UPDATES PKG EXAM #1

Question 1

Question 1:
This package will cover all the updates since the last lieutenants exam. As you know, updates are highly testable. Good luck. Question 1… Of the following choices, which contains correct information regarding NYCs electric service system?

A: An electric manhole can contain primary cables, secondary cables or both. When both are present, primary cable will be mounted on the wall near the top of the manhole while secondary cable will be mounted on the wall near the bottom of the manhole.

B: Underground secondary cable is covered in orange wrapping called “Arc Proofing” which acts as a fire retardant. Older types of arc proofing can be Asbestos Containing Material.

C: Almost all manhole fires involve the secondary cable network. Primary cables have more substantial insulation which make them less vulnerable to breakdown and they have breakers which generally trip in the event of any type of fault occurring.

D: Transformers are most commonly found in large, circular-shaped underground vaults under the street or sidewalk. Transformers must be vented, so they typically have grated covers.

Answer 1

Answer: C

Explanation:
A) An electric manhole can contain primary cables, secondary cables or both. When both are present, SECONDARY cable will be mounted on the wall near the top of the manhole while PRIMARY cable will be mounted on the wall near the bottom of the manhole.
B) Underground PRIMARY cable is covered in WHITE wrapping called “Arc Proofing” which acts as a fire retardant. Older types of arc proofing can be Asbestos Containing Material.
D) Transformers are most commonly found in large, RECTANGULAR-shaped underground vaults under the street or sidewalk. Transformers must be vented, so they typically have grated covers.
AUC 180 2.1.2, 2.3.1, 3.4.2, 3.4.5

Question 2

Question 2:
There are a number of decisions the nozzle firefighter is empowered to make while operating a hose line. Which one listed is incorrect?

A: Fully closing the nozzle to reduce nozzle reaction and regain control.

B: Opening the nozzle in an emergency.

C: Communicating the need to be relieved on the nozzle.

D: Direction of the stream.

Answer 2

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. PARTIALLY closing the nozzle to reduce nozzle reaction and regain control.

“DECCALS”

Direction of the stream
Emergency opening of the nozzle
Closing nozzle partially to reduce nozzle reaction and regain control
Communicating the need to be relieved on the nozzle
Advancement rate
Line-calling for more
Sweeping the floor

Engine Ops Ch 6 2.7.1

Question 3

Question 3:
Places of Worship have some unique architectural features and when coupled with the large amount of wood used in their construction can result in early collapse as fire weakens the structure. Which statement correctly describes collapse situations during a fire?

A: Older Places of Worship are more susceptible to early collapse than newer ones

B: Exposure 2 and 4 walls are the only sides of the building that are in danger of collapsing due to the high sloping pitch of the roof

C: Newer Places of Worship are more susceptible to early collapse than older ones due to lightweight construction materials being used

D: A steeple atop a bell tower is more unstable than a dome above a tower

Answer 3

Answer: D

Explanation:
Places of Worship (August 2019)
** This section is referring to collapse considerations during a fire.
A steeple atop a bell tower is MORE UNSTABLE than a dome above a tower….sec 4.2
A- Both older and newer Places of Worship are susceptible to early collapse…sec 4.3 (in Bold)
B- Exposures 1,2, and 4…..sec 4.7
C- Both older and newer Places of Worship are susceptible to early collapse….sec 4.3 (in Bold)

Question 4

Question 4:
Of the following choices, which is a correct “flagging column” entry in the company journal?

A: “AFID” to indicated a Building Inspection Safety Program-related activity.

B: “SCBA” to indicate Mask Inspection.

C: “COLL” to indicate an apparatus collision.

D: “CHR” to indicate a member receiving Charges.

Answer 4

Answer: C

Explanation:
A) “BISP” to indicated a Building Inspection Safety Program-related activity.
B) “MSK” to indicate Mask Inspection.
D) “DSP” to indicate a member receiving Charges.
CJ 5

Question 5

Question 5:
Members must take certain precautions when operating at compressed natural gas (CNG) powered vehicle fires. Which one listed is incorrect?

A: It may take 10-15 minutes for the high-pressure release to subside and up to 30 minutes to fully discharge, depending on the size of the tanks involved.

B: Do not apply water to CNG cylinders exposed to fire because this may cool the pressure relief device (PRD) resulting in it not activating.

