LT PKG EXAM #5

Question 1

Question 1:
The incorrect tactic when operating at a Amtrak Railroad fire can be found in which choice?

A: After the power has been removed from the catenary wires, but before the residual static electricity has been removed a fog line can be used to extinguish fire using short bursts of water to avoid accumulations of water pooling

B: After the power has been removed from the catenary wires, but before the residual static electricity has been removed a fog line can be used from the adjacent platform directing water at the trains undercarriage

C: After the power has been removed from the catenary wires, but before the residual static electricity has been removed a fog line can be operated from a platform into the train avoiding any contact with the overhead electrical wires and the pantograph connection

D: When using a fog stream, a minimum of 25’ must be maintained from catenary wires

Answer 1

Answer: D

Explanation:
All fire teams applying water with handheld fog nozzles should take full advantage of the reach of the fog stream and observe to a minimum approach distance of 10’ to catenary wires
AUC 207 add 9 sec 3.2

Question 2

Question 2:
Universal Gold Alcohol Resistant-Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AR-AFFF) is relatively new to the FDNY. Which description of this type of foam is correct?

A: AR-AFFF is not freeze/thaw stable. If the product is frozen, upon thawing there will be performance loss.

B: AR-AFFF can be mixed with other types of foam products.

C: AR-AFFF can be used side-by-side with other foam products on the same fire, when necessary.

D: AR-AFFF foam can be generated with fresh water only. Do not use salt water.

Answer 2

Answer: C

Explanation:
A. AR-AFFF IS FREEZE/THAW STABLE. If the product is frozen, upon thawing THERE IS NO performance loss.

B. AR-AFFF SHOULD NOT BE MIXED WITH ANY OTHER TYPE OF FOAM PRODUCT.

D. AR-AFFF foam can be generated with FRESH OR SALT WATER.

TB Foam: 3.1

Question 3

Question 3:
The use of a Large Caliber Stream (LCS) is an option in strategic firefighting operations. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: A Large Caliber Stream (LCS) is a fire stream that delivers 300 gpm of water flow or more.

B: Only the Incident Commander may order the use of a LCS, which may be the first arriving officer. This includes the first arriving engine using its apparatus deckpipe.

C: Whenever possible, an engine company supplying a LCS should be dedicated to that task and not engaged in supplying handlines.

D: A LCS should be supplied with the largest available hoselines, which will most commonly be 3 ½” hose. However, the Blitzfire Oscillating Monitor should only be supplied with a 2 ½” hoseline.

Answer 3

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) A Large Caliber Stream (LCS) is a fire stream that delivers 350 GPM of water flow or more.
Note: Engine companies supplying a LCS may require additional augmentation, especially when in-line pumping is used. This can be accomplished through the use of a 2 ½” single gate attached to a hydrant for the purpose of possible self-augmentation.
Eng Ch 9 1.1, 1.3, 2.1-2.3

Question 4

Question 4:
A 2nd Alarm has been transmitted for heavy fire in a wood-frame private dwelling that has extended to a similar attached dwelling to the left and multiple stores in a taxpayer on the right. Which exposure designations are CORRECT according to the communications manual?

A: The similar attached building is exposure 2 and the third store in the taxpayer is O4B.

B: The similar attached dwelling is exposure 2 and the first store in the taxpayer is 4-OA.

C: The similar attached dwelling is exposure 2 and the second store in the taxpayer is 4A

D: The similar attached dwelling is exposure 2 and the fourth store in the taxpayer is 4-OC

Answer 4

Answer: D

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL CHAPTER 10 – ADDENDUM 3
D IS CORRECT – COMM SECTION 8 (Illustration #5) – If the Fire building is O, the similar attached dwelling on the left is 2 and the taxpayer to the right is 4. The first store /subdivision is 4-0. The second store is 4-OA, 4-OB, 4-OC, etc…

Question 5

Question 5:
Which signal shall be transmitted during an encounter with a Emotionally Disturbed Person (EDP)

A: 10-47

B: 10-48

C: 10-31

D: 10-39

Answer 5

Answer: A

Explanation:
10-47- Police Response
10-48- Police response for harassment against firefighters
10-31- Assist civilian
10-39- FDNY units standing by at a suspicious package
AUC 271 and Communications ch 8

Question 6

Question 6:
When forcing a door conventionally using an axe and a halligan, place the fork of the halligan tool approximately ________.

