LT PKG EXAM #17 Flashcards

1
Q

Question 1:
Choose the incorrect minimum safe operating distance for applying water on energized or de-energized electrical components during a Con-Ed Substation fire.

A: 15 feet on live 138 kV electrical components for 30 degree or greater fog streams

B: 75 feet on live 138 kV electrical components for all straight or solid streams and streams less than 30 degree fog

C: 50 feet on live 345 kV electrical components for 30 degree or greater fog streams

D: 125 feet on live 345 kV electrical components for all straight or solid streams and streams less than 30 degree fog

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
25 feet on live 345 kV electrical components for 30 degree or greater fog streams
Remember, Handlines shall never be used on energized electrical components at Con Edision facilities.
The primary means of applying water to energized electrical components is through the use of a Tower Ladder. However; a Engine Deck Gun, Aerial Ladder Pipe, or a portable Akron New Yorker Multiversal can be used….NO HANDLINES and NOT the Aquastream Master Stream Nozzle carried by all Engines and Aerial Ladders
AUC 338 sec 5.3

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2
Q

Question 2:
Which feature of the Beluga auto glass knife is described incorrectly?

A: There is no need to constantly remove and restart your cut to reposition the cutting head or drill battery.

B: The blade reciprocates over the glass, crushing it while pushing the bulk of the debris towards the vehicle compartment.

C: The knife is designed to cut laminated safety glass found in automobile windshields, hurricane windows and both commercial and residential construction glass.

D: Depending on the drill speed you select, the Beluga can cut about as fast as you can push it.

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. The blade reciprocates UNDER the glass, crushing it while pushing the bulk of the debris AWAY FROM the vehicle compartment.

RELATIVELY NEW TOOL NEVER TESTED ON LT EXAM BEFORE

TB Tools 39 2.1, 3.2, 3.4, 3.9

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3
Q

Question 3:
During a fire operation, there are certain cases where the position of engine company members may be fluid. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: In the event the advance of the hoseline is stalled due to insufficient available hose, the back-up firefighter may need to momentarily leave the nozzle firefighter to retrieve the hose necessary to continue the fire attack. This must be coordinated with the officer and nozzle firefighter.

B: In larger apartments or private homes, the door firefighter may be forced to move into the fire area to keep line of sight with the nozzle team. Maintaining visual contact with the nozzle team is necessary as they advance.

C: To effectively control the hose stretch of the first line, the control firefighter must remain last in the stretch. This is true unless they are being assisted by another unit.

D: If the 2nd engine arrives after the 1st engine has begun stretching, the 2nd arriving members should begin assisting with the stretch only after they have confirmed the position of the 1st arriving engine and the progress of the stretch. This may require the 2nd arriving members to enter the building and follow the line to determine progress.

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) To effectively control the hose stretch, the control firefighter must remain last in the stretch. This is true EVEN WHEN they are assisted by another unit.
Eng Ch 6 3.10, 4.5.5, 5.5.1, 6.3

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4
Q

Question 4:
Which of the following choices contains incorrect information regarding rowframe buildings?

A: They are built in rows containing as many as twenty or more buildings.

B: They vary in height from three to seven stories.

C: They are twenty to thirty feet in width.

D: They have depths ranging from forty to sixty feet.

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) They vary in height from TWO to FIVE stories.
When constructed, each builder may have used varying designs, i.e., with stoop similar to brownstones but all wood; with or without cornices. They were constructed over a period of many years in the 1800’s and early 1900’s.
BS/RF 5.1.1

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5
Q

Question 5:
When using the Language Interpretive Services, you must provide the Language Line representative with the FDNY Unit code in the unit you are working in that tour. The correct FDNY Unit code for L-100 can be found in which choice?

