LT PKG EXAM #14 Flashcards

1
Q

Question 1:
A unit shall be placed OOS when the staffing is reduced to how many members?

A: Officer and Chauffeur

B: Officer, Chauffeur, and 1 FF on back step

C: Officer, Chauffeur, and 2 FFs on back step

D: Officer, Chauffeur, and 3 FFs on back step

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
Units with only an Officer and a Chauffeur shall be placed OOS. However; this unit, while still staffed with only an Officer and a chauffeur shall respond to any verbal alarms received in quarters. These members may be detailed to fill vacancies occurring during the remainder of the tour
AUC 287 sec 8.3.5
A unit staffed with an Officer and a minimum of 2 FFs (at least one of which is a chauffeur), shall respond to all alarms.
AUC 287 sec 8.3.4

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2
Q

Question 2:
Ladder company 300 just returned to quarters from a 2nd alarm fire in a project building. Members were faced with a punishing fire in a large storage room in the basement. The only entry to this area required the irons firefighter to force a door locked by a multi-lock. When discussing the operation afterwards, the Lieutenant made the following points regarding these locks but was incorrect in which one?

A: The lock is not necessarily centered in the door but is easily recognizable by the large plate covering the lock.

B: Four bars, one in each direction, enter the door jamb when the lock is engaged.

C: Prior to forcing entry, make sure the lock is engaged by sliding paper or cardboard under the door along the bottom.

D: To force the door, cut a triangle in the lower quadrant of the door opposite the doorknob side.

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
D. To force the door, cut a triangle in the lower quadrant of the door ON THE DOORKNOB SIDE.

NOTE “A”: THE DOUBLE BAR LOCK-FOX LOCK IS EASILY RECOGNIZABLE BY THE LOCATION OF THE CYLINDER IN THE CENTER OF THE DOOR.

TB Forcible Entry 1 9.1

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3
Q

Question 3:
All members should be familiar with the process for engaging the Engine apparatus pump in order to supply a hoseline. Of the following steps, which is listed incorrectly?

A: 1. Place the apparatus transmission in “neutral”.

B: 2. Engage the apparatus maxi-brake.

C: 3. Move the “pump shift control” to the pump position (located in the cab).

D: 4. Place the apparatus transmission in “park”.

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) 4. Place the apparatus transmission in “DRIVE”.
Eng Ch 2 Add 1 3.1.1

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4
Q

Question 4:
Which choice INCORRECTLY lists a building type that must be included in the CIDS program?

A: MJALT

B: REHAB

C: MEGA

D: FACTORY

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL CHAPTER 4
D IS INCORRECT – Factory is not included in the mandatory building types
BOWSTRING TRUSS (BWSTRG),
CFR HOLD (CFRH),
MAJOR ALT (MJALT)
PRE-INCIDENT GUIDELINE (PG),
REHABILITATED (REHAB),
MEGA HIGH RISE (MEGA) are required in the CIDS PROGRAM.
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5
Q

Question 5:
Members operating on the fire ground in other than their assigned unit must wear a temporary front piece to properly identify themselves in the unit they are working in that tour. The incorrect statement made in regards to the temporary front pieces can be found in which choice?

A: All Engines, Ladders, Rescues, and Squad companies will be issued 1 temporary front piece for the company officer

B: All Engines, Ladders, Rescues, and Squad companies will be issued 2 temporary front pieces for the firefighters

C: At the completion of the tour, temporary front pieces are to be returned to the HW

D: An 11”X17” sign, which reminds detailed members to return the front pieces shall be placed in an area, clearly visible to all members leaving quarters

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
All Engines, Ladders, Rescues, and Squad companies will be issued 3 temporary front pieces for the firefighters
Lost front pieces shall be the subject of a lost property report (FS-112) and forwarded through regular channels. Any member finding a temporary front piece shall place it in the department bag for delivery to proper unit
AUC 299

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6
Q

Question 6:
Which description of natural gas system infrastructure is correct?

A: Gate station facilities have remote monitoring by the Utility Companies Gas Control Centers but generally have no on-site personnel.

B: Natural gas is piped to customers along distribution mains which are high pressure only.

C: High pressure distribution mains are made of steel only.

D: Medium and low pressure distribution mains are made of steel, plastic or, if newer, cast iron.

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
B. Natural gas is piped to customers along distribution mains which are HIGH, MEDIUM OR LOW PRESSURE.