C: If the CNG cylinders are not involved in the fire, proceed with normal extinguishment tactics.

D: Establish a minimum safe perimeter of 50-ft around the vehicle.

Answer 5

Answer: D

Explanation:
D. Establish a minimum safe perimeter of 100-FT around the vehicle.

Haz Mat 1 4.5.2 C

Question 6

Question 6:
Handie-Talkie recordings of actual incidents are frequently used for drill purposes. Which of the following choices regarding the procedure of requesting such recordings is incorrect?

A: Company Officers can request a recording of handie-talkie transmissions on the Primary and Secondary Tactical channels.

B: It would be unusual for an Officer to request recordings for an incident at which that Officer’s unit did not operate. Any such request will be considered by the Bureau of Operations but will be granted only if there are valid reasons justifying such request.

C: Recordings are the property of the Department and are only to be used for Department business. They shall be kept in a designated secure location in the company office when not in use.

D: Officers or units requesting handie-talkie audio must fax a request form to the Handie-talkie Recording Unit.

Answer 6

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) Officers or units requesting handie-talkie audio must send an EMAIL from an FDNY address to HT_Recorderunit@fdny.nyc.gov.
Notes:
Included in the email shall be:
The Date and Time of the Incident.
The Borough and Box number associated with the Incident.
The First Due Battalion which responded to the Incident.
The rank, name and assigned unit of the member requesting the audio.
The reason for the request e.g. Drill, Legal, Post Incident Review, etc.
Comm 9 Add 1 7.1-7.3, 7.7

Question 7

Question 7:
Which of the following operations is the only one suitable for use of the telescoping ladder?

A: Used to remove occupants from a stalled elevator stuck between floors of a building.

B: Used for laddering a fire building.

C: Used horizontally as a bridge or plank.

D: Secured at the top and hung vertically like a straight hook ladder.

Answer 7

Answer: A

Explanation:
DUE TO THE NATURE OF THE CONSTRUCTION OF TELESCOPING LADDERS, THEY MUST NOT BE USED FOR B, C & D.

NOTE A: The 10’ Folding and 12’ Telescoping ladders are particularly well suited for this application.

Portable Ladders 8.5.1, 11.4

Question 8

Question 8:
One of the newest terms the FDNY is now using in its procedures is “Air Entrainment.” The Air Entrainment that occurs from the operation of a water stream (either interior handline or exterior stream) has an effect on the flow path of the fire. When operating a handline, which procedure will provide the least amount of air entrainment?

A: When operating a handline, operate as far from the fire as possible whipping the line in a circular motion

B: When operating a handline, operate as close as possible to the fire whipping the line in a circular motion

C: When operating a handline, operate as far from the fire as possible and operate in a fixed position

D: When operating a handline, operate as close as possible to the fire and operate in a fixed position

Answer 8

Answer: D

Explanation:
The least amount of air entrainment occurs when the stream is short and operated in a fixed position
** Minimal air is entrained by the use of a properly executed exterior stream. A short, acute angled fixed stream (not whipping) aimed at the ceiling just inside of a window, will entrain the least amount of air. Operated correctly in this manner, the maximum amount of water will enter the room with the least amount of air and therefore without any pushing effect on the fire
Fire Dynamics add 2 sec 3 (May 2021)

Question 9

Question 9:
Which of the following is not a “single action”
key on the apparatus MDT?

A: 10-4 (Orange) ………….acknowledge assignment to an incident, relocation or returning from relocation.

B: 10-84 (Orange) ………..arrived on scene

C: 10-8 (Yellow) ………….available on the air

D: 10-20 (Yellow) ………..proceed with reduced speed and follow traffic rules

Answer 9

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) This is a “double action” key
The following keys are “double action” keys:
10-8 (Yellow) ………….available on the air
10-18 (Yellow) ………..release everybody except for the one engine and ladder designated, and the assigned battalion chief
10-19 (Yellow) ………..release everybody except for the one engine or ladder designated.
10-91 (Yellow) ………..Medical Emergency - Fire unit not required
10-92 (Yellow) ………..malicious false alarm
10- (Yellow) ……………blank ten code, allows member to enter any valid ten code (from 10-21 to 10-40 and 10-91)
Comm 2 11.1 A, B

Question 10

Question 10:
The officer of Ladder 100 is taking up from a highway box where members encountered a previously unreported hazardous separation in the roadway. On return to quarters, the officer should complete a letterhead report through the chain of command to whom?