A: 4” above the lock only

B: 4” above or below the lock

C: 6” above the lock only

D: 6” above or below the lock

Answer 6

Answer: D

Explanation:
TB Forcible Entry 2 1.2 A

Question 7

Question 7:
Which of the following choices is not indicative of positive stack effect in a high rise building during a structural fire?

A: Air and smoke movement inside the building travel upwards via vertical shafts and attempt to exit the building via available openings near the top of the building.

B: At the bottom of a vertical shaft, a negative pressure will be generated, which will have the effect of pulling air into the shaft via available openings near the bottom of the building.

C: A fire on a lower floor will tend to want to vent out of the windows while a fire on an upper floor will tend to draw air into the windows creating conditions similar to a wind impacted fire.

D: Smoke from a lower floor fire will be drawn up vertical shafts within the building and pulled back into floors with greater force as you go higher in the building and further away from the stack effect neutral pressure zone.

Answer 7

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) A fire on an UPPER FLOOR will tend to want to VENT OUT of the windows while a fire on a LOWER FLOOR will tend to draw air into the windows, creating conditions similar to a wind impacted fire.
TB FD Ch 4 1.7.1

Question 8

Question 8:
Which of the following represents the CORRECT radio code usage by a company officer?

A: Lt. A transmitted a 10-31 for an uninjured child rescued from a tree.

B: Lt. B transmitted a 10-37-3 for a person suffering from chemical burns.

C: Lt. C transmitted a 10-31 for the evaluation of the stability of a scaffold.

D: Lt. D transmitted a 10-28-3 for a medical emergency in the subway.

Answer 8

Answer: B

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 8 – RADIO COMMUNICATIONS
B IS CORRECT – 1045 is only transmitted for fire related injuries pg 8-14.
A – 10-43 – Any non-fire related rescue – Any person rescued/removed from a dangerous situation.
C – 10-31 shall not be utilized for any incident/emergency involving evaluation of structural stability, an operation involving a rescue or mitigation effort, or any type of hazardous condition.
D – 10-28-3 is transmitted for a non-medical emergency in the subway.

Question 9

Question 9:
In hot weather, coats and protective hoods may be dispensed with while responding. These responses include all of the following except?

A: Class J Alarms

B: Class E Alarms

C: BARS Alarms

D: ERS No-Contact

E: CFR Responses

Answer 9

Answer: A

Explanation:
Class E Alarms
BARS Alarms
ERS No-Contact
CFR Responses
Non-Structural Fires
Non-Fire Responses
*** Structural Fires……In hot weather, if the apparatus is not equipped with a functioning air conditioner, coats and protective hoods may be dispensed with while responding
AUC 310 sec 7.2

Question 10

Question 10:
Units are operating at the scene of an odor of gas in the area. Upon investigation, members discover a leaking plastic pipe outside in the street. Members are dispatched to check surrounding properties while the company officer determines the best way to control the leak. Since there are no valves that can be shut, he considers taping or stuffing rags in the leak in order to diminish it while waiting for the utility. The company officer would be correct to consider this tactic for this leak in which of the following situations?

A: It’s low pressure piping only.

B: It’s low or medium pressure piping.

C: It’s low, medium or high pressure piping.

D: This tactic is not an option.

Answer 10

Answer: D

Explanation:
LEAKING PLASTIC PIPE (PERMISSIBLE BY CODE FOR OUTSIDE USE) SHOULD NOT BE TOUCHED OR APPROACHED

HAD IT BEEN OTHER THAN A PLASTIC PIPE: A LEAK OR BREAK IN LOW PRESSURE GAS PIPING MAY BE STOPPED OR GREATLY DIMINISHED BY TAPING, OR STUFFING PUTTY, RGS, PAPER ETC., INTO THE BREAK. THIS TACTIC WILL NOT WORK ON MEDIUM OR HIGH PRESSURE PIPING BEFORE THE SERVICE REGULATOR.

Natural Gas 6.7.3

Question 11

Question 11:
During company drill, the covering Lieutenant correctly stated that “when an opening is created in a fire area, the heated gases will flow out of the top of the opening, and cool air will flow in through the bottom of the opening.” In which choice below was the Lieutenant’s follow-up comment incorrect?

A: Smoke or flame being discharged from the entire ventilation opening (no neutral plane visible) usually indicates that it is an outlet and that there is at least one inlet located somewhere else in the structure.

