LT PKG EXAM #20

Question 1

Question 1:
While covering your first vacation in E-100 you experienced a Hurricane, a Brush fire, a Buckeye pipeline leak, and an Iroquois pipeline leak. At which operation did you and your members operate correctly?

A: During the hurricane, you informed your chauffeur the apparatus must not transverse through puddles of water more than 24 inches

B: Upon arrival to the Brush fire operation, you and your members stopped, hooked up to a hydrant, and protected several buildings being exposed by the fire instead of concentrating on the initial attack of the Brush fire, which involves mobility

C: During the Buckeye pipeline leak, you informed your members it takes 24 full turns clockwise to shut most valves.

D: On confirmation of an Iroquois pipeline leak, you transmitted the All-Hands on arrival nearest the leak location

Answer 1

Answer: B

Explanation:
A- The depth of the water to be crossed should not exceed 18 inches for first line apparatus, and 50 inches for FDNY Hi-Axle vehicles…AUC 159 sec 5.4.3
B- Initial attack operations should concentrate on mobility. Avoid hooking up to hydrants, except to protect exposures…AUC 151 sec 5.4.2
C- 42 full turns or 84 half turns clockwise to shut most Buckeye valves. Valve 62QL is 12 full turns clockwise, LIC valve is 24 full turns, and JFK valve 66QI is 100 full turns….AUC 149 sec 2.1.6
D- 2nd Alarm on arrival nearest the leak location….AUC 150 sec 7.2.6.A

Question 2

Question 2:
The Blitzfire Oscillating Monitor is a compact, portable monitor that is carried only by a few units. Which unit does not carry the Blitzfire Oscillating Monitor?

A: Satellite Engine Companies

B: High Pressure Engine Companies

C: Haz-Mat Technician Engine Companies

D: Haz-Mat Company 1

Answer 2

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) Foam Tanker Engine Companies
Acronym: SHEF
Satellite Engines
Haz Mat 1
Engines that are HMTUs
Foam Tanker Engines
Eng Ch 9 8.1

Question 3

Question 3:
What is the preferred method of forcing a slide type elevator door?

A: Rabbit Tool

B: Hydra-Ram

C: Airbags

D: Halligan and Axe

Answer 3

Answer: C

Explanation:
TB Emergencies 1 Elevators 3.7.3 B #1

Question 4

Question 4:
When fire is on the top floor of a private dwelling of lightweight construction and there is clear indication that the fire has not entered the cockloft, roof operations shall be limited to each of the following except?

A: Checking the rear and sides of the building.

B: Venting the top floor windows, and skylights if present, (as communicated and coordinated with the Ladder Company Officer inside the fire area to be vented.)

C: Cutting an inspection hole to ascertain the boundaries of fire extension.

D: Inspecting HVAC duct vents for unusual heat.

Answer 4

Answer: C

Explanation:
Acronym: VHS
Vent top floor windows & skylights
HVAC duct inspection
Sides and rear checked
A, B, D Note: All members shall be REMOVED FROM THE ROOF upon COMPLETION of these duties.
When fire is on the top floor and there are indications that it HAS extended to the attic/cockloft, the IC shall be immediately notified, and members shall not be permitted to operate on the roof. Any fire present in the attic/cockloft represents the potential for a partial or complete collapse of the roof.
PD Ch 6 4.3.10

Question 5

Question 5:
During your first tour working in L-100, you and your members operated at a Manhole fire, and a Transformer fire. In which choice below did you operate correctly at?

A: Upon arrival to the manhole fire, you ordered your members to immediately shut the mains at the electrical panel (de-energized) to the affected buildings due to lights flickering

B: Upon arrival to the manhole fire, you noticed the Engine was operating a hoseline very close to the manhole involved in fire. You advised the Engine officer to maintain a safety distance of at least 25 feet from the nozzle to the manhole

C: Upon arrival to the transformer fire you transmitted a 10-87 for a Foam response

D: Upon arrival to the transformer fire, you ensured your members a safe standoff distance of at least 15 feet

Answer 5

Answer: B

Explanation:
AUC 180
A- Members should AVOID de-energizing any electrical components by opening switches (shutting power at the main) during an underground electrical fire…sec 4.5
B- Maintain a distance of at least 25 feet from the nozzle to the manhole, vault, or service box…sec 4.7.2
C- 10-86 (Purple K, F500, and Foam response)
D- The standoff distance for manhole fire and transformer fire is both 25 feet…..sec 4.7.2 and 6.5.1

Question 6

Question 6:
Your unit, Tower Ladder 100, is the first arriving Ladder Company at a fire on the 4th floor of a 6-story Old Law Tenement with no front fire escape. Duties of the Roof Firefighter position are correct in each of the following actions except?