C. High pressure distribution mains are made of STEEL OR PLASTIC.

D. Medium and low pressure distribution mains are made of steel, plastic or, IF OLDER, CAST IRON.

CAST IRON IS CURRENTLY BEING REPLACED BECAUSE THEY ARE PRONE TO LEAK AT JOINTS AND BECAUSE CAST IRON IS BRITTLE WITH LOW TENSILE STRENGTH WHICH RESULTS IN FAILURES.

  • SECTION 4.3 WAS UPDATED IN 8/2021*
  • THIS WAS A VERY DIFFICULT SEPERATOR QUESTION, BUT ONE VERY SIMILAR WAS ASKED ON THE 2019 BC EXAM*

Natural Gas 4.1, 4.3

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7
Q

Question 7:
In cold weather, members should keep the hydraulic systems of aerial ladders operating intermittently to prevent sluggishness/freezing and return the ladder to the bed as soon as possible to prevent icing. If the aerial ladder becomes coated with ice, the ice should be removed in what order?

A: First free the trussing, then the main beams, and then the rungs and ladder rung locks.

B: First free the trussing, then the rungs and ladder rung locks, and then the main beams.

C: First free the main beams, then the rungs and ladder rung locks, and then the trussing.

D: First free the rungs and ladder rung locks, then trussing and then the main beams.

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
Acronym: Roof FFs Like The Beams
Rungs
Locks
Trussing
Beams
Lad 2 8.19
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8
Q

Question 8:
Operations mandates that training roll calls be conducted to keep members well versed in emergency roll call procedures. Which choice is CORRECT regarding when these roll calls are conducted?
**1 – Monthly
**2 – Quarterly (January, April, July, October)
**3 – Semi-Annually (January & July)
**4 – Whenever the incident commander feels it’s warranted.

A: 1 & 4 Only

B: 2 & 4 Only

C: 3 & 4 Only

D: 4 Only

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 9 ADDENDUM 2 – ROLL CALL PROCEDURES
B IS CORRECT – Quarterly & Incident Commanders are encouraged to conduct training emergency roll calls whenever they feel it’s warranted 1.3

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9
Q

Question 9:
The most correct procedure for the “Security of Quarters,” can be found in which choice?

A: All Doors and windows shall be kept open at all times since this is considered a public building.

B: If a contractor is working in quarters and the unit gets a run, the contractor must leave immediately

C: When the company is leaving quarters, entrance and apparatus doors are to be closed and locked by any member on the back step

D: To gain access to another unit’s quarters upon relocation that has a combination lock, the officer shall look at the response ticket for the combination. In case of no response ticket, the officer shall contact the dispatcher by the use of a nearby ERS Box

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
A- Doors and windows that are easily accessible from the street, yard, court or adjoining roof should be kept locked when not in use
B- If there is a contractor in quarters, and the doors and windows can be locked or secured, the officer on duty shall notify the contractor that the contractor will be held accountable while his personnel are working in quarters during the absence of the unit
C- The assigned member
AUC 300 sec 2

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10
Q

Question 10:
Members operating at a steam high energy line break inside a building should be aware that which tactic below is incorrect regarding the shutting of steam valves?

A: In an emergency, members may shut the Inside Service Valve prior to the arrival of Con Ed personnel.

B: Once a steam valve is shut, do not reopen it.

C: Con Ed must be notified if any valve is shut.

D: There is a building steam shutoff located outside the building. FDNY members shall only shut this valve under the direct supervision of Con Ed personnel.

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
D. There is a building steam shutoff located outside the building. FDNY members SHOULD NOT ATTEMPT TO SHUT THIS VALVE. THIS VALVE SHOULD ONLY BE SHUT BY CON EDISON STEAM PERSONNEL.

NOTE “A”: IF POSSIBLE, WAIT FOR CON ED TO SHUT THE NECESSARY VALVES.

Steam 4.4

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11
Q

Question 11:
The Digital In-Line Gauge requires proper maintenance to function correctly. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: A fully charged battery will supply approximately 5 hours of continuous operation.

B: After 3½ hours of usage, the digital display will slowly flash “LO batt”.

C: When 100 minutes of battery life remains, “LO batt” will flash rapidly. Immediately replace the battery if this occurs.

D: Units are issued 4 batteries; one is used in the gauge, one is carried in the clear battery pouch of the carrying case, and 2 are placed in the charging unit at quarters.