B: An opening that is both a ventilation inlet and outlet will show signs of laminar (smooth) or turbulent flow at the neutral plane depending on the stage and intensity of the fire.

C: Unidirectional or bidirectional flow of smoke/air that presents irregular stratification and shape, or alternates in direction (pulsates) is identified as “dynamic flow.”

D: Under normal wind conditions, a room with only one opening will display a unidirectional smoke/air track with no visible neutral plane.

Answer 11

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) Under normal wind conditions, a room with only one opening will display a BIDIRECTIONAL smoke/air track WITH a visible neutral plane.
Note: In a “wind-impacted” scenario, the opening can aggressively alternate from a total inlet to a total exhaust outlet with a range of unique vent profiles. This would be an example of Dynamic Flow.
TB FD Ch 2 4.4.2, 4.4.3, 4.4.5

Question 12

Question 12:
You are the Officer in charge of the 2nd arriving Ladder at a fire on the 4th floor of a 4-story Brownstone. Which of your members did not carry the correct tools?

A: The OV FF carried a 6’ hook, Halligan tool, Flashlight and HT

B: The Roof FF carried a Halligan tool, 6’ Halligan Hook, Flashlight and HT

C: The Forcible Entry FF carried an Axe/Maul, Halligan, Rabbit tool, Flashlight and HT

D: The Extinguisher FF carried a 6’ Hook, Pressurized water extinguisher, Flashlight and HT

Answer 12

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) Note: For top floor fires, the SAW is taken to the roof with the 6’ Halligan Hook. Since the fire is on the 4th floor of a 4-story building, this is a top floor fire.
Bs/Rf 2.7

Question 13

Question 13:
Your unit just finished operating at a space case (person caught between the train and the platform) that resulted in multiple members equipment becoming contaminated with blood and other potentially infectious material. You took the following actions. Which action is incorrect?

A: You had the members put the radios in double clear bags and placed the bag near the HW area to be picked up by the Decon Support Unit (DSU)

B: If both bunker pants and PSS have been contaminated, members shall separate the PSS from the pants prior to bagging both items

C: Red or black bags are not to be used when sending contaminate PPE out to be decon

D: All members with the same contaminate can be listed on the same Equipment Decontamination Report (EDR-1) form. Separate forms are required for different contaminates

Answer 13

Answer: A

Explanation:
Radios, tools, and other hard surface equipment shall be decon in quarters with a bleach solution
AUC 310 add 5

Question 14

Question 14:
Which point below concerning a steam high energy line break in a generating plant is incorrect?

A: Enter a Con Ed generating plant without Con Ed personnel for a known life hazard only.

B: Asbestos pipe insulation can be found in the plant, on pipes buries under the street and in buildings supplied with steam.

C: Plant personnel will mitigate the emergency.

D: FDNY should only enter the plant to perform search and rescue for missing plant personnel.

Answer 14

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. NEVER enter a Con Ed generating plant without Con Ed personnel.

Steam 4.1

Question 15

Question 15:
When an inoperative standpipe system is encountered at a high rise fire, alternate procedures must be considered. One of these procedures is called the “exterior hose drop.” Which of the following choices contains incorrect information regarding this procedure?

A: The execution of an exterior hose drop must be approved by the Incident Commander and communicated to all units. The engine officer will communicate with the Incident Commander and the ECC to coordinate the location from which the hoseline will be lowered.

B: On the ground, the ECC will stretch a 2 ½” line to the point at which the lowered line will reach the ground.

C: On the floor below the fire, members of the first due engine will connect their lengths of hose and begin to lower it out the window. If there is a rope available, it can be tied as a safety precaution.

D: After the hose has been lowered, members of the first due engine company must properly secure the hose; this is the most critical point of the evolution. A clove hitch and binder must be tied and secured directly below the first hose coupling that will be located outside the window.

Answer 15

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) After the hose has been lowered, members of the first due engine company must properly secure the hose; this is the most critical point of the evolution. A ROLLING HITCH must be tied and secured directly below the first hose coupling that will be located outside the window.
Note: The rolling hitch must be tied and secured before the line is charged. If a different knot, such as a standard clove hitch, is used, the line will likely kink around the rope and severely limit water flow. The wide surface area of the rolling hitch (4 turns around the rope) will minimize this kinking effect.
Eng Ch 10 2.6.1 - 2.6.5

Question 16

Question 16:
You are in Ladder company 88 and arrive at a fire in an H-type Multiple Dwelling. Which of the following choices is NOT LISTED as information you must transmit to the IC upon arrival at the fire apartment? (INCORRECT)

A: Access to the fire area & location of the fire apartment.