A: The Roof Firefighter carried the Handie-Talkie, Flashlight, Halligan tool, 6`Halligan Hook and Life Saving Rope.

B: The Roof firefighter will initially report to the roof of the fire building.

C: If necessary, the officer may request the Roof Firefighter to perform outside ventilation of the fire apartment from the fire escape after completion of preliminary roof ventilation (bulkhead, scuttle, skylight).

D: If VEIS is to be performed, they shall be teamed up with second OV Firefighter, or another available member.

Answer 6

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) If VEIS is to be performed, they shall be teamed up with SECOND ROOF FIREFIGHTER or another available member.
Lad 3 3.3.5

Question 7

Question 7:
Which of the following conditions is indicative of a major gas emergency?

A: 20% LEL inside or outside.

B: 10% LEL in an unvented subsurface structure.

C: Gas present on one or more subsurface structures.

D: Indications of gas migrating into a building from an inside source.

Answer 7

Answer: A

Explanation:
B. 20% LEL OR GREATER in an unvented subsurface structure.

C. Gas present on TWO OR MORE subsurface structures.

D. Indications of gas migrating into a building from an OUTSIDE SOURCE.

NOTE “A” IS CORRECT AS WRITTEN. Its 10% OR GREATER inside or outside.

Natural Gas 5.0 Pg 15

Question 8

Question 8:
The operation of building fire pumps in high rise office buildings is usually standard from building to building, even though the physical layout may differ. Building engineers should be used, if available, but they may not have any knowledge of the pressures required to supply hoselines on upper floors. ECCs shall be assigned to either assist the engineer or to start and operate the building fire pumps. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: Building fire pumps are usually located in the cellar or sub-cellar and fire lines connected to them should be painted red. The usual arrangement for the fire pumps is that one will be automatic and one manual; the automatic fire pumps may be of smaller capacity (250 gpm or 500 gpm).

B: When a building is equipped with two manual fire pumps, as is the case in most high-rise buildings, each pump will have its own control panel. Both pumps shall be started and used.

C: Since fire pumps are connected in parallel position, it is necessary to have both pumps operating at or near the same pressures.

D: A visual check should be made of the discharge gauges of both pumps. When both are operating correctly, the pressures should be equal or nearly so. Where one gauge reading is considerably lower than the other, the less efficient pump should be shut down.

Answer 8

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) A visual check should be made of the discharge gauges of both pumps. When both are operating correctly, the pressures should be equal or nearly so. Where one gauge reading is considerably lower than the other, the PRESSURE CAN BE INCREASED on the less efficient pump by moving the pump position lever to a higher position.
C Note: Some buildings have a combination standpipe/sprinkler system with the siamese connected to both systems. The same starting procedures will apply in these buildings.
D Note: Should one manual pump be operated at a pressure far in excess of the other, it could partially overcome the check valve making the second pump less efficient.
D Note: When the engineer of a building is present, this should be left to the engineer to adjust since he or she will be familiar with the system.
D Note: Near each fire pump is a standpipe phone providing direct communication with the Incident Command Post.
HROB 4.1.8

Question 9

Question 9:
During your first tour in TL-200, you operated at a fire in a Foreign Embassy during the winter with two feet of snow on the ground. In which choice did you and your members operate correctly?

A: Upon arrival to the front door of the Embassy with fire out several windows on the upper floors, you were denied entry by the building personnel, which you complied with, and waited for the chief to arrive.