A: Chief of Safety

B: Chief of Operations

C: Chief of Department

D: Commissioner

Answer 10

Answer: B

Explanation:
Report shall include: the roadway/bridge name, location of separation with approximate size and direction of travel, highway mileage marker where applicable.

Regulations Ch 11 11.5.2

Question 11

Question 11:
During company drill on proper procedures to be employed at manhole emergencies, one firefighter made an incorrect statement. Indicate the incorrect statement.

A: A safety area shall be cordoned off to vehicular and pedestrian traffic. This area should include one (1) non-affected manhole in each direction beyond those with activity.

B: Communication conduits entering buildings at points of entry are more likely to be packed (sealed) and less susceptible to smoke and CO migration.

C: Members should avoid de-energizing any electric components by opening switches (shutting power at the main) during an underground electrical fire.

D: When it becomes necessary to shut power at the main during a manhole fire, proceed with caution due to the possibility of explosion or shock. The member must wear linesman’s gloves (only carried by Rescue & Squad) and attach a rope or similar piece of equipment to the switch, so the switch can be operated remotely and not in front of, or near, the panel.

Answer 11

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) Communication conduits entering buildings at points of entry are LESS likely to be packed (sealed) and MORE susceptible to smoke and CO migration.
C Note: Even if lights are flickering, it is dangerous to shut power. CO has the potential to build up in the conduits leading from the burning manhole and migrate into the electrical panels within the building. It is possible for CO to be in its explosive range inside the panel, while the CO meter may read little or no CO nearby. When opening the breaker or switch an arc is created which can ignite the CO and cause an explosion of the electric panel.
AUC 180 4.3, 4.4.2, 4.5, 4.5.2

Question 12

Question 12:
Below is a description of several actions that occur when the emergency alert button (EAB) is pressed on the APX8000XE HT. Which one outlined is correct?

A: The transmit/receive light on top of the remote mic blinks amber.

B: The HT transmits two impolite and one polite alerts.

C: The emergency alert must be reset by depressing and holding the EAB until a reset tone is heard (approximately 1 second).

D: Turning the radio off and on will not reset the emergency alert on EFAS.

Answer 12

Answer: D

Explanation:
A. The transmit/receive light on top of the remote mic blinks RED. (NOTE: BLINKING AMBER MEANS THE RADIO IS RECEIVING A SECURED TRANSMISSION).

B. The HT transmits ONE impolite and TWO polite alerts.

C. The emergency alert must be reset by depressing and holding the EAB until a reset tone is heard (approximately 2 SECONDS).

NOTE THIS WAS UPDATED JUNE 2022 BUT JUST BE AWARE COMM CH 9 ADD 3 SEC 5.1.3 NOTE DOES STILL MENTION TURNING THE RADIO OFF AND BACK ON.

YOU NEED TO BE AWARE OF THIS UPDATED MATERIAL BUT ALSO TAKE NOTE OF THE SLIGHT CONFLICT.

THIS QUESTION IS STILL CORRECT AS WRITTEN FOR TEST DAY

Comm Ch 11 2.5B, 3.5.1.1

Question 13

Question 13:
The smoke encountered at most fires consists of a mixture of oxygen, nitrogen, carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, hydrogen cyanide, finely divided carbon particles (soot), and a miscellaneous assortment of products that have been released from the material involved. Two of the most toxic gases found in the smoke can be correctly found in which choice?

A: Carbon monoxide and hydrogen cyanide

B: Carbon monoxide and nitrogen

C: Carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide

D: Nitrogen and carbon dioxide

Answer 13

Answer: A

Explanation:
Two of the most toxic gases are Carbon monoxide and hydrogen cyanide, which are both chemical asphyxiants and are responsible for many fire deaths. These gases are highly toxic and pose a significant threat to human life
Fire Dynamics ch 2 sec 3.2 (in Bold) May 2021

Question 14

Question 14:
In addition to standpipe hose maintained in roll-ups and hose carried in hosebeds, additional hose is required to be carried on the engine apparatus as indicated in all choices below except?