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) When 10 MINUTES of battery life remains, “LO batt” will flash rapidly. Immediately replace the battery if this occurs.
Note: To test the battery, press the “Battery” button. A battery in serviceable condition will display as “Batt Good”.
D Note: Batteries on the charger should be rotated WEEKLY and switched with the batteries in the gauge and the carrying case.
Eng Ch 3 6.1.7

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12
Q

Question 12:
The Transmit/Receive LED display on the HT can serve as a warning that a member’s battery is running low. Which of the of the following choices CORRECTLY indicates this condition?

A: Blinking Amber display

B: Blinking Red display (While not transmitting)

C: Blinking Red display (While transmitting)

D: Solid Red Display

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – SEPARATOR? – CHAPTER 11 – UTILIZATION OF HT
C IS CORRECT – 2.2.5E – Blinking Red Display while transmitting indicates HT is transmitting at low battery condition.
A – HT is receiving a secured transmission
B – HT is in Emergency Mode
D – HT is transmitting

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13
Q

Question 13:
Members must not remove a fallen tree from a vehicle unless to provide certain actions. Choose the incorrect action

A: Perform a rescue

B: Administer first aid

C: Establish an emergency lane

D: Overhead electrical wires are entangled in the fallen tree and a rescue is needed

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
No cutting or moving is to be attempted until the utility company certifies that power has been removed and wires have been disengaged from the trees
AUC 301 sec 3.4 and 5.6

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14
Q

Question 14:
Prior to the arrival of the FAST truck, when only one 5 FF ladder company and one engine company are on scene, who makes up the safety team?

A: LCC & Backup

B: LCC & Control

C: OV & Backup

D: OV & Control

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
THIS IS REGARDLESS OF WHETHER IT’S A 5 FF LADDER OR 4 FF LADDER

Managing Members in Distress Ch 1 2.1

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15
Q

Question 15:
During company drill on H-type fires, a number of comments were made. In which choice below was the comment incorrect?

A: A fire escape in the throat often spans the firewall and indicates one apartment in the throat.

B: One apartment in the throat may span firewall with no fire escape and have two interior exits, one to the stairway in one wing and the other to the adjacent wing. Usually, one door is nailed shut or obstructed by furniture so as not to be openable.

C: Some buildings have been found to have a fire partition in the throat which does not extend completely to the rear wall. When a fire partition is found, it must be checked to be sure it is carried to the front and rear fire walls.

D: Ceiling beams are not always laid in the conventional manner (across the width of the wings). Some may be laid lengthwise, depending on the iron framework.

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) A fire escape in the throat often spans the firewall and indicates TWO separate apartments in the throat.
B Note: A search of this apartment must be thorough.
MD Ch 1 4.10.3, 4.11.3-4.11.5

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16
Q

Question 16:
There are several times associated with the features of the HT. Which of the times in the choices below is CORRECT?

A: To activate the High Visibility LED light on the remote microphone, press and hold the light for 2 seconds

B: To reset the Emergency Alert button, press and hold for approximately 1 second.

C: To avoid the instance of a stuck button, transmissions must be completed within 26 seconds.

D: Activation of the EAB will cause impolite and polite alerts on the radio. Approximately 10 seconds after the impolite alert, a polite alert is sent.

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 11 – UTILIZATION OF THE HT
A IS CORRECT – 2.5 F & FIGURE 9 PG 11-10
B – Emergency alert may be reset by depressing and holding EAB for 2 seconds or by turning HT off and then turning back on. 3.5.1.1
C – 30 seconds – radio will emit a warning tone at 26 seconds. 3.3
D – Approximately 8 seconds after the impolite transmission, the polite alert is set. 3.5.1.1

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17
Q

Question 17:
AUC 310 lists several examples of prohibited conduct when it comes to wearing Bunker Gear in and outside quarters. Choose the incorrect example.

A: Bunker gear shall be stored in designated areas only, including personal lockers

B: Bunker gear cannot be worn in the kitchen while filling out the proby notebook

C: Bunker gear cannot be worn while repacking the LSR in the bunk room

D: Bunker gear cannot be worn while conducting a drill in the gym located in the basement

E: Bunker gear cannot be worn in supermarkets, hospitals, and other public spaces

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
Bunker gear shall not be stored in personal lockers
In order to reduce the possibility of bringing fireground contaminants or bloodborne pathogens into living areas of the firehouse, the FDNY strictly prohibits members from wearing or bringing their bunker gear into such areas......"Living Areas" include:
- Kitchens
- Sitting Rooms
- TV Rooms
- HW areas
- Bunk Rooms
- Gym Areas
AUC 310 add 3 sec 1.2 and 2
18
Q

Question 18:
A Lieutenant is covering a day tour in Ladder 199 when a firefighter knocks on the office door and informs the officer that the red infectious waste bags were not picked up for disposal when they were scheduled to be. The officer would be most correct to call whom?