B: Upon operating inside the Embassy, building personnel did not want you and your members to overhaul the fire area and asked your unit to leave. You ignored Embassy personnel and ordered the members to continue overhauling

C: Since the Embassy was a 4 story 20X60 Brownstone the Engine entered the block first as per normal procedures

D: While responding to the Embassy fire, you informed your chauffeur to not drive faster than 40 mph due to snow chains on all four rear tires

Answer 9

Answer: A

Explanation:
A- AUC 196 sec 4.5
B- Do not argue; if asked to leave then do so…AUC 196 sec 4.7
C- There is 2 feet of snow on the ground. Winter operations where conditions of streets are doubtful as to maneuverability and the building is higher than 3 stories the Ladder company will enter the block first with the Engine stretching from from the nearest hydrant…..AUC 200 5.3.10.D.4
D- Must not exceed 30 mph with snow chains ….Training Bulletins C2 add 1 sec 2

Question 10

Question 10:
During company drill on the Blitzfire Oscillating Monitor, the covering officer made a number of comments. Which comment was incorrect?

A: The inlet should be supplied with two 3 1/2” hoselines. 2 1/2” hoselines may also be used.

B: The maximum pressure to be supplied to the Blitzfire is 175 psi.

C: A minimum flow of 175 gpm is required for proper oscillation.

D: The vertical range is approximately from 10 degrees to 45 degrees. The horizontal range is 20 degrees from center in either direction.

Answer 10

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) The inlet should be supplied with ONLY ONE 2 ½” hoseline.
Note: The inlet and the outlet of the Blitzfire are both equipped with 2 ½” threads.
Eng Ch 9 8.2, 8.3, 8.7.1, 8.7.2, 8.7.4

Question 11

Question 11:
When the FAST unit arrives at the location of the distressed member, the transmitting member of the FAST unit shall take the following actions. Which one is incorrect?

A: Depress the Emergency Alert Button (EAB) on their handie-talkie which ensures the message is transmitted at the maximum wattage.

B: After all required information is given; the transmitting member shall reset their handie-talkie emergency alert by depressing and holding the EAB for approximately 2 seconds.

C: If possible, press the EAB of the member in distress. Notify the IC via handie-talkie after the EAB activation of the distressed member.

D: If unable to activate the distressed member’s EAB, key the mic on the distressed member’s handie-talkie to obtain their identity on EFAS.

Answer 11

Answer: C

Explanation:
C. If possible, press the EAB of the member in distress. Notify the IC via handie-talkie PRIOR TO EAB activation of the distressed member.

Managing Members in Distress Ch 2 7.6

Question 12

Question 12:
In a city surrounded by neighboring departments, Interoperability frequencies can always come into play. Which statement regarding the use of IO frequencies during operations is INCORRECT?

A: UTAC channels are intended for outside operations and cannot be relied upon for interior structural communications.

B: Conversations on UTAC channels should be in plain speak. Refrain from using FDNY 10 codes.

C: When transmitting on a repeater channel, members should press and hold the PTT button for 1 second before beginning to speak to allow the repeater to activate and not cut off the beginning of the message.

D: UTAC channels shall not be used by FDNY units to communicate with each other in daily routine activities.

Answer 12

Answer: C

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL - CHAPTER 14 – ADDENDUM 4 –
C IS INCORRECT – 2 SECONDS - 2.2.1B
A - 2.2.1 A
B - 3.3
D 3.5 NOTE

Question 13

Question 13:
While working in E300, you discovered some of the members may be drinking alcohol in the firehouse. As per proper procedure, you prohibited all on and off duty members from leaving the firehouse, you immediately relieved the on duty members from emergency response duty, and placed the affected Unit(s) OOS, you notified the administrative BC, you notified BITS, and took a mark in the company journal. However, during all this, an off duty member approaches you and tells you he needs to leave, because he has to pick up his kids from the baby sitter. Who is the only person who can grant permission in order for this FF to leave quarters during an investigation?

A: You, the company officer

B: Administrative BC

C: Someone from BITS

D: The investigating officer

Answer 13

Answer: D

Explanation:
Know this procedure cold! AUC 202 sec 5.5

Question 14

Question 14:
Portable ladders may be placed over weakened, damaged or burnt-out stairs in order to gain access to upper stories of a building. When necessary to utilize a portable ladder to bridge fire damaged stairs, each of the following is correct except?

A: A 20’ straight ladder should be used.

B: Butts shall be supported by the floor at the base of the stair.

C: Both upper beams at the tip of the ladder should rest on the upper floor landing for proper support.

D: Ladders should never be placed against window panes, window sashes, or loose boxes, barrels, or other surfaces that may break or collapse.