B: Smoke condition in the hallway.

C: Fire Conditions and whether fire is extending

D: Difficulties or delays gaining entrance to the fire area or in advancing line.

Answer 16

Answer: B

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS CHAPTER 9 – COMPANY UNIT COMMUNICATIONS
B IS INCORRECT – Smoke condition is not listed as must transmit information. Color and Volume of smoke coming from windows is listed as information transmitted by the roof firefighter to the IC.
A, C. D are CORRECT

Question 17

Question 17:
Which policy is incorrect when a crime is reported to or observed by members of the FDNY?

A: If a civilian is being threatened with bodily harm or is being assaulted, members may intervene, consistent with their personal safety, to assist to the victim. The Police Department must be notified immediately

B: If a past crime has been reported or observed, (e.g. a thief has stolen a woman’s pocketbook and is running down the street) members may intervene and pursue the perpetrator, consistent with their personal safety and notify Police Department

C: If a crime in progress involving an armed perpetrator is reported or observed, member must exercise utmost restraint and should not intervene. The Police Department must be notified immediately.

D: This policy applies to all members of the Uniformed Force EXCEPT those members of the Bureau of Fire Investigation who are sworn Police Officers. These members shall respond to observed or reported criminal acts in accordance with established practice and procedures for Police Officers

Answer 17

Answer: B

Explanation:
If a past crime has been reported or observed, (e.g. a thief has stolen a woman’s pocketbook and is running down the street) members shall provide first aid/assistance to the victim and notify Police Department
AUC 317 add 2

Question 18

Question 18:
All members of the FAST unit should be fully prepared to operate upon arrival. Which FAST unit responsibility described below is incorrect?

A: Whether EFAS trained or not, the FAST unit member assigned to monitor EFAS and/or the FAST radio shall remain in the Battalion vehicle, even if the FAST unit is given an assignment.

B: When the FAST unit operation requires the use of a ladder, never reposition ladders already in place against a fire building.

C: The FAST unit shall remain intact and not split up when dealing with large commercial or complex buildings.

D: The FAST unit may consider a two-sided approach where the search team makes access via the interior and the removal team makes access via the exterior of the building.

Answer 18

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. When the FAST unit operation requires the use of a ladder, AVOID REPOSITIONING ladders already in place against a fire building UNLESS IT IS A LIFE THREATENING SITUATION AND NOTIFICATION IS MADE TO MEMBERS OPERATING IN THAT AREA.

MMID CH 2 5.1, 7.2, 7.3, 7.4

Question 19

Question 19:
Two members of your unit were drilling on portable ladder operations. Which statement made was incorrect?

A: When an extension ladder is raised, the halyard shall be tied off to the lower section of the ladder as a safety measure and prevent the ladder locks from accidentally unlocking by a pull on the rope.

B: Telescoping ladders have no heat resistance and must not be used for laddering in firefighting operations or any other situation where the ladder could be exposed to heat.

C: Ladders should never be placed against window panes, window sashes, or loose boxes, barrels, or other surfaces that may break or collapse.

D: Always face the ladder when ascending or descending and do not climb higher than the second rung from the top on either straight or extension ladders.

Answer 19

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) Always face the ladder when ascending or descending and do not climb higher than the THIRD rung from the top on either straight or extension ladders.
Lad 1 12.1

Question 20

Question 20:
During certain emergencies, a Tower Ladder may be used as a high point anchor. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding this procedure?

A: The preferred location for the high point anchor is under the bucket. The landing pads of the bucket serve as an excellent point to be used as a high point anchor.

B: Remove all members from the apparatus, turn the siren to the “on” position and place the apparatus to the “off” position.

C: The metal stokes basket should be utilized at all high point anchor operations.

D: Under no circumstances should a Tower Ladder be used as a crane to “lift” a patient.