A: At least 4 lengths of 1 ¾” hose shall be carried, rolled or arranged in a roll-up, for use as an additional length in a hose stretch. One of these 1 ¾” hose lengths should be maintained with a nozzle attached.

B: One length of 1 ¾” hose to be used as a “booster line” should be maintained with a 1 3/4” nozzle and 15/16 MST attached to one length.

C: The “booster line” should be maintained pre-connected to a discharge outlet. It may also be maintained pre-connected to a gated wye attached to a discharge outlet.

D: The “booster line” may be maintained either rolled or folded. Generally, it is stored on the front bumper of the apparatus.

Answer 14

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) TWO lengths of 1 ¾” hose to be used as a “booster line” should be maintained with a FOG nozzle attached to one length.
Note: The “booster line” is intended to be used on outside fires, such as rubbish fires or car fires. In an emergency, it can also be used to apply water from the exterior of the fire building.
Eng Ch 2 12.1

Question 15

Question 15:
The medical officer must be notified via FDOC for all injuries and biological exposures within what time period?

A: 7 days

B: 48 hours

C: 24 hours

D: 2 weeks

Answer 15

Answer: C

Explanation:
THIS WAS CHANGED TO 24 HOURS IN DECEMBER OF 2020

Safety Bulletin 1 2.1

Question 16

Question 16:
Two members of Engine 2, located in Midtown, Manhattan, were discussing their unit’s equipment for standpipe operations. In which choice were they incorrect?

A: 1 length of 2” lightweight hose (green with a red stripe), maintained as a roll-up and kept with the 2” nozzle and 1” MST attached, is required to be carried on all engine apparatus.

B: 3 lengths of 2 ½” lightweight hose (white with a red stripe) maintained as roll-ups is required to be carried on all engine apparatus. One of these lengths must be kept with the 2 ½” nozzle and 1” MST attached.

C: For companies staffed with 5 firefighters, 1 additional length of 2 ½” lightweight hose must be carried, maintained as a roll-up.

D: Hose for standpipe use may be carried on the side board of the apparatus, and is secured using straps and buckles. This hose may also be carried inside apparatus compartments.

Answer 16

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) 3 lengths of 2 ½” lightweight hose (white with a red stripe) maintained as roll-ups is required to be carried on all engine apparatus. One of these lengths must be kept with the 2 ½” nozzle and 1 1/8” MST attached.
Eng Ch 2 9.2, 9.3

Question 17

Question 17:
Engine 199 arrives on scene of a reported fire on the cellar of an old law tenement. There is an exterior entrance to the cellar in the front of the building. On arrival, they encounter a heavy fire condition in the cellar. The on-duty Lieutenant should know that which provision regarding the placement of the first hose line is correct?

A: The first hose line must be stretched through the front door and remain on the first floor to protect the interior stairs.

B: The first line must be stretched through the front door and down to the cellar via the interior stairs to extinguish the fire.

C: The first line must be stretched to the exterior cellar entrance to extinguish the fire.

D: The first line should be stretched to the exterior cellar entrance if it provides the quickest access to the cellar to extinguish the fire.

Answer 17

Answer: D

Explanation:
THERE WERE SIGNIFICANT CHANGES TO THIS SECTION WITH THE ISSUANCE OF MDS IN MARCH 2022.

MD CH 1 3.2

Question 18

Question 18:
Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding the “GAL Drop Key”?

A: It is a hand tool characterized by a hinged working end and is used to open SLIDING TYPE elevator hoistway doors.

B: The correct sized key that fits into the keyway should be used. However, the smaller key can be used in the larger keyway and the larger key can be used in smaller keyways with some effort.

C: Insert the tool until the hinged section(s) drop behind the hoistway door, turn the tool away from the leading edge of the hoistway door until resistance is met and apply pressure against the resistance to disengage the hoistway door lock. Open the hoistway door by pushing it away from its leading edge.

D: On elevators equipped for use of the GAL Drop Key, attempt to open the hoistway door by use of the key before resorting to forcible entry.

Answer 18

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) The correct sized key that fits into the keyway should be used. The smaller key CAN be used in larger keyway but the larger key CANNOT be used in smaller keyways.
Emerg 1 Add 6

Question 19

Question 19:
In which one of the following occupancies is a 2 1/2 inch hose always required?