Answer 14

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) A 24’ EXTENSION LADDER should be used (the 20’ straight ladder may be too short). The shorter nested length of the 24’ extension ladder may allow easier positioning.
Lad 1 10.3.4, 12.1

Question 15

Question 15:
CFR units must begin each tour with at least how many firefighters?

A: 1

B: 2

C: 3

D: 4

Answer 15

Answer: B

Explanation:
CFR Ch 2 1.7

Question 16

Question 16:
Firefighter Jones was discussing sexual harassment and the EEO process with several of her fellow firefighters and the filing process came up. Which choice is INCORRECT regarding the filing process for sexual harassment complaints?

A: Sexual harassment complaints may be filed directly through BITS at HQ.

B: Sexual harassment complaints may be communicated to the officer who will forward the complaint to the EEO Office.

C: Sexual harassment complaints may be communicated through the chain of command to the EEO Officer.

D: Sexual harassment complaints may be communicated my mailing a letter to the EEO Office.

Answer 16

Answer: C

Explanation:
PA/ID 8 – CHAPTER 2 – EEO
C IS INCORRECT – The chain of command from the member to the EEO officer is bypassed when the member utilizes the complaint process…10.1
A – 5.4
B – 5.2.5
D – 5.2.2

Question 17

Question 17:
The Battalion Chief just handed you a padlock to secure the commercial premise that you operated at since the fire was minor in nature, egress was gained with minimal damage, and no other damage was made to the entire perimeter. The chief on scene hands you the key to the padlock after the premises is secured. The correct location to store this key can can be found in which choice.

A: On your person or in your locker

B: On the apparatus

C: In the company office

D: The chief made a mistake by handing you the key. The chief holds the key, not the company officer

Answer 17

Answer: B

Explanation:
Key shall be put in a secure place on the apparatus selected by the officer on duty
AUC 231 4.2.2

Question 18

Question 18:
Knowledge of fire dynamics comes into play when utilizing an exterior stream at a fire. Of the following choices, which is is incorrect?

A: Air entrainment occurs during stream operation and the air entrainment can impact flow path.

B: Handline and exterior streams entrain the most air when they are whipped around in a circular motion.

C: Handline and exterior streams also entrain more air when the stream itself is shorter.

D: Minimal air is entrained by the use of a properly executed exterior stream.

Answer 18

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Handline and exterior streams also entrain more air when the stream itself is LONGER (using the reach of the stream).
C Note: The longer the stream, the more air is entrained. The least amount of air entrainment occurs when the stream is short and operated in a fixed position.
C Note: Operated correctly in this manner, the maximum amount of water will enter the room with the least amount of air and therefore without any pushing effect on the fire.
D Note: A short, acute angled fixed stream (not whipping) aimed at the ceiling just inside of a window, will entrain the least amount of air.
TB FD Add 2 2.1, 3.2, 3.3, 3.6

Question 19

Question 19:
Lieutenant Jones is working her first day tour in Ladder 499. After roll call, she is approached by a firefighter who informs her that he discovered damage to his personal harness during the inspection of his PPE. Lieutenant Jones has the following thoughts concerning the proper way to place this item out of service. Which one is incorrect?

A: The officer on duty shall make immediate telephone notification to the administrative Division and request a loaner personal harness.

B: When a member’s personal harness has been placed out of service and he/she is on duty, the member will continue to respond.

C: Any time a personal harness is placed out of service the officer must complete an out of service life safety equipment report (SCF-2) and forward it through the chain of command to the Chief of Operations.

D: The officer placing the personal harness out of service shall make entries in the company journal and the office record journal.

Answer 19

Answer: C

Explanation:
C. Any time a personal harness is placed out of service the officer must complete an out of service life safety equipment report (SCF-2) and forward it through the chain of command to the CHIEF OF SAFETY.

NOTE “B”: HOWEVER THE MEMBER WILL NOT BE COUNTED TOWARDS THE UNITS STAFFING AS IT RELATES TO AUC 287 REDUCED/UNDERSTAFFED UNIT. THE MEMBER(S) NOT EQUIPPED WITH A PERSONAL HARNESS SHALL NOT ENTER/OPERATE IN THE IDLH AREA.