Answer 20

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) The preferred location for the high point anchor is under the bucket. Under NO CIRCUMSTANCES shall the landing pads of the bucket be used as a high point anchor.
A Note: Pending the arrival of units from SOC, the bucket should be positioned in a manner that will allow for rigging to be properly secured.
B Note: In the event someone turns the apparatus on, the siren will alert all members on scene.
TL Ch 5 5.4

Question 21

Question 21:
The incorrect statement made in regards to the Proby Notebook can be found in which choice?

A: Officer on duty shall initial and date in red once a month

B: A tool list from their current unit shall be attached to the first page of the notebook

C: Monthly training module receipt should be printed and stapled to the current training notebook page at time of completion

D: Notebooks shall be kept in company office when not in use

Answer 21

Answer: A

Explanation:
Officer on duty shall initial and date in red ink when the subject mater has been reviewed or drilled on
*** Company Commander shall initial and date in red ink once a month
AUC 323 and add 2

Question 22

Question 22:
The Hydra Ram is hydraulically operated forcible entry tool. Which additional point below describing this tool is correct?

A: The hydra-ram cannot be used under water.

B: Its main purpose is for forcible entry of outward and inward opening doors.

C: The tool is designed to be used in a horizontal position only.

D: If needed, gently strike the hydra ram with a tool to gain a purchase.

Answer 22

Answer: B

Explanation:
A. The hydra-ram CAN BE USED under water.

C. The tool is designed to OPERATE IN ANY POSITION.

D. NEVER strike the hydra ram with a tool to gain a purchase.

VARITATION OF THIS QUESTION ON 2021 CAPT EXAM

TB Tools 26 2.2, 2.3, 3.3, 4.2

Question 23

Question 23:
When an inoperative standpipe system is encountered at a high rise fire, alternate procedures must be considered. One of these procedures is called the “reverse stairway stretch.” Which of the following choices contains incorrect information regarding this procedure?

A: It involves members carrying 2 ½” roll-ups into the building and stretching down the stairway to the apparatus. Members should ensure the female end of the hose is being stretched downwards towards the street.

B: Rather than beginning the stretch on the street level, the stretch begins on the fire floor and additional lengths are added as it continues down the designated stairway. This method will use gravity to facilitate a long and difficult stretch.

C: The execution of a reverse stairway stretch must be approved by the Incident Commander and communicated to all units. The engine officer will communicate with the Incident Commander and the ECC to identify the stairway to be used for the stretch.

D: On the ground, the ECC (assisted by additional engine companies) will begin stretching 2 ½” hose up the designated stairway.

Answer 23

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) Rather than beginning the stretch on the street level, the stretch begins on the FLOOR BELOW the fire and additional lengths are added as it continues down the designated stairway. This method will use gravity to facilitate a long and difficult stretch.
Note: Although 2.4.7 states “In both scenarios, the key point is that 2 ½” roll-ups are carried to the FIRE AREA and stretched down to the apparatus,” it’s this author’s opinion that Choice B would stand on test day.
Eng Ch 10 2.4.5, 2.4.7, 2.5.1-2.5.3, 2.5.6,

Question 24

Question 24:
Members of Fire and EMS are working at the collapse of a corner multiple dwelling and you are the Fast Truck. Moments into the operation, a minor secondary collapse occurs, and your EFAS FF receives an emergency transmission from an unidentified member of EMS. What is the leading number of the internal radio code for EMS radios?

A: 3

B: 4

C: 5

D: 6

Answer 24

Answer: A

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS CHAPTER CHAPTER 11–ADDENDUM 4 PG 4
A IS CORRECT – 3 is EMS
B – 4 is for ARCS
C – 5 is Engine companies, brush fire units and communications engine HT’s
D – 6 is division spares and comnmunications

Question 25

Question 25:
Which tactic in incorrect when operating at an overt biological agent release?

A: Establish an initial Exclusion Zone at least 300 feet in all directions from the source or point(s) of release

B: Mandatory respiratory protection for any responder

C: If the biological agent is released indoors, then evacuate immediate area and seal off the area by closing doors and windows and using plastic to cover any openings. Avoid entry to the site for a minimum time of 15 minutes to allow biological to settle to reduce exposure of the inhalation hazard

D: Transmit 10-80

Answer 25

Answer: C

Explanation:
C- minimum time of 30 minutes to one hour
ERP ch 1 add 1 sec 5.2

Question 26

Question 26:
Several CFR protocols are mentioned below. Which one is incorrect?

A: Once an individual has been identified as a patient, the company has a duty to evaluate, render appropriate treatment and generate a PCR.