A: High-rise multiple dwelling

B: Class 2 high-rise multiple dwelling

C: Loft Building

D: High-Rise Office Building

Answer 19

Answer: D

Explanation:
A, B, & C when hand stretching off the pumper and as conditions permit 1 ¾ hose is an option. This is all guided by engine ops Ch 4 which states 1 ¾ would be inappropriate for:

“SALAD”

STANDPIPE
ADVANCED FIRE
LARGE UNCOMPARMENTED AREA
AREA (FIRE) SIZE AND EXTENT UNKNOWN
DEFENSIVE (PURELY)

A HIGH-RISE OFFICE BUILDING IS CONSIDERED LARGE AND UNCOMPARTMENTED AND THUS ALWAYS REQUIRES 2 1/2.

MD Ch 2 8.7.1, Ch 4 7.3, Loft 6.1.1, High Rise Office 9.3.1 H

Question 20

Question 20:
Engine Officers should maintain familiarity with the Pro Pressure Governor (PPG) and standards for use by the Engine Chauffeur. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: If the PPG is malfunctioning on an apparatus, the Fleet Maintenance Division must be notified. If the unit receives a structural response before the PPG is repaired, the on-scene IC must be notified that the PPG is not operating correctly.

B: In the PSI mode, the PPG will automatically maintain the discharge pressure set in the LED display. This is the setting used by all apparatus in the FDNY.

C: In the RPM mode, the PPG will maintain engine RPMs set in the LED display. In this mode, it will not automatically compensate for any changes in discharge pressure and for this reason, apparatus in the FDNY do not normally use the RPM mode.

D: The RPM mode is used only if the PSI mode malfunctions or to initially gain a water supply in a drafting evolution.

Answer 20

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) If the PPG is malfunctioning on an apparatus, the apparatus must be placed OUT-OF-SERVICE and the Fleet Maintenance Division notified.
Eng Ch 2 Add 1 1.5, 2.1.1, 2.1.2

Question 21

Question 21:
What is the maximum number of times the kernmantle life-saving training rope may be used?

A: 100

B: 200

C: 300

D: 400

Answer 21

Answer: B

Explanation:
LSR TRAING ROPE SAYS 100 PER END FOR TOTAL OF 200.

KSLR TRAINING ROPE ONLY SAYS 200

Rope 10 Data Sheet 2 4.3

Question 22

Question 22:
Which button on the MDT can retrieve the combination to a unit’s quarters?

A: “UNIT STATUS”

B: “INCIDENT SUMMARY”

C: “INCIDENT HISTORY”

D: “COMBINATION”

Answer 22

Answer: A

Explanation:
D - no such button exists
UNIT STATUS: Permits the current status of any unit to be displayed on the screen. The combination to that unit’s quarters will also be displayed.
INCIDENT SUMMARY: Provides current information on incident that includes: Information transmitted, addresses, locations, CIDS information, list of units, etc.
INCIDENT HISTORY: Provides complete particulars of incident, (Note: printer needed to receive information)
SEND: Transmits information on the display screen to Starfire.
Comm 2 11.1 C

Question 23

Question 23:
The correct position of the first arriving Tower Ladder during a fire in a Place of Worship can be found in which choice?

A: Directly in front (outside the collapse zone) to be able to operate into the Rose Window

B: On exposure 2 or 4 side (outside the collapse zone) to be able to operate in the side windows

C: On the exposure 3 side (outside the collapse zone)

D: Near the front in a corner safe area (outside the collapse zone)

Answer 23

Answer: D

Explanation:
Places of Worship (August 2019)
Subsequent arriving TLs should be positioned to reach additional sides of the structure …sec 5.2.4 and 5.2.5

Question 24

Question 24:
The Tower Ladder is provided with an intercom system that allows for bucket to pedestal communications. This should be the _______ means of communication between the bucket and the pedestal. The test of the intercom should be made ______ and at the initial stages of placing the Tower Ladder into operation.