A: 9999

B: 7777

C: 5100

D: 7100

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
“5” is for Engines….ex: E-100= 5100
“7” is for ladders….ex: L-100= 7100
AUC 343 sec 4.2

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6
Q

Question 6:
In which of the following circumstances is a “potential blast zone” established at a major gas emergency:
1) Subsurface leak;
2) 80% of LEL or higher (leak found);
3) gas leaking for considerable time and trapped in a voids space;
4) 10% LEL or greater (leak cannot be found);
5) 10% LEL or greater and there are indications the leak is coming from an outside, subsurface source

A: 1, 2, 4, 5

B: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

C: 1, 2, 4

D: 2, 3 ,4, 5

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
THE POTENTIAL BLAST ZONE IS MARKED WITH DANGER DO NOT ENTER TAPE

CROSS REF AUC 362: MEMBERS CAN ONLY PASS BEYOND DANGER DO NOT ENTER TAPE FOR “SIL”:

SECTOR CHIEF APPROVAL
IC APPROVAL
LIFE

Natural Gas 8.0 Pg 30 & 31

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7
Q

Question 7:
All firefighters should have a basic understanding of the various types of combustion. Which of the following choices contains incorrect information?

A: Flash fires involve a flame moving though a flammable mixture with considerable speed, without developing a significant over-pressure.

B: Flash fires will always self-extinguish, with no potential for ignition of secondary fires.

C: Flash fires which occur in a confined space can cause an over pressure condition and result in an explosion.

D: A BLEVE occurs when liquid in a pressurized vessel is at or heated to a temperature that exceeds it boiling point and the container ruptures due to excessive buildup in pressure to tank failure caused by mechanical or thermal damage.

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) Flash fires USUALLY self-extinguish, although SOMETIMES may ignite secondary fires.
C Note: This condition would be referred to as an explosion. (e.g. dust explosion)
TB FD Ch 3 8.1, 8.3, 8.4 Note, 9.3

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8
Q

Question 8:
At a recent top floor fire in an Old Law Tenement, which member/team of the 2nd arriving Ladder Company operated improperly?

A: The Inside Team proceed to the top floor to assist the 1st arriving Ladder Company in entry and search of all top floor apartments.

B: The Roof FF proceeded to the roof with the power saw.

C: The OV FF vented the fire apartment from the fire escape.

D: The Chauffeur was positioned in front of the fire building initially. Since not needed there, this member proceeded to the rear fire escape to vent.

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) Chauffeur Position - Front of fire building. If not needed here, proceeds to the ROOF.
Lad 3 3.5.2

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9
Q

Question 9:
The Field Guide used by first arriving Units to identify hazards for bridges and tunnels is carried by all FDNY Engine and Ladder Companies. The color of the Field Guide can be found in which choice?

A: Red

B: White

C: Blue

D: Green

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
AUC 344

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10
Q

Question 10:
Members operating at a steam high energy line break in the street would be incorrect to perform which tactic?

A: Approach an outdoor HELB from upwind and stay clear of the vapor plume.

B: Consider activating HVAC systems of nearby buildings.

C: Consider evacuating buildings from the rear or side entrances to avoid the exclusion zone.

D: Prepare for decontamination of civilians, firefighters, bunker gear, tools, equipment and vehicles.

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. Consider SHUTTING HVAC systems of nearby buildings.

Steam 4.2

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11
Q

Question 11:
Occupancies equipped with Lexan panels instead of conventional glass windows can present significant challenges to operating members. These windows may be forced with a portable ladder if at ground level. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: Remove the exterior screen, if present.

B: Place the tip of the ladder on the Lexan window in the corner adjacent to the window frame.

C: Three or four members apply a gradual leaning pressure against the window until it is forced inward.

D: If a section of window snaps off, continue forcing around the window perimeter until a sufficient opening has been made.

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) Place the BUTT of the ladder on the Lexan window in the corner adjacent to the window frame.
Lad 1 10.3.1

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12
Q

Question 12:
Firefighter Walker comes into your office to request bereavement leave. You offer your condolences and begin to explain the parameters. Which statement was the only CORRECT one you made during the conversation?

A: Members not working the two-platoon chart will be granted 5 calendar days for bereavement leave.

B: Bereavement Leave of not more than two 15-hour tours and two 9-hour tours may be granted by the Deputy Chief to a member.

C: Bereavement Leave will always begin at 0900 hrs. following the time of death.

D: A member receiving a death notification when on duty will be promptly excused by the immediate superior officer on duty.

