LT PKG EXAM #21

Question 1

Question 1:
Engine Companies have a variety of tools that help members complete their assigned mission on the fireground. Which description below is incorrect?

A: The analog in-line pressure gauge is used to monitor pressure and flow being delivered from the standpipe outlet.

B: The foam nozzle can be identified by white markings on the tip, handle, and pistol grip. When supplied with 200 psi, it has a flow of 125 GPM.

C: The multiversal has two 3” inlets. The maximum pressure to be supplied to the appliance base is 200 psi.

D: The Bresnan distributor is supplied with a 2 ½” hose. A shut-off should be placed one length from the distributor.

Answer 1

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) The analog in-line pressure gauge is used to monitor PRESSURE being delivered from the standpipe outlet. Like the digital in-line gauge, it does not regulate water flow; it simply monitors the pressure of the water supplied. Unlike the digital in-line gauge, the analog gauge DOES NOT measure water FLOW.
D Note: To properly use the Bresnan distributor, it should be lowered into the fire area via an opening and the shut-off should be opened to begin water flow. The distributor is lowered until it hits the floor, then raised several feet to position for optimal distribution.
Eng Ch 3 6.2.1, 7.2, 7.3, 8.3, 10.4, 10.5

Question 2

Question 2:
In the event of a Radiological incident involving the release or use of radioactive iodine, the FDNY has a written policy on taking a Potassium Iodide (KI) tablet in order to protect the thyroid gland from absorbing radioactive iodine. Members shall only take KI tablets when directed by whom?

A: Company Officer

B: Battalion Chief

C: Deputy Chief

D: Chief of Department

Answer 2

Answer: D

Explanation:
Stored in the glovebox on all apparatus.
One tablet is taken soon after exposure if possible
ERP add 4C

Question 3

Question 3:
Which of the following elements is not part of the fire triangle?

A: Heat

B: Fuel

C: Oxygen

D: Uninhibited chemical chain reaction

Answer 3

Answer: D

Explanation:
THE UNINHIBITED CHEMICAL CHAIN REACTION IS THE FOURTH ELEMENT OF THE “FIRE TETRAHEDRON”

TB Fire Dynamics Ch 1 2.4.1 & 2.4.2

Question 4

Question 4:
A fire is spreading rapidly through a block or Rowframe buildings. You are assigned to stretch a line to the fourth building to the right of the original fire building. According to exposure sectoring, which choice represents the CORRECT positioning of your line?

A: 04B

B: 2D

C: 4C

D: 04C

Answer 4

Answer: C

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL CHAPTER 10 – ADDENDUM 2 – EXPOSURE SECTORING
C IS CORRECT – Fourth building to the right of the fire building is exposure 4C – CH-10 6.3

Question 5

Question 5:
Ventilation at nonfireproof multiple dwelling fires must be carefully conducted. Which of the following choices is not in accordance with Department directives?

A: Windows directly exposed to fire across shafts or directly over the fire should not be opened until the exposing fire is controlled either by partial or complete extinguishment or by having a charged hand line at these extension points.

B: When using a fire escape for access to different floors, never vent a window that could allow fire to cut off the line of retreat.

C: When venting the windows of the fire apartment from directly above by use of a 6` hook and an intense fire is suspected, the possibility of fire rolling up the side of the building when air is admitted must be considered. For safety, look down at the window to be removed, measure the distance with the tool, pull your head back in the window and then swing the tool through the window below.

D: When venting the windows of the fire apartment from the fire escape first check them for heat. See if they show cracks from the heat and look for discoloration of the glass (black and tar-like) from the heat. If above observations indicate extreme heat, the fire may momentarily vent itself or light up as you ventilate.

Answer 5

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) When venting the windows of the fire apartment from the fire escape first check them for heat. See if they show cracks from the heat and look for discoloration of the glass (GENERALLY BROWNISH) from the heat. If above observations indicate extreme heat, the fire may momentarily vent itself or light up as you ventilate.
D Note: To safely vent both windows, first break the window off the fire escape and then the window on the fire escape. If the fire escape window is vented first, fire or heat from this window may prevent venting the other window. NOTE: EEWs may not give any of these indications; contact Ladder Company Officer before VEIS.
A Note: It may be necessary to close windows and remove drapes, curtains, etc.
C Note: The firefighter’s hand and arm will be protected by their clothing.
Lad 3 5.7.4-5.8.2

Question 6

Question 6:
When using a 2 1/2” foam handline, the maximum number of lengths that can be used is found in which choice?

A: 4 lengths

B: 6 lengths

C: 8 lengths

D: 10 lengths

Answer 6

Answer: D

Explanation:
Location for the eductor is at the pumper outlet ONLY
1 3/4” hose- maximum stretch is 6 lengths to the nozzle
2 1/2” hose- maximum stretch is 10 lengths to the nozzle
Foam evolution 1 sec 2

Question 7

Question 7:
A proby is working his first tour in Ladder 400. The Lieutenant gives him the can position and is going over some information about the pressurized water extinguisher at roll call. Which point is incorrect?

A: Water extinguishers should never be used on or about electrical fire situations to avoid electrical shock injury.

B: Direct the straight stream at the base of the fire.

C: Using the extinguisher with a finger over the nozzle should not be used at very small or smoldering fires where there is no detectable thermal draft created by the fire.

D: The pressurized water extinguisher shall be inspected daily and after each use.

Answer 7

Answer: C

Explanation:
C. Using the extinguisher with a finger over the nozzle SHOULD ONLY BE USED at very small or smoldering fires where there is no detectable thermal draft created by the fire.