A: primary; daily

B: primary; each tour

C: secondary; daily

D: secondary; each tour

Answer 24

Answer: B

Explanation:
THE INSPECTION FREQUENCY WAS CHANGED WHEN THE NEW TL BULLETIN WAS RELEASED IN 2019

Tower Ladder Ch 1 1.5

Question 25

Question 25:
Proper rehabilitation after a fire operation is essential to member safety. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: If a unit is assigned to Rehabilitation, only members showing symptoms of CO exposure must take part in medical monitoring.

B: Special Units, Squads, Rescues and Haz-Mat Ops Units shall be given priority for medical monitoring when the Unit’s release is pending completion of the monitoring activities.

C: Units that do not complete the rehabilitation/monitoring protocol shall be re-assigned to the incident by the IC for Rehabilitation purposes and not released until completion.

D: Following release from the scene, Fire units shall be directed to return to quarters to shower and change into clean station uniforms.

Answer 25

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) If a unit is assigned to Rehabilitation, then ALL members from that unit must take part in medical monitoring.
AUC 230 7.11, 7.14, 7.15, 7.16

Question 26

Question 26:
Members of Ladder 199 are at education day discussing a few recent operations where members were nearly injured as a result of either backdrafts or smoke explosions. The instructor is explaining each phenomenon but only makes which one correct statement?

A: Generally, backdrafts occur in proximity to the main body of fire and require a sudden change in ventilation.

B: Generally, backdrafts occur remote from the fire area and no additional ventilation is needed.

C: Generally, smoke explosions occur in proximity to the main body of fire and no additional ventilation is needed.

D: Generally, smoke explosion occur remote from the fire area and require a sudden change in ventilation.

Answer 26

Answer: A

Explanation:
GENERALLY, BACKDRAFTS ARE IN PROXIMITY TO MAIN BODY OF FIRE AND REQUIRES A SUDDEN CHANGE IN VENTILATION.

GENERALLY, SMOKE EXPLOSIONS OCCUR REMOTE FROM THE FIRE AREA AND NO ADDITIONAL VENTILATION IS NEEDED.

Ventilation Glossary

Question 27

Question 27:
In addition to placing vacant building markings at the site, company officers from the administrative unit shall take the following actions in order to share information and initiate appropriate follow-up referrals. Which one action is incorrect?

A: Ensure all vacant buildings in their administrative area are entered into the eCIDS program.

B: When appropriate, forward a Department of Buildings (DOB) Referral Report-Normal Priority to DOB citing “Building Vacant, Open and Unguarded.”

C: When appropriate, forward a Department of Buildings (DOB) Referral Report-Normal Priority to DOB citing “Structural Stability Affected” if there are structural integrity issues, noting specific building conditions.

D: Forward a memo to all units and administrative Battalion and Division within the first-alarm area, conveying relevant information.

Answer 27

Answer: C

Explanation:
C. When appropriate, forward a Department of Buildings (DOB) Referral Report-HIGH PRIORITY to DOB citing “Structural Stability Affected” if there are structural integrity issues, noting specific building conditions.

Vacant 3.1

Question 28

Question 28:
During an Engine Company drill on relay operations, one member made an incorrect statement. Which statement made was incorrect?

A: A concern at a relay operation is ensuring the activation of the operating pumper’s PPG. This can be a problem because the operating pumper is receiving water from the supply pumper at a pressure greater than hydrant pressure.

B: The operating pumper is receiving the discharge pressure of the supply pumper (hydrant pressure plus the idle pressure of the supply pumper.) This number will be roughly 110 psi higher than regular hydrant pressure.

C: Since the operating pumper’s PPG will only effectively engage if the setting on the PPG is higher than their actual pump pressure, the PPG will not activate at their normal Preset value.

D: The ECC of the operating pumper must set their PPG to match the “Master Pressure Gauge” of the apparatus. This will be equal to the idle pressure of the operating pumper, plus the pressure supplied by the supply pumper.

Answer 28

Answer: B

Explanation:
The operating pumper is receiving the discharge pressure of the supply pumper (hydrant pressure plus the idle pressure of the supply pumper.) This number will be roughly 55 PSI higher than regular hydrant pressure.
B Note: Based on local hydrant pressure, this number can range from 95 psi to 155 psi.
C Note: To minimize the difference in supply pressures, the ECC of the supply pumper should supply water at their preset value (which is their idle pressure, plus hydrant pressure).
D Note: Based on local hydrant pressure, this number will range from 150 psi to 210.
Eng Ch 2 Add 1 4.2-4.4

Question 29

Question 29:
Your unit responds to a stuck elevator in a high rise multiple dwelling. Your members remove two teenagers from the elevator and both refuse medical attention. You would be most correct to transmit which code?