TB Rope 3 6.2, 6.3, 6.5, 6.9

Question 20

Question 20:
The can FF walks into your office and reports to you the members are actively searching, but cannot locate one of the position HT’s. At which point is a missing HT considered lost?

A: At the time the member reports it to the officer as lost.

B: Following a diligent search of quarters and the locations of previous responses.

C: At the end of the tour.

D: 24 hours following reporting the radio as missing.

Answer 20

Answer: C

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 11 – ADDENDUM 8 (NEW MATERIAL 6/22)
C IS CORRECT – A Missing radio not located by the end of the tour shall be considered lost. 2.4

Question 21

Question 21:
Which choice below correctly describes what FDNY considers to be a “PCB Transformer”

A: A transformer labeled 0-49 ppm

B: A transformer labeled 50-499 ppm

C: A transformer labeled 500 ppm and higher

D: Choices A,B,C, are considered PCB transformers

Answer 21

Answer: D

Explanation:
NYC Fire Department considers a transformer with any amount of PCBs as a “PCB Transformer”
AUC 266 add 3 sec 1.5.5.Note1

Question 22

Question 22:
Each of the following choices contains correct duties of the first arriving LCC of an Aerial Ladder at a fire on the 3rd floor of a 5-story Brownstone except?

A: Position and prepare the apparatus for complete coverage. When unable to complete this assignment, the IC must be notified.

B: Raise the aerial ladder to the roof and wait for completion of roof size-up.

C: When the roof firefighter indicates the need for a Life Saving Rope (LSR) rescue, proceed to the roof to assist.

D: When the roof firefighter indicates no need for a Life Saving Rope (LSR) rescue, place the aerial ladder to the fire floor for VEIS as necessary. He/she shall team up with the 2nd chauffeur (or another available member).

Answer 22

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) When the roof firefighter indicates no need for a Life Saving Rope (LSR) rescue, place the aerial ladder to the TOP FLOOR for VEIS as necessary. He/she shall team up with the 2nd chauffeur (or another available member).
Note: When a fire denies the use of the interior stair to the occupants and there is no rear fire escape, top floor VEIS is mandatory if we are going to reach persons who are in a hazardous position, or who have already been overcome.
BS/RF 2.6 D

Question 23

Question 23:
First alarm units are operating at the scene of a fire on the 3rd floor of a 5-story multiple dwelling. Which one ventilation tactic at this fire is not in accordance with FDNY SOP’s?

A: If the 2nd due ladder company officer determines fire has communicated to the floor above, limited ventilation is justifiable if it facilitates search operations, with the understanding of potentially pulling the fire to that location.

B: The 1st due ladder company officer inside the fire area shall establish door control of the fire area and perform a ventilation profile at the entry point paying particular attention to air being pulled in.

C: Initial vertical ventilation shall be performed unless the roof firefighter is ordered to delay or withhold vertical ventilation.

D: If vertical ventilation is delayed or withheld the bulkhead shall be forced open temporarily to check for trapped occupants.

Answer 23

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. If the 2nd due ladder company officer determines FIRE HAS NOT COMMUNICATED to the floor above, limited ventilation is justifiable if it facilitates search operations, with the understanding of potentially pulling the fire to that location.

NOTE “C”: THE LADDER COMPANY OFFICER INSIDE THE FIRE AREA SHALL COMMUNICATE WITH THE ROOF FIREFIGHTER WHEN THE VERTICAL VENTILATION IS NOT TO BE TAKEN, OR DELAYED (I.E. UNABLE TO GAIN CONTROL OF THE FIRE APARTMENT DOOR AND/OR UNCONTROLLED FIRE IN THE PUBLIC HALL OR STAIRWELL.)

Ventilation 8.3, 10.1.1, 10.2.1

Question 24

Question 24:
Tower Ladder maintenance is important to ensuring the overall operating efficiency of these units. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: At the start of every tour verify the platform control switch on the pedestal is engaged.

B: The condition of safety belts installed in the bucket shall be inspected daily.

C: During Multi-Unit-Drill, at operations or in quarters, a visual check of the compression and tension bolts at the turntable “5th wheel” shall be made for missing or sheared bolts. A hand check for tightness of those bolts that are accessible shall be made.

D: During bleeding of the air brake tanks, a visual check of the hydraulic lines to the main reservoir shall be made, noting any developing cuts or other signs of possible failure of these lines. In addition, a visual check for broken spring sections shall be made.