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
BEREAVEMENT LEAVE – PA/ID 1 – CHAPTER 3
D IS CORRECT – 2.6
A – Members not working the two-platoon system will be granted 4 calendar days. 2.1.3 NOTE
B – Not more than ONE 15-hour tours and TWO 9-hour tour by the Deputy Chief. 2.1
C – Bereavement Leave will normally begin at 0900 hours following the time of death In circumstances where there will be a delay in the services of the deceased, members may with the approval of the Battalion and Division begin their leave at 0900 hrs on a later date. 2.7

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13
Q

Question 13:
The “In-Rig” EBF-4 must be used on which day of the week instead of the EBF-4 application on the Intranet?

A: Sunday

B: Monday

C: Wednesday

D: Friday

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
AUC 346 sec 6.6…..This section is written in BOLD

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14
Q

Question 14:
A newly promoted lieutenant has just conducted her first roll call and is in the office preparing for the tour. A firefighter approaches the officer and informs her that the voicemitter on a facepiece was discovered damaged during inspection. The officer was correct to take which of the following actions?

A: The officer forwarded a letterhead report to the Chief of Department via the chain of command stating full particulars.

B: The facepiece was placed out of service and forwarded to Tech Services for repair.

C: The officer interviewed all members involved in order to ascertain how the voicemitter became damaged.

D: The report did not include the name of the member discovering the damaged facepiece.

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
A. The officer forwarded a letterhead report to the CHIEF OF OPERATIONS via the chain of command stating full particulars.

B. The facepiece was placed out of service and forwarded to THE MASK SERVICE UNIT for repair.

D. The report INCLUDED the name of the member discovering the damaged facepiece AND THE NAME OF THE MEMBER WHO LAST USED AND/OR INSPECTED THE FACEPIECE.

TB SCBA 4.2.3 Note

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15
Q

Question 15:
When an aerial ladder has been committed to a roof position and is the only safe egress from that roof, each of the following choices are indicative of proper Department procedures except which choice?

A: The aerial ladder should not be moved unless absolutely necessary.

B: If the aerial ladder must be moved, direct radio communication must be made with members on the roof.

C: If the aerial ladder must be moved, it must be evident that there is no immediate need for roof egress at the time and that this new critical task will not delay the prompt replacement of the aerial ladder at the original location.

D: If the aerial ladder must be moved, units shall be informed of this temporary removal and the ladder must be returned to the bedded position as quickly as possible.

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) If the aerial ladder must be moved, units shall be informed of this temporary removal and the ladder must be returned TO THE SAME location as quickly as possible.
Lad 2 7.6

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16
Q

Question 16:
You would be most correct to know that the size of an area enclosed by fire walls is 3,000 square feet in which type of nonfireproof multiple dwelling?

A: Old Law Tenements (built before 4/12/1901)

B: New Law Tenements (built on or after 4/12/1901 and before 1916)

C: H-types (built between 1916 and 1929)

D: Apartment Houses (built on or after 4/18/1929)

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
MD Ch 1 1.4.4

17
Q

Question 17:
You are trying to remember what to bring to the Incident Command Post upon arrival as a Ventilation Support Group Company. You were incorrect in which choice?

A: 27” Tempest Fan

B: CO meters

C: Search rope

D: Elevator keys

E: Halligan and Heavy Axe

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
- 27” Tempest PPF and exhaust hoses
- Eye and ear protection
- Dave Clark headset
- CO monitors
- Elevator keys
- Halligan and Heavy Axe
- Door chocks
- Handlights
- SCBA and full PPE
AUC 349 sec 4.1

18
Q

Question 18:
When locating a member in distress our main concern is the timely removal of the member from the IDLH. Which packaging technique described below is incorrect?

A: If the member is unconscious or unable to assist in their own removal, the member(s) who first found the firefighter must start the packaging process.

B: Packaging a conscious member is always required for removal.

C: If possible, position the member so that their back is facing toward the direction of removal prior to starting the packaging process.

D: Turning the operation over to the dedicated FAST Unit upon their arrival will facilitate the timely removal of the distressed member.

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. Packaging a conscious member IS NOT ALWAYS required for removal. IN MOST SITUATIONS, PACKAGING AN UNCONSCIOUS MEMBER WILL BE REQUIRED FOR REMOVAL.