A: The Battalion

B: The Division

C: Tech Services

D: Resource Center

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
CFR Ch 3 12.16.3

19
Q

Question 19:
The senior officer of Engine 100 was instructing the probationary firefighter on the types of hose required to be carried on the Engine apparatus. Of the following choices, which is incorrectly described?

A: 1 length of 2” lightweight hose (green with a red stripe) maintained as a roll-up and kept with the 2” nozzle and 1” MST attached.

B: 3 lengths of 2 ½” lightweight hose (white with a red stripe) maintained as roll-ups. One of these lengths must be kept with the 2 ½” nozzle and 1 1/8” MST attached. For companies staffed with 5 firefighters, 1 additional length of 2 ½” lightweight hose must be carried, maintained as a roll-up.

C: At least 4 lengths of 1 ¾” hose shall be carried, rolled or arranged in a roll-up, for use as an additional length in a hose stretch. One of these 1 ¾” hose lengths should be maintained with a nozzle attached.

D: One length of 1 ¾” hose to be used as a “booster line” for outside fires, such as rubbish fires or car fires. This hose should be maintained with a fog nozzle attached.

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) TWO lengths of 1 ¾” hose to be used as a “booster line” for outside fires, such as rubbish fires or car fires. This hose should be maintained with a fog nozzle attached to one length.
D Note: In an emergency, it can also be used to apply water from the exterior of the fire building. It should be maintained pre-connected to a discharge outlet. It MAY also be maintained pre-connected to a gated wye attached to a discharge outlet. This hose may be maintained either rolled or folded. Generally, it is stored on the front bumper of the apparatus.
Eng Ch 2 9.3, 12.1

20
Q

Question 20:
Which terminology used during the following Mayday or Urgent transmissions is INCORRECT?

A: Officer from Ladder 171 discovers a member suffering a life-threatening injury and after contacting command transmits, “Mayday, Injured Member”.

B: Roof firefighter from Ladder 177 discovers conditions that indicate the danger of collapse and after contacting command transmits “Mayday, Collapsed Feared”.

C: Forcible Entry firefighter from Ladder 178 discovers a down missing member and after contacting command transmits, “Mayday, Missing Member Located”.

D: Chauffeur from Engine 256 discovers he has a dead hydrant and after contacting command transmits, “Urgent, 10-70”.

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 9 – UNIT COMMUNICATIONS
B IS INCORRECT – “Collapse Feared” is an URGENT Transmission under Danger of Collapse. 9.4.2D
A – 9.4.1C
C – 9.4.1D
D – 9.4.2B

21
Q

Question 21:
Fires involving lithium-ion batteries have been increasing at an alarming rate and have resulted in fatalities. Even when the initial cause of a fire was not the lithium-ion device, the involvement of lithium-ion batteries in a fire can increase the intensity of the fire. Choose the incorrect statement made in reference to lithium-ion batteries.

A: Lithium-ion batteries may rupture and vent toxic gases when subjected to hot or cold temperatures

B: Lithium-ion batteries may rupture and vent toxic gases while drying out after being wet

C: Dry Chemical is ineffective for any type of lithium-ion related extinguishment

D: Due to the lithium-ion battery heat signature before rupturing, the Thermal Imaging Camera is an excellent tool in detecting “thermal runaway” in order for FFs to remove batteries to a remote area before rupturing

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
Thermal Imaging Camera shall NOT be relied upon to determine if a Lithium-ion battery pack or cell is compromised
Haz-Mat 20 sec 4.1 and 4.3.3

22
Q

Question 22:
On the EV 6000 thermal imaging camera, when colors yellow through red appear in more than _______ % of the display, it will shift into ______ sensitivity mode.

A: 15; high

B: 15; low

C: 32; low

D: 32; high

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
THIS NUMBER CHANGED WITH THE EV 6000 CAMERA. ALSO, BE AWARE WHEN IN “LOW” HEAT MODE THE CAMERA IS IN “HIGH” SENSITIVITY MODE. WHEN IN “HIGH” HEAT MODE THE CAMERA IS IN “LOW” SENSITIVITY MODE.

