be requested by an on-scene utility company worker, the approval of the on-scene Chief Officer is required, and the on-scene utility company must determine the cover is free of stray voltage.

Answer 30

Answer: A

Explanation:
CHOICE “D” IS NEEDED TO PULL ROUND ELECTRIC MANHOLE COVERS.

FDNY PERSONNEL DOES NOT PULL SQUARE OR RECTANGULAR ELECTRIC MANHOLE COVERS

Natural Gas 9.2.4

Question 31

Question 32:
At a recent cellar fire in a 3-story row frame, which engine company tactic was not in accordance with Department guidelines?

A: The first hoseline was stretched through the front door and members then attempted to make it down to the cellar via the interior stairs to extinguish the fire.

B: Since the first hoseline could not be advanced down to the cellar due to the intensity of the fire, it remained in position to protect the public hall, interior stairs, and the first floor.

C: Since the first hoseline was covering the first floor public hall and did not need a back up line, the second hoseline was stretched into the cellar via the outside cellar entrance to extinguish the fire.

D: The first hoseline repositioned to the most severe exposure to cover extension to that area after the cellar fire was controlled by the second hoseline.

Answer 31

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) The first hoseline advanced to the TOP FLOOR to cover extension to that area and the cockloft after the cellar fire was controlled by the second hoseline.
D Note: Intervening floors shall be checked for fire on the way to the top floor. A member must be stationed on the landing to warn of any fire that may break out below them.
C Note: The second hoseline shall back up the first hoseline. If the first hoseline has advanced into the cellar, and a back up line is not needed, the second hoseline shall extinguish any fire on the first floor then proceed to the top floor. If the first hoseline is used to cover the first floor public hall, and a back up line is not needed, the second hoseline will be stretched into the cellar via the outside cellar entrance to extinguish the fire.
BS/RF 6.2

Question 32

Question 33:
Which choice below shows the proper steps for starting a fire pump using the control panel in a high rise office building?

1. Move selector lever to desired position increasing pump speed and thereby increasing pressure.
2. Close circuit breaker(s) & power “on” light will glow.
3. Push starting button & pump “on” light will glow.
4. Close knife switch to “on” position.

A: 4,2,3,1

B: 2,4,1,3

C: 1,2,4,3

D: 4,3,2,1

Answer 32

Answer: A

Explanation:
The proper steps are:
1. Close knife switch to “on” position.
2. Close circuit breaker(s) & power “on” light will glow.
3. Push starting button & pump “on” light will glow.
4. Move selector lever to desired position increasing pump speed and thereby increasing pressure.
HROB 4.1.4

Question 33

Question 34:
The incorrect statement made in reference to operating water into a manhole fire can be found in which choice?

A: Maintain a distance of at least 25 feet from the nozzle to the manhole, vault, or service box

B: Use a fog nozzle to reduce or prevent any shock hazard

C: Adjoining manholes and service boxes should be identified and clear of civilian and FD personnel before starting water

D: Always use water or FireIce as an initial tactic, especially if the manhole contains a transformer that’s on fire

Answer 33

Answer: D

Explanation:
DO NOT use water or FireIce as an initial tactic on a combustible liquid transformer fire.
AUC 180 4.7.2, 4.7.3, 4.7.4, 4.7.8

Question 34

Question 35:
In what way do wood braced-frame constructed buildings collapse?

A: Ninety-Degree-Angle Wall Collapse

B: Curtain-Fall Wall Collapse

C: Inward/Outward Collapse

D: Lean-To Collapse

Answer 34

Answer: C

Explanation:
Inward/Outward Collapse: The collapse of an exterior wall that breaks apart horizontally; the top collapses inward back on top of the structure and the bottom collapses outward on to the street. Wood braced-frame constructed buildings collapse this way. Timber truss roof collapse can cause a secondary collapse of a front wall in this manner
Collapse Add 3 2

Question 35

Question 36:
Wind can have a dramatic impact on a structural fire. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: The direction and speed of wind at the street level is not a reliable indicator of wind conditions above the street level. Wind behavior is not consistent or predictable.

B: Wind impacted fires only occur on the upper floors of buildings and require high winds to dramatically increase fire conditions inside the building.

C: Be aware that when fire and smoke pulse outward from a window, the condition in the interior will temporarily subside, giving a false sense that the interior conditions improved. When the wind gusts back into the window, the interior conditions will dramatically deteriorate.

D: Fire or smoke visible inside the fire apartment that is not venting out of an open or failed window is a potentially dangerous, life-threatening condition. This is the classic ventilation profile of a wind impacted fire.

Answer 35

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) Wind impacted fires have occurred on upper AND lower floors and it does NOT take high winds to dramatically increase fire conditions inside the building.
MD Ch 5 3.2.1, 3.2.2

Question 36

Question 37:
Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the TAC U channel?