Managing Members in Distress 11.1, 11.2, 11.4, 11.5

19
Q

Question 19:
Of the following choices, which is not indicative of a new law tenement (built on or after 4/12/1901 and before 1916)?

A: Generally six or seven stories high, 35’ to 50’ wide and 85’ in depth.

B: The first floor (cellar ceiling) is of fireproof construction and unpierced. The entrance to the cellar is by way of exterior stairs.

C: The interior stairs are fireproof and enclosed in partitions of fireproof construction. Apartment doors are constructed of fire-resistant materials.

D: The second means of egress is either another stairway or an exterior fire escape. The secondary stairway is more generally found in these buildings.

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) The second means of egress is either another stairway or an exterior fire escape. The FIRE ESCAPE is more generally found in these buildings.
Notes: In addition:
Five to six apartments per floor.
All interior walls and furred partitions are required to be fire stopped at each story.
Steel “I” beams were introduced to carry floor joists which couldn’t span the enlarged floor areas. These steel beams generally were supported by masonry walls.
MD Ch 1 1.2

20
Q

Question 20:
You are the officer on duty on Memorial Day Weekend and firefighter Walker calls to advise you that he has been selected for Jury Duty Service following his call-in period. You run down a bunch of things he should be aware of. Which one is INCORRECT according to the PA/ID?

A: You are responsible for working 6x9 tours on Fridays and Saturdays and before holidays, and 9x6 tours on Saturday, Sunday, and Holidays.

B: If jury duty service starts prior to the beginning of your vacation, the vacation leave will be postponed.

C: You are not permitted to work any mutual exchange of tours from 1800 on the date immediately prior to the first day of service until released from Jury Duty Service.

D: Members scheduled to work on Memorial or Veteran’s Days that are excused for Jury Duty are not entitled to Comp Time reimbursement.

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
PA/ID 1 – CHAPTER 8 – JURY DUTY LEAVE
A IS INCORRECT – Saturday 6x9 tours and before holidays. (Not Friday 6x’s) 7.1
B – 8.3
C – 6.2.1
D – 7.2

21
Q

Question 21:
You have just been designated the officer for a Rescue Task Force (RTF) involving a confirmed Active Shooter. As the supervisor of the RTF, what piece of equipment (Medical Supplies) shall NOT be brought into the Warm Zone?

A: Defibrillator

B: Tourniquets

C: Triage bags

D: Occlusive dressings

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
Oxygen and defibrillators shall NOT be brought into the Warm Zone
Medical supplies to bring into Warm Zone:
- Tourniquets
- Hemostatic agent
- Occlusive dressings
- Triage tags
- Skeds
- Ballistic vests and helmets
ERP 3 A sec 11.4.1

22
Q

Question 22:
When the documenter FF is filling out a PCR for a male patient and is unable to obtain the patients name, what should be written in the boxes on the form meant for the first and last name?

A: N/A

B: John Doe

C: Nothing, it should be left blank.

D: Unknown Male

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
CFR Ch 5 4.4.1

23
Q

Question 23:
When estimating the amount of hose to be used at a fire operation, the distance involved and specific building features need to be accounted for. Which of the following guidelines is correct?

A: At least 1 full length of hose is needed to cover the fire area. Larger apartments or fire areas will require 2 lengths.

B: Roughly 1 length is needed to travel up (or down) 1 floor. For a well hole or rope stretch, 1 length of hose stretched vertically can travel roughly 5 floors.

C: For a wrap-around stretch, roughly 2 lengths are needed to travel 1 floor.

D: Generally, return type stairs will require less hose than straight run stairs.

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
A) At least 1 full length of hose is needed to cover the fire area. Larger apartments or fire areas MAY require 1 ½ LENGTHS.
C) For a wrap-around stretch, roughly 1 ½ LENGTHS are needed to travel 1 floor.
D) Generally, return type stairs MAY require MORE hose than straight run stairs.
Eng Ch 6 5.4.3

24
Q

Question 24:
All members should be familiar with fire protection features of high rise office buildings. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: The fire command station will be located in the lobby of the building, near the elevator control panel.

B: A floor warden station shall be located on each floor between the required exits.

C: At least one manual fire alarm sending station shall be located in each path of escape in each story of a building. Additional stations shall be installed so that no point on any floor shall be more than 500 feet from the nearest station.