A: 10-31

B: 10-29 no Code

C: 10-29 Code 1

D: 10-29 Code 2

Answer 29

Answer: C

Explanation:
10-29 Code 1: Occupied Elevator
10-29 Code 2: Unoccupied Elevator
Comm 8 8.5

Question 30

Question 30:
A Manhattan Ladder company is the first unit on-scene at an unoccupied swinging suspended scaffold. Which one SOP for these incidents is stated incorrectly?

A: If any roof rigging is suspect, attempt to secure with utility rope.

B: Secure the scaffold with utility ropes or other equipment to prevent movement.

C: All operations shall be conducted from within the building or from the roof level.

D: Members shall only go out onto an unoccupied scaffold if it’s necessary to secure it properly

Answer 30

Answer: D

Explanation:
D. AT NO TIME SHALL ANY MEMBER go out onto an unoccupied.

Scaffolds 4.1, 4.2, 4.3

Question 31

Question 31:
What is the correct code to transmit if your unit operated at a “Downed Tree Incident/Emergency”?

A: 10-41

B: 10-42

C: 10-43

D: 10-46

Answer 31

Answer: B

Explanation:
Provide a description to the dispatcher and if the Parks Department or electric utility is required.
Comm 8 8.5

Question 32

Question 32:
Which of the following choices represents the correct way(s) to monitor the remaining air in the cylinder of the FAST Pak?

A: Cylinder gauge only

B: Cylinder gauge, remote gauge and low air whistle

C: Remote gauge and low air whistle only

D: Cylinder gauge and remote gauge only

Answer 32

Answer: B

Explanation:
THE REMOTE GAUGE AND LOW AIR WHISTLE ARE NEW FEATURES OF THE NEW FAST PAK. THERE ARE NOW THREE WAYS TO MONITOR THE REMAINING AIR.

TB SCBA Addendum 1 8.3

Question 33

Question 33:
All officers should be familiar with the basic details of the ”10-75” signal. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: This code can be transmitted for a fire.

B: This code shall not be transmitted for an emergency.

C: If a building is involved, the Officer transmitting the 10-75 shall state the location of fire (floor), height of the building in stories and the type of building.

D: A 10-75 transmitted for incidents below grade in facilities other than buildings (e.g. subway, tunnels, terminals, etc.) shall include the Rescue Battalion, Rebreather Unit 1 and a Communications Unit.

Answer 33

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) This code CAN be transmitted for an emergency.
Note: Choice D is an update to this signal…be aware.
Comm 8 8.5

Question 34

Question 34:
Several features of the combination metal/concrete diamond blade for the portable power saw are mentioned below. Which one is correct?

A: It can be used for both wet and dry cutting.

B: The blade cannot cut wood.

C: If the blade becomes glazed over and cuts ineffectively, it must be placed out-of-service.

D: The blade will cut many metal objects with the exception of case hardened locks.

Answer 34

Answer: A

Explanation:
B. The blade CAN cut wood; HOWEVER, THIS IS NOT RECOMMENDED.

C. If the blade becomes glazed over and cut ineffectively, it CAN BE CLEANED BY RUNNING THE BLADE THROUGH AN ABRASIVE MATERIAL SUCH AS CONCRETE.

D. The blade will cut many metal objects. IT HAS PROVEN TO CUT CASE HARDENED LOCKS.

TB Tools 9 Appendix 1 2.3.6, 2.3.8, 2.3.16

Question 35

Question 35:
Units receiving a Verbal Alarm while in quarters must take all of the following actions except?

A: Notify the dispatcher as soon as possible via telephone, voice alarm or the apparatus radio.

B: Notify the dispatcher of the nature and location of the incident.

C: Notify the dispatcher if additional assistance is required.

D: Ensure the “Verbal” Button on the housewatch computer is hit.

Answer 35

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) We no longer use this button.
Comm 2 2.2.4

Question 36

Question 36:
In high-rise office buildings natural vertical ventilation is influenced by the stack effect. Which one choice below is incorrect as it pertains to the stack effect?