B: If it is determined that the patient’s condition is either unstable or potentially unstable (utilizing CUPS status) the officer in charge shall ask the dispatcher for an ETA of the responding ambulance and advise the dispatcher to relay the seriousness of the patient’s condition to responding EMS unit(s).

C: Following the arrival of an EMS unit on the scene, the CFR-D company operating at a segment one incident will remain on the scene and assist the EMS unit until is it determined that their assistance is no longer needed.

D: A PCR is not required when a CFR-D company is on-scene (10-84) at any CFR-D assignment unless patient care is provided.

Answer 26

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. If it is determined that the patient’s condition is either CRITICAL OR UNSTABLE (utilizing CUPS status) the officer in charge shall ask the dispatcher for an ETA of the responding ambulance and advise the dispatcher to relay the seriousness of the patient’s condition to responding EMS unit(s).

CRITICAL: “VCR”

VENTILATORY/CIRCUALTORY SUPPORT (PATIENT RECEIVING) CPR
RESPIRATORY ARREST

UNSTABLE: “DRUG”

DIFFICULTY BREATHING
RESPONSIVE BUT UNABLE TO FOLLOW SIMPLE COMMANDS
UNRESPONSIVE WITH NO GAG OR COUGH REFLEXES
GENERAL IMPRESSION POOR

CFR Ch 2 3.9.1, 3.9.3, 3.9.5, 3.10.1

Question 27

Question 27:
Total reliance cannot always be placed on power equipment when venting the roof of a nonfireproof tenement. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding ventilation of a roof utilizing an axe?

A: Cut through the roof covering and remove it, exposing the sheathing. The roof sheathing is placed in the same direction as the beams; generally from sidewall to sidewall.

B: Cut through sheathing at opposite sides of the proposed opening, close to the beam, to lessen the bounce of the axe and the resultant binding action when the axe goes through a springy portion of the sheathing.

C: Remove cut sheathing from the opening with a member on each end of the cut section working in unison to remove tar, tin and nails.

D: Push down the ceiling of the top floor with a 6` hook.

Answer 27

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) Cut through the roof covering and remove it, exposing the sheathing. The roof sheathing is placed at RIGHT ANGLES to the beams and generally run FRONT to REAR.
Note: The approximate location of the beam may be determined by “sounding” with the back of the axe.
When there is a tin covering between the asphalt covering and the roof boards, it will require an accurate cut to separate the tin from the roof boards. This frequently requires two cutting operations - the first cut is the tar and the tin which is removed prior to cutting the roof boards.
Lad 3 5.9.7

Question 28

Question 28:
Air flow can have a dramatic effect during a fire operation in a high rise office building. Which of the following choices contains incorrect information?

A: All horizontal ventilation tactics shall be controlled, communicated and coordinated by the IC.

B: When operating in a building that has a fixed stairwell pressurization system that is activated, the IC shall continue operations with the system on.

C: Under no circumstances should a building with a fixed stairwell pressurization system be augmented by FDNY Positive Pressure Ventilation Fans.

D: The use of FDNY Positive Pressure Ventilation Fans shall not be initiated until authorized by the IC.

Answer 28

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) A fixed stairwell pressurization system should not be augmented by FDNY Positive Pressure Ventilation Fans UNLESS it is out of service. FDNY Positive Pressure Ventilation Fans can also be used if there is no fixed stairwell pressurization system.
HROB 6.3.8 A-C

Question 29

Question 29:
Which chemical agent has an odor of burnt almonds?

A: Nerve agent

B: Blister agent

C: Blood agent

D: Choking agent

Answer 29

Answer: C

Explanation:
Nerve agent- Fruity odor
Blister agent- Garlic odor
Blood agent- Burnt almond odor
Choking agent- Musky hay odor
ERP add 2 p-18

Question 30

Question 30:
Four of the five major defects or faults in the construction of places of worship are listed below. Which one is incorrect?

A: Large open areas with limited or no fire stopping.

B: Lack of fire suppression and detection systems.

C: The vast quantity of non-combustible material used in the truss roof construction.

D: Early collapse potential.

Answer 30

5 IS NUMEROUS CONCEALED VOIDS

Answer: C

Explanation:
C. The vast quantity of COMBUSTIBLE material used in the truss roof construction.