D: An approved combustion ionization detection device or a combination of an approved smoke detecting device and an approved fixed temperature thermostatic device shall be installed at each elevator landing and within the HVAC system.

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) At least one manual fire alarm sending station shall be located in each path of escape in each story of a building. Additional stations shall be installed so that no point on any floor shall be more than 200 FEET from the nearest station.
D Note: The activation of a sprinkler water flow alarm or smoke detector at an elevator landing will recall the elevators. Within the HVAC system, the activation of a smoke detector will NOT recall the elevators.
HROB 7.2.1 A, 7.2.3, 7.2.4, 7.2.5, 7.2.6

25
Q

Question 25:
Packages containing radioactive materials must indicate the level of radiation contained in the package. The three labels used include: White I, Yellow II, and Yellow III. Packages containing radioactive material may also have a Transport Index (TI) indicating the level of radiation one meter from the package in mR/hr. The TI applies to levels of what type of radiation?

A: Alpha radiation only

B: Beta radiation only

C: Alpha and Beta radiation

D: Gamma radiation only

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
Last Lieutenants exam
ERP add 4 sec 2

26
Q

Question 26:
Members just returned from a reported fire in a factory which turned out to be unfounded. However, when checking the rear, the OV in the truck encountered a double bar fox lock on the rear door. The on-duty lieutenant takes this opportunity to drill on these types of locks but was incorrect in which statement?

A: These locks are easily recognizable by the location of the cylinder in the center if the door.

B: Cylinders are usually covered with a metal plate with four bolts.

C: Using a halligan, shear off the top two bolts and one bottom bolt, then turn the plate down exposing the lock cylinder.

D: After removing the cylinder with the K tool, use the square key tool and turn the tool towards the upper bar thus unlocking the door.

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
D. After removing the cylinder with the K tool, use the square key tool and turn the tool towards the BOTTOM bar thus unlocking the door.

TB Forcible Entry 1 4.2 B #6

27
Q

Question 27:
An Officer in charge of a Tower Ladder unit should know that, at the conclusion of operations, certain steps must be followed to ensure the unit takes up safely. Which step below is not in accordance with Department policy?

A: When bedding the bucket, make certain the light on the back of the pedestal controls is illuminated and the arrows lining up the turntable and body of the Tower Ladder are aligned prior to bedding.

B: Prior to raising the jacks and outriggers, chauffeurs shall personally verify that all manual pins have been removed.

C: After raising the outriggers, verify that turntable platform arrow markings meet, ensuring that the Tower Ladder boom is parallel with the apparatus.

D: All members should remain alert and stay clear of the immediate area surrounding the Tower Ladder apparatus as the chauffeur proceeds to retract the outriggers and jacks.

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Outriggers should NOT be raised before verifying that the turntable platform arrow markings meet, ensuring that the Tower Ladder boom is parallel with the apparatus.
D Note: Failure to do so could result in significant injuries as the apparatus moves downwards, as a result of the stabilizers releasing.
Note: When raising the outriggers, make certain tools are not leaning against the apparatus, and maintain an arms-length distance to ensure knees and legs are clear as the apparatus is set down onto the wheels. In addition, position a safety member on the OFFICER’S side of the apparatus.
TL Ch 2 2.9

28
Q

Question 28:
Attic areas of private dwellings offer particular challenges to members. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: Finished attic areas have low ceilings and hidden voids and channels for fire travel. Particular attention must be paid to the eaves, gables and cornices; these construction features tend to trap fire and heat.

B: Of special concern would be the presence of louvers for ventilation, which are often built into the underside of the eaves (soffit). Fire exposing this area readily communicates to the attic and roof.

C: Members opening knee walls in attic spaces should avoid opening walls near the stairs. Fire venting from these openings could block member egress.

D: Due to the limited means of access to most attics, the ladder company must be prepared to assist the engine company in alternate means of getting water on the fire. This can be achieved by opening up a 2’ section of the ceiling on the floor below.