A: Channel 42D is the primary TAC U Channel for use in the NYC region.

B: This channel transmits at either 2 or 5 watts.

C: If an emergency alert tone is activated on this channel, it is audible on FD HT’s across all channels.

D: If an emergency alert tone is activated on this channel, the on-scene ranking police officer must be informed that an emergency alert tone has been activated.

Answer 36

Answer: D

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 14 ADDENDUM 2
D IS CORRECT - 2.2
A – ZONE A -Channel 13 is designated as the TAC-U Channel. 2.1 – 42D is the primary UTAC Channel. Addendum 4
B – Transmits at 5 Watts - 2.1
C – Emergency alert tones are only audible on the channel on which the emergency alert has been activated. 2.2

Question 37

Question 38:
At an operation in a fireproof multiple dwelling where it is determined that the smoke and heat condition in the hallway is due to a wind impacted fire with the fire apartment door left open, members should abide by the information in each of the choices below except?

A: The Ladder Officer shall ensure members exit the public hallway immediately and notify the IC and Engine Officer of conditions. A hoseline shall be stretched and charged in the attack stairwell.

B: Once confirmation is received that an alternative strategy has been successfully implemented and approval to enter the public hallway is given by the IC, Operations Section Chief or Fire Sector Supervisor, only the Ladder Officer and one member of the forcible entry team shall enter the public hallway to locate and gain control of the fire apartment door while the other member of the interior team remains at the attack stairwell door on the hallway side to ensure the stairwell door remains closed.

C: Once the Ladder Officer gains control of the fire apartment door, the Engine Company may advance the charged hoseline to the fire apartment door, along with the Ladder Company member who remained at the stairwell door.

D: The Ladder Company Officer shall evaluate and communicate conditions to the IC and/or Fire Sector Supervisor. Once the decision has been made by the IC and/or Fire Sector Supervisor to enter the fire apartment, the Ladder Company must enter the apartment first followed by the Engine Company.

Answer 37

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) The Ladder Company Officer shall evaluate and communicate conditions to the IC and/or Fire Sector Supervisor. Once the decision has been made by the IC and/or Fire Sector Supervisor to enter the fire apartment, the ENGINE Company must enter the apartment FIRST followed by the LADDER Company.
B Note: The Engine Officer shall be responsible for control and coordination on the “stairwell side” of the door. The Ladder Officer shall utilize the TIC to assist in locating the fire apartment.
MD Ch 5 5.1 - 5.1.5

Question 38

Question 39:
When refilling and pressurizing the water extinguisher members must take proper safety precautions. Which one is incorrect?

A: Always ensure all pressure is properly relieved from the extinguisher prior to attempting recharge.

B: Regulated extinguisher pressurization source should never be set higher than 125 PSI.

C: Never stand directly in front of the extinguisher gauge or stand over the valve during pressurization.

D: Never use the apparatus to recharge the extinguisher due to the risk of water entering the brake system.

Answer 38

Answer: D

Explanation:
D. THE APPARATUS HAS A ONE WAY VALVE IN THE AIRLINE TO PREVENT WATER FROM ENTERING THE BRAKE SYSTEM.
TB Tools 1 6.0

Question 39

Question 40:
Officers should be familiar with the different types of private dwellings they may encounter. In which choice below is the private dwelling description incorrect?

A: “Ranch” style private dwellings are asymmetrical, single story structures with simple floor plans. Common shapes include rectangular, L-shaped or U-shaped design.

B: A “Cape Style House” is a split level home configuration where the multiple levels are visible from the front elevation. Typically, the garage is on one side of the house and there is a floor above the garage housing the bedrooms.

C: A “Semi Attached” private dwelling consists of a pair of houses built side by side as units sharing a common wall. Each house’s layout is a mirror image of its twin.

D: Private dwellings constructed of newer, lightweight material must be entered into the CIDS program. Floor collapse can be as serious a threat as a roof collapse and when fire extends from the building contents to the structure, early collapse can be expected.

Answer 39

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) A “SIDESPLIT” is a split level home configuration where the multiple levels are visible from the front elevation. Typically, the garage is on one side of the house and there is a floor above the garage housing the bedrooms.
B Note: The other half of the house is the main living area, half a story above the garage level and half a story below the bedroom level. Grading or steps connect the exterior street to the front door on the main level. Each floor is separated by a half flight of stairs. Most have a crawlspace that is half the size of the house. Others may have a split foundation with a full basement below the lower main living area.
A Note: The kitchen, living room and bedrooms are located on the first floor. There is a basement/cellar where all the utilities are located. It is also possible to find living quarters in the basement/cellar.
PD Ch 1 3.5-3.8