BE CAREFUL WITH THIS TERMINOLOGY

TB Tools 27 Data Sheet 1 3.4.7, 3.4.8

23
Q

Question 23:
For the first arriving Tower Ladder at a fire in a Brownstone building, what is the appropriate order of preference for the Roof FF to access the roof?

A: 1. The 1st arriving aerial ladder; 2. The 2nd arriving aerial ladder; 3. The adjoining building.

B: 1. The 1st arriving aerial ladder; 2. The rear fire escape. 3. The 2nd arriving aerial ladder.

C: 1. The basket; 2. The 2nd arriving aerial ladder; 3. The adjoining building.

D: 1. The basket; 2. The 2nd arriving aerial ladder; 3. The rear fire escape.

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
Note: A visible life hazard will negate the initial use of the TL basket for roof access.
Note: Most brownstones…do not have fire escapes.
BS/RF 2.2.7, 2.8

24
Q

Question 24:
There are times when members of a Tower Ladder may be working during extreme cold or icy conditions. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: Use rock salt or speedy-dry on icy surfaces under and around jack and outrigger pads to prevent slipping.

B: During operations in freezing weather, frequent boom repositioning will prevent ice buildup. However, if operations are to remain stationary, the boom should be periodically extended and retracted to prevent ice buildup.

C: During extreme cold weather the Tower Ladder officer should facilitate periodic relief of members in the bucket to prevent overexposure to the elements.

D: During winter storms, a cable or chain attached to a Tower Ladder may assist in vehicle/apparatus/ambulance recovery.

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) During winter storms, the VEHICLE RECOVERY STRAP attached to a Tower Ladder may assist in vehicle/apparatus/ambulance recovery.
Notes: Units engaged in outside operations shall keep the apparatus engines running to prevent congealing of diesel oil.
During extended operations, consider placing all pressurized water extinguishers in the crew cab.
During periods of heavy snow accumulation, Tower Ladder units should be guided by the following:
When conditions warrant, Department-issued snow chains shall be mounted on all four outer drive-wheel tires.
Prior to setting jacks/outriggers on surfaces, clear snow to verify stabilizers are not being lowered onto manholes/vaults.
TL Ch 5 6

25
Q

Question 25:
The first arriving Ladder Company has initial responsibilities upon arrival of an explosion. Select the incorrect responsibility.

A: When first on scene, confirm the location of the Point of Impact, use the proper 10 code, and refrain from using plain speak over the department radio.

B: Members are only to tag deceased victims in the Point of Impact

C: Members are to use skeds to remove critical victims from the Point of Impact to the Triage Transfer Point

D: If the distance to the Triage Transfer Point is to long from the Point of Impact, the 1st arriving Ladder Company may establish a Patient Relay Point where they will transfer each victim to the 2nd Ladder Company

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
If first unit on scene, confirm the location of the POI using plain language on the department radio. Notify the dispatcher and advise incoming units that an explosion has occurred, so that all incoming units may alter response routes when necessary. Consider staging in a protected area, being mindful of distance and/or shielding. ERP add 3 sec 5.3.4

26
Q

Question 26:
Members at roll call are discussing general vertical ventilation tactics, and they make the following points. Which one is incorrect?

A: Initial vertical ventilation tactics must be controlled, communicated and coordinated by the ladder company officer operating inside the area to be vented.

B: The ladder company officer inside the fire area shall establish door control of the fire area and perform a ventilation profile at the entry point, paying particular attention to the smoke coming out.

C: The ladder company officer inside the fire area shall communicate with the roof firefighter when vertical ventilation is not to be taken or delayed.

D: On the exterior, absent any orders to withhold or delay roof vent, initial vertical ventilation tactics can be conducted upon reaching the roof.

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. The ladder company officer inside the fire area shall establish door control of the fire area and perform a ventilation profile at the entry point, paying particular attention to the AIR BEING PULLED IN.

Ventilation 10.1, 10.2

27
Q

Question 27:
Trenching a roof is a defensive operation performed to limit the extension of fire in the cockloft. Which of the following choices is correct?

A: Ideally, a trench should be cut and opened before there is an adequate vent opening directly over the fire.

B: Two or more inspection holes may be cut on the fire side of the trench. When, and if, the fire reaches the inspection holes, the precut trench is pulled.

C: The trench must be properly located, no greater than 3’ wide, and cut from wall to wall or other suitable fire stop, such as a stair or elevator bulkhead

D: The trench should be cut about 15 feet from the initial vent hole. It should be cut at the narrowest, available roof section, taking advantage of bulkhead structures, outside walls, skylights, etc.

