LT PKG EXAM #6 Flashcards
Question 1:
The FDNY Foam Delivery System is a multi-tiered approach, which provides different levels of response to various sized incidents. Several foam capabilities of first alarm units are outlined below. Which one is incorrect?
A: Ladder companies have limited foam capabilities. They are limited to 2 ½-gallon hand-held AFFF extinguishers.
B: Ladder companies are required to carry two five-gallon containers of AR-AFFF (red band) foam concentrate to be used by Engine companies.
C: Each Engine company must carry at least three five-gallon containers of AR-AFFF foam concentrate, a handline foam eductor which flows 125 GPM, and an aerating foam nozzle.
D: The first alarm assignment of three Engines and two Ladders will provide approximately 10 minutes of finished firefighting foam at 3% setting on the eductor with the aerating foam nozzle.
Answer: D
Explanation:
D. The first alarm assignment of three Engines and two Ladders will provide approximately 17 MINUTES of finished firefighting foam at 3% setting on the eductor with the aerating foam nozzle.
FIRST ALARM UNITS PROVIDE 13 FIVE-GALLON CONTAINERS OF FOAM WHICH IS TOTAL OF 65 GALLONS.
TB Foam: 7.2
Question 2:
Truck operations at H-type fires may vary considerably from operations at other nonfireproof multiple dwelling fires. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A: Aerial ladders, if first to arrive at an H-type fire, should not be positioned so as to block off the front entrance courtyard unless rescue operations must be performed.
B: If the fire is showing out windows in the throat, courtyard and front windows of an H-type, and a tower ladder stream is being used, it should be directed at the windows in the front of the building first, and then advanced toward the throat.
C: For fire in an H-type, an additional engine company and ladder company (beyond a full 1st alarm assignment) should be called for a medium fire condition. That is, when it is anticipated that two lines will be required.
D: If two floors of an H-type are involved in fire, or if there is an extensive cockloft fire, it will generally be necessary to transmit a 2nd alarm.
Answer: B
Explanation:
B) If fire is showing out windows in the throat, courtyard and front windows of an H-type, and a tower ladder stream is being used, it should be directed at the windows in the THROAT FIRST. The stream should then be advanced toward the FRONT of the building and finally operated into the FRONT WINDOWS.
A Note: When possible, this position should be taken by a tower ladder.
MD Ch 1 4.4.2, 4.5.4
Question 3:
You and your company are on scene of a aircraft crash on airport property. You are tasked with search and rescue for the incident. While searching for possible survivors, you are trying to remember the information in reference to the flight data recorders in case your unit discovers them. The incorrect information in regards to the flight data recorders can be found in which choice?
A: As a general rule, the flight data recorders are located in the rear of the fuselage.
B: Spherical recorders are painted dark yellow with black stripes
C: Rectangular recorders are red or international orange
D: Once located and secured, the recorders must not be opened or tampered with
Answer: B
Explanation:
Bright yellow
AUC 325 sec 4.2.3
Question 4:
Which of the following CIDS entries CORRECTLY describes an existing 4-Story Frame Multiple Dwelling that was renovated using lightweight metal C-joist with an added 2-Story, 10x20 setback in the rear?
A: REHAB – 4 STY – 25X80 – CL4LW
B: MJALT – 4 STY – 25X80 – CL2LW
C: REHAB – 4 STY – 25X80 – CL2LW
D: MJALT – 4 STY – 25X80 – CL4LW
Answer: D
Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 4 – CIDS – NEW MATERIAL
D IS CORRECT – 4.3.1A – FD Designation “MJALT” (MAJOR ALTERATION) should be utilized for existing structures which have extensive alterations that involve HORIZONTAL EXTENSIONS, VERTICAL EXTENSIONS, or extensive changes to the structure changing its occupancy or purpose. Added extension in the rear is the Major Alt. A Wood Frame structure which is constructed, renovated, or repaired using any type of structural Light-Weight materials should be classified as CL4LW.
Question 5:
The Diamond Blade is a new blade that is replacing the abrasive disks used for the portable power saw. Which feature of the Diamond Blade mentioned is correct?
A: The blade can cut wood; however this is not recommended.
B: The blade can be used for dry cutting only.
C: The blade only cuts effectively when used in the proper direction. Members shall follow the directional arrows on the blade.
D: The blade does not cut bullet proof glass or plastic pipe.
Answer: A
Explanation:
B. The blade can be used for dry WET AND DRY cutting.
C. The blade only cuts effectively when used in BOTH DIRECTIONS. Members shall DISREGARD ANY directional arrows on EARLIER VERSIONS OF the blade.