CODE: “CLOVE”

COMBUSTIBLE MATERIAL (VAST QUANTITY IN TRUSS ROOF CONSTRUCTION)
LACK OF FIRE SUPRESSION AND DETECTION SYSTEMS
OPEN AREAS WITH LIMITED OR NO FIRE-STOPPING
VOIDS
EARLY COLLAPSE POTENTIAL

Places of Worship 1.3.11

Question 31

Question 31:
Knowledge of construction features in private dwellings of lightweight construction is crucial to the safety of members during fire operations. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: When lightweight construction is suspected, an immediate examination of the ceiling voids shall be conducted as soon as conditions permit. If any type of lightweight system is found, an immediate notification to the IC is required.

B: The presence of smoke pushing at the floor line on the outside of a building may be an indication of a fire in a trussloft. When this warning sign is evident, it is an indication that the probability of collapse is significantly increased.

C: Units operating above the fire should use caution, since the Thermal Imaging Camera may not always detect the intensity of the fire below. In addition, it may not detect heat or fire where double - 5/8” plasterboard is used.

D: Unless the fire is minor, or confined to a small area, the primary emphasis for a fire in any kind of lightweight building is that of an exterior attack.

Answer 31

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) Unless the fire is minor, or confined to a small area, the primary emphasis for a fire in a lightweight building UNDER CONSTRUCTION is that of an exterior attack.
PD Ch 6 4.1.2, 4.1.6, 4.1.7, 4.1.12

Question 32

Question 32:
Engine 256 and Ladder 171 just wrapped up operating at a fire in an unoccupied new car parked on the street with no plates. The engine officer transmitted the following signals. Which is CORRECT?

A: 10-24 & 10-41-1

B: 10-23 & 10-41-3

C: 10-24 & 10-41-3

D: 10-23 & 10-41-1

Answer 32

Answer: C

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 8
C IS CORRECT – 10-24 – A vehicle with plates OR in any vehicle having a value greater than that of salvage. 10-41-3 – A vehicle, with or without plates which is unoccupied at the time of the fire.

Question 33

Question 33:
Under normal conditions during a radiological emergency, when should you rotate your members out of the hot zone when exposed to radiation?

A: 5 Rem

B: 5 mR

C: 25 Rem

D: 25 mR

Answer 33

Answer: A

Explanation:
ERP add 4 sec 3.2.2

Question 34

Question 34:
When operating at a gas leak members have several options for shutting down the gas supply depending on the situation. Which procedure outlined below is incorrect?

A: When possible, prior to shutting a master meter valve notify the utility company and inquire as to possible alternatives.

B: When shutting the head of service valve, regardless if it is located on the interior or the exterior of the building, it will always be located before the building meter(s).

C: Although the FDNY is authorized to shut curb valves, it should only be done as a last resort. Consultation with the utility company is not required.

D: The FDNY is not permitted to shut a main valve.

Answer 34

Answer: C

Explanation:
C. Although the FDNY is authorized to shut curb valves, it should only be done as a last resort AND IN CONSULTATION WITH THE UTILITY COMPANY.

Natural Gas 6.7.3

Question 35

Question 35:
The multiversal is a tool that may be resorted to when a fixed, large caliber stream is required. All of the following choices contain correct information regarding this tool except?

A: If there is no substantial object readily available in the area, the supply hose itself can be used as a substantial object by looping the supply hose in front of the multiversal and tying the rope to it.

B: The multiversal shall always be supplied by two supply lines. It is dangerous to supply the multiversal with only one line.

C: The maximum allowable pressure supplied to the appliance base is 200 psi.

D: The multiversal should be supplied with the largest size hose available. Generally, this is 3 ½” hose, though it is possible to supply it with 2 ½” hose.

Answer 35

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) The multiversal should be supplied with two supply lines WHENEVER POSSIBLE, though it CAN be operated when supplied with only one line.
A Note: The supply hose should be laid straight back for 15 feet before it is looped in front of the multiversal.
Eng Ch 9 4.4.4, 4.6.2-4.5.4

Question 36

Question 36:
The condition of the victim must be considered at collapse operations. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: Heavy demolition equipment (cranes, bulldozers, etc.) is forbidden during the Selected Debris Removal stage.

B: Tools that perform a task quickly are usually preferable, (e.g., use a torch instead of a sawzall to cut steel.)

C: Crush Syndrome is fundamentally based on compromised local circulation and involvement of muscle mass.