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
A) A trench may be cut, but should NOT be opened, until there is an adequate vent opening directly over the fire. Ideally, the trench should be precut, but not pulled.
C) The trench must be properly located, AT LEAST 3’ wide, and cut from wall to wall or other suitable fire stop, such as a stair or elevator bulkhead.
D) The trench should be cut ABOUT 20 FEET from the initial vent hole. It should be cut at the narrowest, available roof section, taking advantage of bulkhead structures, outside walls, skylights, etc.
D Note: Do NOT depend on firewalls constructed within the structure.
MD Ch 1 4.9.9 B, C, E

28
Q

Question 28:
All members of the Department should be familiar with terms in the realm of Fire Dynamics. Of the following choices, which term is incorrectly portrayed?

A: “Flash Point” is the lowest temperature of a liquid at which that liquid gives off sufficient vapors to ignite and continue to burn.

B: “Fire Point” is the lowest temperature at which a liquid will ignite and achieve sustained burning.

C: “Vapor Pressure” is the ability of a liquid or solid fuel to vaporize. The higher the vapor pressure, the more vapors are released (the easier it is to off-gas).

D: The “Vapor Density” of gas refers to its density compared to air. A gas with a vapor density greater than 1 is heavier than air while vapor densities less than 1 are lighter than air.

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) “Flash Point” is the lowest temperature of a liquid at which that liquid gives off sufficient vapors to ignite but WILL NOT continue to burn.
In other words, at the Flash Point, the vapors will “flash”/blow but not sustain burning. While at the Fire Point, the vapor will continue to burn after the initial ignition.
D Note: Gases that have a vapor density around 1 will mix evenly with air.
TB FD 6

29
Q

Question 29:
A Carbon Monoxide (CO) investigation will determine if the response is an “Incident” or an “Emergency.” Choose the most correct procedure when operating at a CO Incident or Emergency.

A: SCBA shall be used at all CO Incidents and Emergencies

B: If meter readings of 9 PPM are detected, inform occupant our meter has not detected an elevated CO level

C: Members shall start mandatory evacuation of occupants if meter readings are 99 PPM of CO

D: A CO “Incident” is when meter readings are 9 PPM or less and/or an occupant is considered symptomatic

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
A- SCBA shall be WORN at all CO investigations, and USED at all CO Emergencies
C- Mandatory evacuation…meter readings are 100 PPM and greater
D- CO Incidents : No occupants are symptomatic and meter readings of 9 PPM or less……..occupant is symptomatic, then its a CO Emergency
Haz-Mat 4 sec 4

30
Q

Question 30:
NYCHA Key FOBS have been issued to all FDNY units to provide easy access and reduce unnecessary damage to NYCHA building entry doors. Which one additional point about these keys is incorrect?

A: If the key fails to unlock the door, the dispatcher can be notified to have NYCHA security unlock the door remotely.

B: Any unit that forces a NYCHA building entry door or elevator machinery room door shall notify NYCHA via the dispatcher that the door has been forced, unless the door is able to be secured.

C: If the Key FOB or elevator machinery room key is lost or damaged, the officer on duty shall call the 24-hour NYCHA emergency number to obtain new keys.

D: A FS-112 (lost property report) is not required for lost or damaged key FOBS or elevator keys.

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. Any unit that forces a NYCHA building entry door or elevator machinery room door shall notify NYCHA via the dispatcher that the door has been forced, EVEN IF the door is able to be secured.

IN THIS CASE, THE UNIT MUST ALSO FORWARD A LETTERHEAD REPORT THROUGH THE CHAIN OF COMMAND TO THE CHIEF OF OPERATIONS WITH FULL PARTICULARS

TB Tools 41 1.3, 3.2, 3.3, 3.4 Note

31
Q

Question 31:
The study of fire dynamics should be a part of the curriculum of every major Fire Department. Of the following choices, which is correct?

A: A combustible liquid is a liquid that has a flash point below 100’F while a flammable liquid is a liquid that has a flash point equal to or greater than 100’F.

B: A flammable liquid is a liquid that has a flash point below 100’F while a combustible liquid is a liquid that has a flash point equal to or greater than 100’F.

C: A combustible liquid is a liquid that has a flash point below 200’F while a flammable liquid is a liquid that has a flash point equal to or greater than 200’F.

D: A flammable liquid is a liquid that has a flash point below 100’F while a combustible liquid is a liquid that has a flash point equal to or greater than 200’F.