D. The blade DOES CUT bullet proof glass or plastic pipe.
TB Tools 9 Appendix 1 Blades 2.3.6, 2.3.8, 2.3.15
Question 6:
Two members discussing “stack effect” at high rise office building fires disagreed on which incorrect point made during the conversation?
A: Natural vertical ventilation (ventilation without the use of fans), is an option. This will increase the stack effect and assist in the removal of smoke via the stairway.
B: Natural vertical ventilation is influenced by the stack effect as its effect increases as the building’s height increases.
C: Positive stack effect increases as the outside air temperature decreases in relation to the temperature inside the building and negative stack effect may occur when the outside temperature is greater than the temperature inside the building.
D: To obtain the greatest benefit from the stack effect, the doors at the bottom of the stairway must be closed when a stairway is used for smoke removal.
Answer: D
Explanation:
D) To obtain the greatest benefit from the stack effect, the doors at the top AND bottom of the stairway must be OPENED when a stairway is used for smoke removal. The street floor near this stairway must also be vented to the outer air.
A Note: This is accomplished by opening the doors at the top and bottom of the stairway ONCE THE FIRE IS EXTINGUISHED.
HROB 6.3.8 D
Question 7:
Which procedure is incorrect when operating an at an aircraft incident?
A: When the landing gear or the tires of the aircraft are on fire, always approach from the sides (inline with the axle) of the wheel assembly
B: The safe distance for members to be of an operating aircraft engine is at least 40 feet
C: When laddering an aircraft wing for rescue, always ladder the leading edge or the front instead of the rear of the wing
D: When trying to determine if hazardous materials are stored on board, you can ask the pilot for the air-bill or cargo manifest
Answer: A
Explanation:
AUC 325
A- When the landing gear or the tires of the aircraft are on fire, always approach from the FRONT OR REAR of the wheel assembly….sec 6.5.1
B- Within 40 feet members can be drawn into the engine….sec 6.5.4
C- Moving parts are found at the rear of wings …sec 6.7.3
D- sec 6.7.4
Question 8:
While the specific organization of Engine Company hosebeds may vary among units based on their response area and response patterns, each of the following guidelines must be adhered to except?
A: At least one bed must contain 6 lead lengths of 1 ¾” hose.
B: At least one bed must contain only 2 ½” hose.
C: At least one bed must contain only 3 ½” hose.
D: The lead length of all hosebeds with either 1 ¾” hose or 2 ½” hose must be maintained with a straight-stream nozzle, or fog nozzle rotated to the right, attached.
Answer: D
Explanation:
D) The lead length of all hosebeds with either 1 ¾” hose or 2 ½” hose must be maintained with a STRAIGHT-STREAM nozzle attached.
D Note: These hosebeds are intended for fire attack.
Eng Ch 2 8.2, 8.3
Question 9:
When operating at an inside gas leak which SOP is incorrect?
A: If the natural gas meter displays any readings at the building entrance/first floor, the Ladder Company Inside Team should go directly to the basement/cellar to investigate. Do not delay by going to a caller on an upper floor.
B: If the leak is found and can be controlled by a valve or, on a low pressure service (or medium/high pressure service before the service regulator) by taping/plugging, then do so.
C: If the leak is found and levels can be kept at less than 80% LEL by venting, you may continue to operate.
D: If it is suspected that natural gas has been leaking for a considerable amount of time and is likely trapped in a void space, treat the affected area as a “potential blast zone.”
Answer: B
Explanation:
THE REGULATOR IS WHAT BRINGS A HIGH/MEDIUM PRESSURE GAS SERVICE DOWN TO LOW PRESSURE. SO AFTER THE REGULATOR IT WILL BE LOW PRESSURE NOT BEFORE THE REGULATOR
Natural Gas Pg 32
Question 10:
Portable ladders require proper maintenance to function correctly when they are required. Which choice below is not in accordance with Department policy?
A: A visual inspection of portable ladders shall be made weekly, and after use. A thorough inspection of portable ladders shall be made monthly.
B: Grease on internally guided aluminum truss ladders shall be cleaned from the guiding grooves and recoated each year, or when the grease has dried out and is no longer an effective aid to sliding.
C: Plain candle wax or paraffin shall be applied every three months to all contacting surfaces of multiple section ladders and telescoping ladders to ensure smooth operation.
D: Pulleys on all extension ladders have a ball bearing center that requires 1 to 2 drops of oil once a year.
Answer: C
Explanation:
C) Plain candle wax or paraffin shall be applied every three months to all contacting surfaces of multiple section ladders to ensure smooth operation. Do NOT use candle wax, paraffin or grease to lubricate a telescoping ladder. If lubrication is required use a silicone-based furniture polish (such as Pledge) on the beams of the ladder. Never use WD40 or similar oil-based lubricants, as this may clog the mechanisms inside the ladder.