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) Due to the limited means of access to most attics, the ladder company must be prepared to assist the engine company in alternate means of getting water on the fire. This can be achieved by opening up a 3’ SECTION of the ceiling on the floor below.
D Note: The engine company could then operate from a small extension ladder to sweep the attic space with the hoseline. If wood is encountered when making the initial opening, you may have encountered an attic catwalk. Shifting about THREE FEET to one side and making another opening may avoid this type of obstruction. The bent tip and/or cockloft nozzle may also be used effectively in this situation.
PD Ch 4 11

29
Q

Question 29:
There is a priority order for the use of the Positive Pressure Fans when operating as a Ventilation Support Unit. The first priority can be found in which choice?

A: Fire apartment

B: Attack stairwell

C: Evacuation Stairwell

D: Public halls

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
1- Pressurizing the attack stairwell to support the fire attack, by controlling the smoke condition at the attack stair doorway and throughout the attack stairway
2- Pressurizing the evacuation stairwell for smoke and CO control
3- Ventilating the public hallways for smoke and CO control
AUC 349 sec 6.5

30
Q

Question 30:
When evaluating the collapse potential and establishing collapse zones at places of worship, all sides are mentioned as the most dangerous areas during a fire except which one?

A: Front

B: Rear

C: Exposure 2

D: Exposure 4

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
“124”

A: IS DUE TO THE STEEPLE OR BELL TOWER

C & D: ARE DUE TO THE BEARING WALLS

Places of Worship 4.7

31
Q

Question 31:
Which general safety consideration at the scene of a structural collapse is not entirely accurate?

A: Stretch hoselines to protect entire collapse area. Ensure a 2 1/2” hoseline is stretched for tower ladder use.

B: Control utilities by shutting down the main building service entrance controls, and ensure the dispatcher has requested the response of the utility company’s emergency crews.

C: Remove lightly buried victims and deliver them to the Medical Group.

D: Explosions shall be viewed as possible “dirty-bomb” sites until monitoring shows the area to be clear of contamination.

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) Stretch hoselines to protect entire collapse area. Ensure a 3½” HOSELINE is stretched for tower ladder use.
Collapse 4.4, 4.6

32
Q

Question 32:
Members of an intense study group were debating the rules surrounding emergency leave and the following statements were made. Which one was CORRECT?

A: Birth of a child is covered under Emergency Leave.

B: Serious injury to the brother of a spouse is covered under emergency leave.

C: The first 24 hours of emergency leave is not deducted from a member’s vacation.

D: When a member pays back an emergency leave extension, a report must be forwarded by the officer on duty to the Chief of Uniformed Personnel.

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
PA/ID 1 – CHAPTER 6 EMERGENCY LEAVE (NEW INFO)
A IS CORRECT – 1.1 – Birth of a child is covered under the emergency leave policy. 4/28/22
B – In laws and siblings of Spouse/domestic partner are not covered by Emergency Leave policy. 1.1
C – The first scheduled tour of emergency leave shall not be deducted from annual leave allowances. 1.3
D – When a member pays back an emergency leave extension, it is a MEMBER REPORT to the Chief of Personnel. 1.5.

33
Q

Question 33:
During a Haz-Mat incident, which first arriving Unit/Team is responsible for “Information Resources.”

A: First arriving Ladder/Team 1

B: First arriving Ladder/Team 2 only

C: First arriving Ladder/Team 2 and Second arriving Ladder/Team 1

D: Second arriving Ladder/Team 2 only

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
Haz-Mat Incident
First arriving Ladder Team 1- Hazard ID
First arriving Ladder Team 2- Information Resources
Second arriving Ladder Team 1- Information Resources
Second arriving Ladder Team 2- Initial Exclusion Zone
Overall Responsibilities of the 1st and 2nd Ladder Companies: First Arriving Ladder- Hazard Assessment
Second Arriving Ladder- Site Access Control
ERP sec 11

34
Q

Question 34:
The floor jack has a maximum lifting capacity of _____ lbs. It takes ____ pumps to reach its maximum height.

A: 2000; 5

B: 2000; 10

C: 4000; 5

D: 4000; 10

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
TB Tools 37 1.0

RELATIVELY NEW TOOL NEVER TESTED ON LT EXAM BEFORE

35
Q

Question 35:
Sidewalk Vaults may be found in Older Cast-Iron Lofts. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding these vaults?