A

Answer: B

Explanation:
TB FD 6

32
Q

Question 32:
At a structural collapse operation, certain tools are required to be used under specific conditions. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: Jackhammers, concrete cutting saws and torches are required for Class 1 buildings.

B: Chainsaws are appropriate at most buildings with wooden floors and roofs.

C: Heavy demolition equipment (cranes, bulldozers, etc.) are required during the Selected Debris Removal stage.

D: Tools that produce no exhaust fumes, such as battery or electrically powered tools, are preferable to gasoline driven units.

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Heavy demolition equipment (cranes, bulldozers, etc.) ARE FORBIDDEN during the Selected Debris Removal stage.
D Note: Besides emitting no fumes, electric tools are easier to put down and pick up again without the hassle of having to shut them off and restart them; moreover, they lack the noise of a gas engine.
Collapse 11.13.2, 11.13.4

33
Q

Question 33:
The most correct procedure when sending out a member’s contaminated “gear bag” caused by a bloodborne pathogen can be found in which choice?

A: Member’s gear bag should be placed in a single red bag, tied or taped closed

B: Member’s gear bag should be placed in double red bags, tied or taped closed

C: Member’s gear bag should be placed in a single clear bag, tied or taped closed

D: Member’s gear bag should be placed in double clear bags, tied or taped closed

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
The gear bag should be placed in double (two) clear bags, tied or taped closed
An EDR-1 shall be completed and placed in between the two bags, facing outward, for identification purposes. Bagged items shall be left, if possible, in a light-traffic area adjacent to HW for pickup by the DSU
AUC 310 add 4 sec 2

34
Q

Question 34:
Lieutenant Casey is working in Ladder 400 when Firefighter Jones knocks on the door and informs her that his PSS is damaged and needs to placed out of service. Lieutenant Casey took the following actions but was incorrect in which one?

A: Made an immediate phone notification to the administrative Battalion and requested a replacement PSS.

B: Directed Firefighter Jones to use the spare PSS from the PSS repacking kit while awaiting his replacement PSS.

C: Informed Firefighter Jones that if a response was received while he was not equipped with a PSS, he may still respond with Ladder 400.

D: Completed an Out of Service Life Safety Equipment Report (SCF-2) and forwarded it through the chain of command to the Chief of Safety.

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. Immediate phone notification to the ADMINISTRATIVE DIVISION and requested a replacement PSS.

NOTE “C”: THIS MEMBER WILL STILL RESPOND WITH THEIR UNIT. HOWEVER, THE MEMBER WILL NOT BE COUNTED TOWARDS THAT UNIT’S STAFFING AS IT RELATES TO THE PROVISIONS OF AUC 287, SECTION 8 (REDUCED STAFFED/UNDERSTAFFED UNIT).

AT AN INCIDENT WHERE THE MEMBERS WILL BE OPERATING IN AN IDLH AREA, THE MEMBERS NOT EQUIPPED WITH A PSS SHALL NOT ENTER/OPERATE IN THAT AREA.

TB Rope 4 6.1, 6.2, 6.9, 6.15

35
Q

Question 35:
The 2nd arriving Engine Company Officer should, at a fire in a high rise office building, follow all of the procedures below except in which choice?

A: Support the 1st Engine Company operation by assisting in the stretch, ensuring sufficient lengths of hose are available for advance into the fire area, facilitating a smooth advance onto the fire floor and into the fire area, and ensuring proper water pressure.

B: Advise the IC when members of their unit are assisting the 1st Engine advance into the IDLH.

C: Inform the IC when and where additional assistance is required on the first hoseline (e.g., in the stairway, on the floor below, on the fire floor hallway).

D: Ensure proper HT communications exist between the standpipe outlet and the first arriving Engine nozzle team by monitoring HT communications. If there are water problems affecting the operation of the first hoseline, the 2nd Engine Officer shall leave the vicinity of the outlet and proceed immediately to the location of the 1st Engine Officer to assist in identifying the problem.

A

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) If there are water problems affecting the operation of the first hoseline, the second Engine Officer MAY need to REMAIN AT OR NEAR THE OUTLET until the water supply problems have been resolved.
B Note: The IC would then be aware of the resources required for relief.
HROB 9.4.1 E, F

36
Q

Question 36:
For a fire in a fireproof loft (residential use), each of the following choices should be followed with the exception of which incorrect choice?

A: When the standpipe system is used in a Residential Loft building, the initial hoselines may have a lead length of 2” lightweight hose (with a 1” tip).