Lad 1 13.2, 13.3, 13.5
Question 11:
The incorrect procedure upon the discovery of a new cell site on one of your buildings can be found in which choice?
A: The administrative company must notify their battalion, division, and all first alarm units via telephone followed by written memo
B: The administrative company must do an on site inspection and evaluate the cell site
C: The administrative company should complete and submit a CIDS card and forward it to their battalion fire prevention coordinator
D: The CIDS card should specify the location of all antennas on the roof (ex: antennas located on 1/2 corner and 3/4 corner)
Answer: D
Explanation: CIDS card should specify: - Location of the cell site room - Backup power supply location - Shut offs Emergency phone number of the cell phone company AUC 331 sec 4
Question 12:
Ladder Company 171 was assigned to a Class E Alarm in a 15-Story hotel. Upon arrival, they discovered the alarm is for a CO detector in room 707 on the 7th floor. Which action taken by the company was CORRECT?
A: All members of the ladder company accompanied the officer into the building lobby.
B: The officer made contact with building personnel in the lobby and directed them to attempt to reset the alarm system.
C: An additional member remained in the lobby while the officer and remaining members boarded an elevator to further investigate the CO alarm activation.
D: The officer transmitted a 10-38 code 3 after getting readings of 10 ppm on the CO meter.
Answer: D
Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 6 ADDENDUM 2 – NEW MATERIAL – CO DET
D IS CORRECT – Detector activation: CO Emergency – reading of greater than 9ppm – 10-38 code 3.
A – All members except the chauffeur 3.2
B – If the alarm is determined to be a CO detector activation, the officer shall notify the dispatcher, then investigate the area of activation REGARDLESS of alarm status. 3.4 note
C – Activation was on the 7th floor. Elevators are only used when above 7th floor. 3.6 & Elevators Section 6
Question 13:
The FDNY has both Water Rescue Units and Water Safety Units. Which description of these units is incorrect?
A: Water Rescue Units do not search for submerged victims.
B: Water Safety Units have been issued a water safety kit to use when a water rescue trained company is not on the scene.
C: Entry into the water by Water Safety Units should not be attempted.
D: Companies with a water safety kit can operate from the shore alone as well as assist Water Rescue and SCUBA trained companies when on scene.
Answer: C
Explanation:
C. Entry into the water by Water Safety Units should ONLY BE ATTEMPTED WHEN CONSISTENT WITH SAFETY AND PROPER SIZE-UP.
CROSS REF 3.8.5: IT IS ONLY UNDER EXTREME LIFE SAFETY EMERGENCIES IN WHICH A MEMBER OF A UNIT EQUIPPED WITH ONLY A WATER SAFETY KIT SHALL ENTER THE WATER.
Water Rescue 2: 1.2, 1.3 3.3
Question 14:
In Old Law Tenements, the infrequently used procedure, of going from front to rear apartments or vice versa through the common partition may also be used as an escape route. What is the proper order of preference of tools to accomplish this?
A: Use the hydra ram, hook or axe
B: Use the hook, halligan or axe
C: Use the halligan, hook or axe.
D: Use the hook, halligan or maul
Answer: C
Explanation:
Lad 3 6.1
Question 15:
There are certain statements that can be made during a press inquiry when no supervisor is on scene (higher rank). Which statement should not be given.
A: Type of incident
B: Number of patients or victims (if known)
C: The hospital(s) to which the patients or victims(s) are being transported to
D: The condition of the patient(s) or victim(s)
Answer: D
Explanation:
Member shall not discuss the condition of patient(s) or victim(s), the care provided, or other confidential information
AUC 332 sec 3.4.3
Question 16:
Which of the following 10 codes is used CORRECTLY below?
A: Members arriving at a fire at a pier transmitted a 10-46 Code 1 signal.
B: Members arriving at a fire in the engine of a vehicle transmitted a 10-36 No Code.
C: Members arriving at a fire in transformer in the cellar of a commercial building transmitted a 10-25 Code 3
D: Members arriving at fire in an incinerator that extended out of the shaft transmitted a 10-27.
Answer: A
Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 8 – RADIO SIGNALS
A IS CORRECT – 10-46 Code 1 – Any fire in maritime environment (example; vessel, dock, pier)
B – Vehicle fire is a 10-23 or 10-24
C – Fire or smoke from a transformer at any location (pole, vault, room) 10-25 Code 4
D – Compactor or Incinerator Fire - Fire has not extended from compactor or shaft – 10-27