A: They are three-wall enclosures located under the front sidewalk.

B: The vault can extend downward to all sub-levels of the building and may extend the full width of the sidewalk. An indicator of a “full” vault is a large piece of granite stone covering the sidewalk to the curb line.

C: The ceiling of the vault was originally constructed of a brick arch design with cubed glass for natural light to enter.

D: The frame can span the entire width of the building and extend from the building wall to the street.

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) The ceiling of the vault was originally constructed of a wrought-iron or cast-iron frame with small segmented fixed glass orbs (deadlights) to allow natural light to enter.
C Note: Today, the glass may have been totally or partially replaced with diamond plate, cubed-glass, granite, stone, or concrete.
B Note: Vaulted sidewalks are generally supported by wrought-iron I-beams or cast-iron structural members.
Lofts 5.1.1

36
Q

Question 37:
Which piece of equipment shall not be used when operating at a Con-Ed Substation fire?

A: Engine Deck Gun

B: Aerial Ladder Pipe

C: Akron New Yorker Multiversal

D: Aquastream Master Stream Nozzle carried by all Aerial Ladder and Engine Companies

E: Tower Ladder

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
The Aquastream Master Stream Nozzle carried by all Aerial Ladder and Engine Companies is factory pre-set to a fog stream pattern of 130 degrees. To wide of a pattern to extinguish a fire. This nozzle is used for decon
AUC 338 sec 5.5.Note

37
Q

Question 38:
When responding to a reported natural gas emergency, apparatus positioning is a key factor to consider. Which choice below describing apparatus positioning reflects incorrect information?

A: If a strong odor is present on approach stop and meter the area.

B: If the meter displays 10% of the LEL, this may indicate a potentially serious leak and may require treating the incident as a major gas emergency.

C: The apparatus should be positioned in front of the reported leak location.

D: Additional units shall stage at street corners, and only enter into the block when appropriate.

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
C. The apparatus SHOULD NOT BE positioned in front of the reported leak location.

IN ADDITION UNITS SHOULD AVOID POSITIONING OVER MANHOLES AND SEWERS. THE PURPOSE OF POSITIONING APPARATUS IN THIS MANNER IS TO PROTECT MEMBERS WHILE KEEPING CURB VALVES, SERVICE VALVES, AND MAIN VALVES CLEAR IN THE EVENT OF A SIGNIFICANT LEAK.

Natural Gas 6.2

38
Q

Question 39:
Which of the following is INCORRECT according to the mutual exchange guidelines?

A: Mutual exchange applications shall be submitted at least 3 days in advance of the first date involved.

B: Under normal circumstances, members should not owe or be owed 8 or more mutual exchange of tours. This excludes self-mx’s.

C: Mutual exchange of tours shall be completed within a 15-day period subsequent to the first date involved.

D: Members shall not work more than 24 consecutive scheduled hours by any combination of regular tours, mutual exchanges, RSOT, or MSOT.

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
PA/ID 5 – CHAPTER 1 – MUTUAL EXCHANGE GUIDELINES
C IS INCORRECT – Completed within a 30 day period. 1.6
A – 1.5
B – 1.9
D – 1.8

39
Q

Question 40:
The control firefighter position is a very important position and demands a knowledgeable, determined member. Of the control firefighter‘s duties listed below, which is incorrect?

A: After sufficient hose has been stretched and the ECC does not require their assistance, the control firefighter should assist in flaking out hose between the apparatus and the building entrance door, in addition to feeding slack toward firefighters ahead on the line.

B: The control firefighter should minimize the number of turns made by the hoseline outside the building.

C: Hose should ideally be stretched and flaked out in the middle of the street.

D: If the hoseline needs to cross the street, cross over as close to the fire building as possible, while remaining mindful of ladder company positioning.

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Hose should NOT be stretched or flaked out in the middle of the street. If apparatus positioning or the presence of cars makes stretching in the street difficult, bring the hoseline onto the sidewalk close to the apparatus and stretch by way of the sidewalk.
Note: Leave room for the hoseline to move around any obstructions or pinch points, such as parked cars, trees, fences, or doorways. Be especially mindful of car tires, which can easily snag the hoseline.
Eng Ch 6 5.6.1