Answer 24

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) At the start of every tour verify the platform control switch on the pedestal is NOT engaged, as this will deactivate the bucket controls.
TL Ch 7

Question 25

Question 25:
Members reporting to the RAC area may normally rest for approximately ______ before being reassigned.

A: 20 minutes

B: 30 minutes

C: 1 hour

D: Once a company enters the RAC area, the company shall not be reassigned

Answer 25

Answer: A

Explanation:
AUC 230 sec 7.2

Question 26

Question 26:
At certain operations, members may be required to implement large caliber stream (LCS) operations. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: Whenever possible, an engine company supplying LCS should be dedicated to that task and not engaged in supplying handlines.

B: LCS should be supplied with the largest available hoselines. Most commonly, this will be 3 ½” hose.

C: Engine companies supplying a LCS may require additional augmentation, especially when in-line pumping is used. This can be accomplished through the use of a 2 ½” single gate attached to a hydrant for the purpose of possible self-augmentation.

D: If LCS use is ordered after units are operating within a building, all operating forces must be notified, and time permitted for their safe withdrawal to unexposed positions. As an additional safety measure, the LCS should be swept through the building, stopping at each window, to serve as a warning.

Answer 26

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) If LCS use is ordered after units are operating within a building, all operating forces must be notified, and time permitted for their safe withdrawal to unexposed positions. As an additional safety measure, the LCS should be QUICKLY swept through the building WITHOUT stopping at any window or other opening to serve as a warning.
B Note: The Blitzfire Oscillating Monitor should only be supplied with a 2 ½” hoseline.
D Note: Confirmation of their safe withdrawal will be verified by way of a Roll Call and all officers should be prepared to account for the members of their company.
Eng Ch 9 2, 3.1, 3.2

Question 27

Question 27:
According to the FDNY’s steam bulletin, asbestos may be found in all but which of the following locations as it relates to the steam system?

A: Con Ed steam manholes

B: Underground piping

C: Pipe insulation in generating plants

D: High pressure steam pipes inside buildings

Answer 27

Answer: A

Explanation:
Note: Haz Mat Ch 3 Section 3.1 mentions that asbestos may be found in steam manholes. The steam bulletin clearly states asbestos has been removed from Con Ed Steam manholes.

YOU MAY ENCOUNTER SLIGHT CONFLICTS LIKE THIS ON DAY OF TEST. BE AWARE OF THEM BUT TRY TO GET THE POINT ON THE DAY OF THE TEST NOT AT A PROTEST SESSION

Steam 4.1, 4.2, 4.4

Question 28

Question 28:
It is 1735 hours and Ladder 99 receives a verbal for a pedestrian struck by a vehicle. Prior to the arrival of an engine and EMS, all of the members of the truck company assisted in patient stabilization and patient assessment. Four of the members, including the officer working were CFRD qualified. The unit returned to service from the response at 1835 hrs. What is the appropriate action for the officer to take at the completion of the response? (CORRECT)

A: A PCR was completed, and all members of the truck company were given CFRD marks only for the tour.

B: A PCR was completed, and only the CFR qualified members of the truck company were given CFRD marks for the tour and late response.

C: A PCR was completed, and only the CFR qualified members of the truck company were given CFRD marks only for the tour.

D: Members are not entitled to CFRD marks for this type of response.

Answer 28

Answer: C

Explanation:
PA/ID 4 – CHAPTER 1 - CFRD PAY DIFFERENTIAL
C IS CORRECT – Only CFRD certified personnel shall receive the differential when they respond to any of the eligible categories. (Operation of Defib Equipment, Administering CPR, Stabilization of a patient’s neck & spine, Performance of a patient assessment or head to toe survey)2.2.2, 2.2.2, 2.2.3.
B -CFRD certified personnel who meet the eligibility requirements shall be entitled to the differential only for the SCHEDULED TOUR and not beyond. The differential is not provided in situations where they work beyond the end of the tour. 2.3

Question 29

Question 29:
The explosive range for Carbon Monoxide is correctly stated in which choice?