D: Crush Syndrome is based on prolonged compression; usually 4-6 hours, but possibly less than an hour.

Answer 36

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) Tools that perform a task WITHOUT PRODUCING SHOWERS OF SPARKS are usually preferable to those that do, e.g., use a SAWZALL instead of a torch to cut steel.
Collapse 11.8, 11.13.2, 11.13.5

Question 37

Question 37:
Choose the incorrect statement in regards to Bunker Gear cleaning.

A: Sending Bunker Gear to the Decon Support Unit (DSU) does not satisfy the requirements for advance cleaning

B: Bunker boots, pants, coat, gloves, and hood can be cleaned in a sink designated for cleaning protective clothing inside the firehouse

C: If a member is currently on a long term detail to a different unit his/her gear will be cleaned with the gear of the unit to which the member is detailed. The name of the member shall be added to that units cleaning roster

D: If a member does not have an alternate set of clean bunker gear due to required laundering, member can obtain loaner gear by contacting Special Operations Command (SOC)

Answer 37

Answer: D

Explanation:
A- All Bunker Gear is required to be sent to the Independent Service Provider for advance cleaning……sending gear to DSU is considered routine cleaning
D- Haz-Mat DSU…….this was a change in 2019 AUC 310 add 1 and 2

Question 38

Question 38:
A Bronx ladder company was drilling with a junior member on the Kernmantle Life Saving Rope (KLSR). They were discussing some features of the rope but were incorrect in which one choice below?

A: The KLSR will be marked every one (1) foot, the one foot mark is designed to assist the operator in identifying speed of descent and distance.

B: The KLSR is a static rope with minimal stretch.

C: During a lowering operation the KLSR will always be used in conjunction with an energy absorber.

D: The KLSR is 1/2” in diameter.

Answer 38

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. The KLSR will be marked EVERY ONE METER, THE ONE METER mark is designed to assist the operator in identifying speed of descent and distance.

ALSO NOTE: THE ONE-METER MARK DOES NOT COMPROMISE THE INTEGRITY OR STRENGTH OF THE ROPE.

THIS IS A NEW ROPE (BULLETIN RELEASED 7/30/2021) AND VERY TESTABLE.

TB Rope 10 1.2, 1.5, 1.6

Question 39

Question 39:
During company drill at a vacant building, with approval of the Department, a newly trained LCC attempted to ventilate upper floor windows using the aerial ladder. In which choice below was a mistake made?

A: The LCC ascertained the width of the area to be ventilated and positioned the center of the turntable at the center of this span of windows.

B: To practice venting for extinguishment, the LCC aimed at the upper window panels, just above the sash, and extended the aerial ladder without hitting the sides or tops of window frames.

C: After extending, the LCC lowered the ladder, cracking the horizontal sash and allowing for complete ventilation of the window.

D: Ventilation was completed as the LCC exerted lateral pressure in both directions to fully clear the window.

Answer 39

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) Ventilation shall ONLY be performed by EXTENDING the ladder through the window or by LOWERING the ladder into the window. Under no circumstances shall ventilation of windows be effected by exerting lateral pressure with the ladder.
A Note: If there are obstructions hindering the use of the aerial ladder in this manner, position to get the largest number of windows.
B Note: Only a slight extension through the window is required. This will avoid striking the ceiling, which could bind or damage the ladder.
C Note: When the angle becomes extreme, just lower the ladder so that the inside beam breaks the window.
Lad 2 4.1-4.6.1

Question 40

Question 40:
In addition to placing markings at the site of a vacant building, company officers from the administrative unit shall take additional actions. Which action is listed incorrectly?

A: Ensure that all vacant buildings in their administrative district are entered into the eCIDS program, stating that the building is vacant and listing any potential operational issues and special hazards.

B: Forward a memo to all units and the administrative Battalion and Division within the first-alarm area, conveying relevant information.

C: When appropriate, forward a Department of Buildings (DOB) Referral Report - Normal Priority to DOB citing “Building Vacant, Open and Unguarded.”

D: When appropriate, forward a DOB Referral Report - Normal Priority citing “Structural Stability Affected” if there are structural integrity issues, noting specific building conditions.

Answer 40

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) When appropriate, forward a HIGH PRIORITY DOB Referral Report citing “Structural Stability Affected” if there are structural integrity issues, noting specific building conditions.
Vacants 3.1