B: When using the standpipe system for large fires in large, uncompartmented areas in any Loft building, a lead length of 2 ½” lightweight hose should be used.

C: If hoselines are stretched from the apparatus in a building equipped with a standpipe, the use of 2 ½” hose required.

D: Large fire areas both above and below grade will require the coordinated operation of two hoselines. All hoseline commitment and coordination must be communicated to the Incident Commander/Sector Supervisor.

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) If hoselines are stretched from the apparatus in a building equipped with a standpipe, the use of 2 ½” hose is NOT mandated. The size of the hoseline stretched (1 ¾ or 2 ½) will be based on the occupancy / conditions encountered.
Lofts 6.3.1 A

37
Q

Question 37:
When an understaffed unit (any unit with less than 4 FFs) is the only unit on scene, they shall take a defensive position. A defensive position includes all of the following except?

A: Conducting a quick search for a suspected life hazard as long as a safety team is in place (2 in/2 out)

B: Stretching a hoseline outside the IDLH area

C: Providing medical treatment to victims

D: Positioning and raising a Tower Ladder, Aerial Ladder, Portable Ladder

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
When an understaffed unit is the only unit on scene, they shall take a defensive position. However; if a KNOWN life hazard is discovered and immediate action could prevent the loss of life, appropriate action (rescue activity) may be taken by an individual member. This applies only for a known life hazard, not for standard search and rescue activity.
Defensive Positions:
- Checking the hydrant
- Hooking up to hydrant
- Charging the pumps
- Stretching a hoseline outside the IDLH area
- Providing medical treatment to victims
- Positioning and raising a Tower Ladder, Aerial Ladder, Portable Ladder
- Conducting a size-up
- Transmitting the appropriate radio signals
AUC 287 sec 8.3.1 and 8.3.6

38
Q

Question 38:
Which gas valve(s) mentioned below can only be shut down by FDNY members in consultation with the utility company?

A: Curb Valve only

B: Curb Valve & Main Valve

C: Head of Service Valve & Curb Valve

D: Main Valve only

A

Answer: A

Explanation:
NO MENTION OF CONSULTING WITH UTILITY FOR HEAD OF SERVICE VALVE

  • FDNY MEMBERS ARE NOT PERMITTED TO SHUT THE MAIN VALVE*
  • THE CURB VALVE CAN BE SHUT BY FDNY MEMBERS AS A LAST RESORT AND IN CONSULTATION WITH THE UTILITY COMPANY*

Natural Gas 6.7.3 #5, #6, #7

39
Q

Question 39:
When operating at a fire in a nonfireproof multiple dwelling, such as an Old Law Tenement, all of the following would be correct concerning the first arriving Ladder Company except?

A: When there is only a rear fire escape (railroad apartments), the OV and Roof Firefighter (or another available member) shall team up and enter the fire apartment from that fire escape.

B: When the fire apartment is in the rear, the OV and Roof Firefighter (or another available member) shall team up and enter the fire apartment from the rear fire escape.

C: When there is a front fire escape and the fire apartment is in the rear, the OV and Chauffeur (or another available member) shall team up and enter the fire apartment from the front fire escape.

D: When there is a front fire escape and the fire apartment is in the front, the OV and Chauffeur (or another available member) shall team up and enter the fire apartment from the front fire escape.

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
Lad 3 3.2.5

40
Q

Question 40:
Members of Ladder 100, located in Queens, were drilling on tactics and procedures at private dwelling fires. They also discussed common features of private dwellings. In which choice below was an incorrect comment made?

A: Members shall not use porch and garage roofs constructed of aluminum or similar lightweight materials to conduct operations.

B: The installation of window bars, which can be found covering windows on all levels, has become increasingly prevalent in residential occupancies throughout the city.

C: Windows with sills that are approximately chest high may require a drop of 2-3 feet to floor level. This presents a serious problem if fire conditions force members to exit via this window.

D: Modern three family MDs are often built with three separate entrances that have no common area. These structures require private dwelling tactics due to their PD style design.

A

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Windows with sills that are approximately chest high may require a drop of 5-6 FEET to floor level. This presents a serious problem if fire conditions force members to exit via this window.
B Note: Window Bars vary from aluminum child guards to heavy wrought iron and the method of installation and type of structure (brick, wood, etc.) determines how difficult removal will be.
C Note: Immediately upon entering, consider placing a dresser, chair or another piece of furniture below this window to assist in egress.
PD Ch 2 2.4, 2.7