A: 12.5% - 74%

B: 10% -90%

C: 5%-15%

D: Carbon Monoxide does not have an explosive range

Answer 29

Answer: A

Explanation:
C.O. is a flammable gas with an auto ignition temperature of 1128 degrees F, and a Lower Explosive Level (LEL) of 12.5% and an Upper Explosive Level (UEL) of 74%
Haz-Mat 4 sec 2.4

Question 30

Question 30:
Loft buildings are prone to certain types of collapse. Which description below is incorrect and not in accordance with Department publications?

A: Wide-dimensional Cast-iron lofts having front and rear walls supporting girders pose catastrophic collapse potential should they be compromised.

B: If the structural stability of gravity tank supports is questionable, consider draining the contents of the tank and diverting the water off the roof into a drain pipe, or by opening a standpipe outlet on the top floor.

C: A brick wall with sand lime mortar can have this bonding material washed out by LCS dislodging bricks and seriously weakening the wall.

D: Floor collapse can be initiated by the failure of a single column. Members should avoid striking columns with LCS.

Answer 30

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) If the structural stability of gravity tank supports is questionable, consider draining the contents of the tank and diverting the water off the roof into a drain pipe, or by opening a standpipe outlet on a LOWER FLOOR.
B Note: During winter operations, ice can accumulate on the outside of a gravity tank. These ice formations have broken away and fallen through the roof of loft buildings or adjoining buildings.
C Note: Floor and/or wall collapse can be caused by excessive water use and water absorption into structural elements and building contents. Excess water may also cause dropped ceilings to collapse in large sections. Roof and floor drains should be checked by firefighters and cleared of debris, as necessary, utilizing hand tools. Water runoff needs to be constantly monitored, particularly when LCS are being utilized.
Loft 9.1.1, 9.1.4, 9.1.5, 9.1.6

Question 31

Question 31:
One engine and one ladder are operating at the scene of a fire in the engine compartment of a motor vehicle. Which operating procedure described below is incorrect?

A: Members approached the vehicle from the sides and upwind.

B: Members had difficulty opening the hood, so they operated the line through the front grill of the vehicle.

C: Members used a coarse spray stream on magnesium parts that were on fire.

D: Members chocked both the apparatus and the motor vehicle.

Answer 31

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. Members had difficulty opening the hood, so they PRYED UP THE SIDE OF THE HOOD AND OPERATED STREAM THROUGH THIS OPENING. DO NOT ATTEMPT TO OPERATE THROUGH THE FRONT GRILL.

TB Fires 8 11.1

Question 32

Question 32:
Which Choice below demonstrates the CORRECT use of the 10-35 code?

A: A Lt. transmits a 1035 No Code for an alarm activated by cigarette smoking in a building.

B: A Lt. transmits a 1035 Code 1 for an alarm activated because of a low battery condition.

C: A Lt. transmits a 1035 Code 3 for an alarm activated by steam from a shower.

D: A Lt. transmits a 1035 Code 2 for an alarm activated by the company servicing the alarm panel.

Answer 32

Answer: C

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 8 – RADIO COMMUNICATIONS
C IS CORRECT – 1035 CODE 3 – Unnecessary alarm caused by ordinary household activities (toast, steam, aerosol spray)
A – 1035 code 4 – Other known cause
B – 1035 no code – defective condition (eg. low battery)
D – 1035 code 1 – Alarm system testing or servicing

Question 33

Question 33:
One option for mass decontamination is to take two Engines and place them parallel to each other and hook up the Aqua Stream fog nozzle to each. In regards to the Engines, the distance apart from each other is correctly stated in which choice?

A: 20 feet apart

B: 25 feet apart

C: 30 feet apart

D: 25-30 feet apart

E: 20-30 feet apart

Answer 33

Answer: B

Explanation:
Operating pressure is 50-80 psi
Control panels facing the outside
Haz-Mat 7 sec 2.4.4

Question 34

Question 34:
The officer who arrives first on the fire floor of an H-type building shall transmit each of the following to the Incident Commander except?

A: Location of the fire apartment.

B: If occupants have been located and are accounted for.

C: Number of fire escapes on the building.

D: Number of apartments on the floor of the fire wing.