A: Its effect increases as the building’s height increases.

B: Wind will never overpower the stack effect.

C: Negative stack effect is the downward movement of air in a vertical shaft.

D: Positive stack effect increases as the outside air temperature decreases in relation to the temperature inside the building.

Answer 36

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. Wind MAY overpower the stack effect.

THIS SECTION WAS REWORDED N MAY 2022

High Rise Office 6.3.8D

Question 37

Question 37:
Newly promoted Lieutenant Smith spent 12 years in a company that responded to the Buckeye Pipeline several times in the past. During company drill on pipeline features he made several comments, one of which was incorrect. Which comment about the Buckeye Pipeline was incorrect?

A: The Buckeye Pipeline consists of two, 12” steel pipes which are identified by the Buckeye Pipeline Company as the 601 Line, which carries kerosene base aviation fuel, and the 602 Line, which can carry several different types of fuels.

B: The pipeline operates at 1,200 psig from Linden, New Jersey. The maximum service pressure on the terminal piping and the delivery lines to shippers from the Long Island City terminal is 200 psig.

C: During pumping operations, pressures around 300 psig should be expected.

D: The route of the Buckeye pipeline is marked by orange PVC poles with white tops. The white section provides members with vital information such as the identity of the pipeline owner, the product carried in the pipeline and an emergency contact phone number.

Answer 37

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) The route of the Buckeye pipeline is marked by WHITE PVC poles with ORANGE tops. The ORANGE section provides members with vital information such as the identity of the pipeline owner, the product carried in the pipeline and an emergency contact phone number.
B Note: The 602 Line can carry several different types of fuels (multiple grades of gasoline, diesel fuel, #2 home heating oil, etc.).
D Note: These markers only provide an “approximate” location of the pipeline.
AUC 149 1.1, 1.3, 1.5

Question 38

Question 38:
At a sub-cellar fire in a mill loft building, which engine company is responsible to ensure a supply line is stretched and connected to the FDC when the fire area or potential fire area is protected by a sprinkler system?

A: 1st

B: 2nd

C: 3rd

D: 4th

Answer 38

Answer: C

Explanation:
CHANGED IN MAY OF 2022

Lofts 6.2.1 D

Question 39

Question 39:
Which eCIDS “FD Designation” is incorrectly described below?

A: A building with a Bowstring Truss roof is indicated by “BWSTRG.”

B: “MJALT” should be utilized for existing structures which have extensive alterations that involve horizontal extensions, vertical extensions, or extensive changes to the structure changing its occupancy or purpose (Church is repurposed as a restaurant).

C: “REHAB” should be utilized for existing structures which have extensive repairs or renovations that do not involve any horizontal extension, vertical extension, or extensive changes to the structure changing its occupancy or purpose.

D: “MEGA” indicates any building over 600’.

Answer 39

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) Mega High-Rise (MEGA) is any building over 800’
Also be aware of CFR Hold (CFRH)
Comm 4 4.3.1

Question 40

Question 40:
Engine company members are at MUD drilling on the well hole stretch. They make the following points during the drill but were only correct in which one?

A: The nozzle firefighter should determine the point at which the hose will be pulled out of the well and flaked out for fire attack.

B: In larger buildings, it may be possible to pull the hose out of the well hole and secure it on the fire floor, if the stairs are sufficiently remote from the fire apartment to allow members to flake out the required lengths and secure the hose.

C: Before the hose is secured, the nozzle firefighter must confirm that enough hose is available on the fire floor to reach the fire area.

D: In order for the well hole to be used, it must be large enough to accommodate the hose; if you can fit your ungloved fist inside a well hole, it should be large enough to execute a well hole stretch.

Answer 40

Answer: B

Explanation:
A. The ENGINE OFFICER should determine the point at which the hose will be pulled out of the well and flaked out for fire attack.

C. Before the hose is secured, the ENGINE OFFICER must confirm that enough hose is available on the fire floor to reach the fire area.

D. In order for the well hole to be used, it must be large enough to accommodate the hose; if you can fit your GLOVED fist inside a well hole, it should be large enough to execute a well hole stretch.

Engine Ops Ch 7 5.2, 5.5, 5.6