Answer 34

Answer: C

Explanation:
Acronym: LO DANCE
Location of the fire apartment: (Wing, Floor, Apartment No.)
Occupants: If occupants have been located and are accounted for.
Difficulties or delays in gaining entrance to the fire apartment or in advancing the line. Give reasons.
Access: Location of stairway in fire wing closest to fire apartment. Report if it is possible to go from one wing to another above the first floor. (Transverse, wing or isolated stairs).
Number of apartments on the floor of the fire wing.
Conditions (fire): (Fire out in public hall, heavy smoke condition).
Extension (fire): Whether fire is extending and how it is extending. Need and location for additional lines. (Fire floor or floor above adjacent apartment). Give reasons.
MD Ch 1 4.6.4 A

Question 35

Question 35:
Ladder company members are drilling in the kitchen about the proper search procedures when entry is going to be made through a window. They make the following comments, but were incorrect in which one?

A: After entering, probe for possible victims, and then check the floor for stability.

B: Prior to entering a window to perform search, members must notify their officer.

C: Before entering an apartment clear out the entire window.

D: Immediately upon entering the room from a window, members should make a quick check/sweep of the floor in the hall outside the door for any victims before closing the door.

Answer 35

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. BEFORE ENTERING probe for possible victims, and then check the floor for stability.

NOTE: ALL HORIZONTAL VENTILATION TACTICS, WHETHER VENTILATION FOR EXTINGUISHMENT OR VENTILATION FOR SEARCH, REQUIRE COORDINATION WITH, AND COORDINATION BY, THE LADDER COMPANY OFFICER IN THE FIRE AREA TO BE VENTED.

TB Search 9.1.1

Question 36

Question 36:
When operating during an Active Shooter incident, FDNY members and NYPD members will be formed in what is known as the Rolling “T” formation. The correct position for the FDNY officer in this formation is located where?

A: Left side of the “T”

B: Right side of the “T”

C: In the center of the “T”

D: In the rear of the “T”

Answer 36

Answer: D

Explanation:
The FDNY Officer will be closest to rear
ERP add 3A sec 11.6.1

Question 37

Question 37:
Which tactic implemented for a store fire on the 1st floor of an H-type building was not in accordance with Department procedures?

A: The first line was stretched into the store to extinguish the fire. Water was directed into all known and suspected vertical and horizontal openings.

B: The second line was advanced to the floor above the fire when it was obvious that the first line was able to control the store fire.

C: The first ladder forced entry into the store, checked the rear of the store for possible extension into public areas of the building, and quickly opened ceilings and voids.

D: The second ladder went to the cellar to search for life and extension, and the shut utilities.

Answer 37

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) The second ladder went to the floor above for forcible entry and search for life and extension.
D Note: Areas larger than the actual size of the store must be checked due to the possibility of horizontal travel of fire and smoke. These buildings have a peculiarity, in that many times a fire will bypass intermediate areas both vertically and horizontally and then, when an obstruction is met, will set fire to the surrounding material.
B Note: If two lines are needed in the store, the third line shall be stretched to the floor above.
MD Ch 1 4.7.2

Question 38

Question 38:
Which characteristic of the Con Edison Vacuum Truck, which may be deployed at certain collapse incidents, is described incorrectly below?

A: It has a capacity of 10 cubic yards and can move wet and dry material.

B: 8” wide tubing can be connected up to 150 ft and 4” tubing can be added for an additional 50 ft.

C: The high pressure water system rated at 700 psi can break up sections of hardened material.

D: Only available to the FDNY during business hours (M-F 0900 to 1700 hours.)

Answer 38

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) Available 24 hours a day / 7 days a week via the FDNY borough dispatcher.
Note: Has a Holmes positive displacement blower - moves air at 4200 CFM.
Has a telescoping hydraulic boom with remote control.
Collapse Add 4 1

Question 39

Question 39:
Members are operating at a gas leak in the cellar of a multiple dwelling and they determine their only option is to shut the gas at the master meter. However, when they attempt to do this, they encounter a damaged valve and the officer does not want them to damage it any further. Following the FDNY’s priority order of valve closures, which valve should they attempt to shut next?

A: Interior gas riser valve

B: Individual meter valve

C: Curb/Service valve

D: Head of service valve

Answer 39

Answer: D

Explanation:
1. Appliance valve; 2. Interior gas riser valve; 3. Individual meter valve; 4. Master meter valve; 5. Head of service valve; 6. Curb/Service valve; 7. Main valve

THE FDNY IS NOT PERMITTED TO SHUT THE MAIN VALVE

Natural Gas Pg 22