TB TOOLS 1 2.0, 3.0. 4.0

Question 8

Question 8:
Members were discussing the HT’s and Battalion EFAS and the colors displayed on the screens when an emergency alert transmission is made. Which choice is CORRECT?

A: EAB transmissions appear on the HT display in RED & on the EFAS in RED

B: EAB transmissions appear on the HT display in ORANGE & on the EFAS in RED

C: EAB transmissions appear on the HT display in ORANGE and on the EFAS in YELLOW

D: EAB transmissions appear on the HT display in RED and on the EFAS in YELLOW.

Answer 8

Answer: B

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL CHAPTER 11 & CHAPTER 9 ADDENDUM 3
B IS CORRECT – CH 11 3.5.2 & FIGURE 11 & 12 – HT display in Orange/Amber – Emergency Alert activation on the EFAS displays in RED – 5.1.1/Figure 5
Red display on an HT indicates a low battery condition
Yellow on the EFAS display indicates a cleared Emergency Alert Transmission 5.1.3

Question 9

Question 9:
A member of an aerial ladder company that arrives first at a severe fire where victims are showing at different windows should be guided by each of the following except?

A: The officer or OV can assist the chauffeur with the initial placement of the apparatus.

B: Remove those most seriously exposed first.

C: When only one aerial ladder can be used and endangered occupants are not in vertical alignment, place the turntable beneath the most seriously exposed victim/s. After removing those most seriously exposed, reposition the aerial ladder apparatus to complete the removal operations.

D: Proper placement of the aerial ladder may be affected by heat or flame issuing from below the rescue effort. This could cause the member to risk positioning the ladder in a manner that would only be used in a serious fire situation.

Answer 9

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) When only one aerial ladder can be used and endangered occupants are not in vertical alignment, place the turntable MIDWAY between locations. After removing those most seriously exposed, ROTATE THE LADDER to complete the removal operations.
Lad Ch 2 3.1.1, 3.2.1-3.2.4

Question 10

Question 10:
The threshold for decontamination for members and/or equipment when operating at a transformer fire involving PCBs can be found in which choice?

A: Decon shall take place when exposed to levels of 10 PPM or higher

B: Decon shall take place when exposed to levels of 30 PPM or higher

C: Decon shall take place when exposed to levels of 40 PPM or higher

D: Decon shall take place when exposed to levels of 50 PPM or higher

Answer 10

Answer: D

Explanation:
Hazardous Materials shall be implemented only when members or equipment are exposed to levels of PCBs of 50 PPM or higher
AUC 266 sec 8.1

Question 11

Question 11:
Units respond to a reported missing swimmer at the beach. The following actions are taken. Which one is incorrect?

A: Upon arrival, determine if there is a confirmed victim or victims in the water and if the victims(s) is on the surface or submerged.

B: If the victim is submerged, immediately search for a reliable witness and direct them to proceed to the command post.

C: Once the last location of the victim is confirmed units on the scene shall determine the best access point for the entry of the Rescue divers.

D: In order to expedite the rescue effort, units should be prepared to assist the Rescue divers with transporting any needed equipment to the entry point. The assistance of at least one company will have to be dedicated to this task.

Answer 11

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. If the victim is submerged, immediately search for a reliable witness. ONCE LOCATED, ENSURE THE WITNESS KEEP THEIR REFERENCE POINT AND VISUALLY MAINTAINS THE LAST LOCATION WHERE THEY SAW THE VICTIM PRIOR TO SUBMERGING. DO NOT ALLOW THE WITNESS TO BE REMOVED FROM THIS REFERENCE POINT. KEEP THE WITNESS AT THIS LOCATION THROUGHOUT THE OPERATION.

Water Rescue 5 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.2

Question 12

Question 12:
Most natural gas emergencies are resolved through investigation and simple mitigation. Which of the following statements is INCORRECTLY stated as an indication of a major gas emergency?

A: 10% LEL or greater detected outside or inside

B: 20% LEL or greater natural gas reading in an unvented subsurface structure like a manhole or sewer.

C: A gas leak inside a structure and the controlling valve cannot be located or is inoperable.

D: Gas present in one or more subsurface structures like manholes or sewers.

Answer 12

Answer: D

Explanation:
NATURAL GAS EMERGENCIES
D IS INCORRECT – Two or more subsurface structures. Section 5 PG 15
A, B, C are all CORRECT - SECTION 5

Question 13

Question 13:
Which description of high rise fire resistive multiple dwellings is inaccurate?

A: The majority are 8-18 stories. A small percentage are taller and have been discovered up to 32 floors with a single stair.

B: Building sizes vary from 45’ x 45’ to more than 200’ x 250’.

C: They consist purely of noncombustible structural elements such as concrete and steel, with no wood components.

D: They contain various occupancies. The majority are class ‘A’ multiple dwellings. Other occupancies include hotels, student housing (Dormitories) and single room occupancies (SRO’s).

Answer 13

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) They consist of noncombustible structural elements such as concrete and steel, with SOME INTERIOR WOOD FRAMING AND FLOORING.
MD Ch 4 3.1-3.3, 3.4.3

Question 14

Question 14:
The most correct procedure for a top floor of a NFP building with solar panels mounted on the roof can be found in which choice?

A: When the solar panels are involved in fire, a handline shall be stretched to the roof with a straight stream nozzle for deep penetration and reach of the stream

B: Ladder company efforts should be on opening the roof

C: Firefighters should start removing solar panels as soon as possible to get ahead of the fire (venting the roof)

D: For small incipient fires involving solar panels a Class C portable extinguisher is permissible

Answer 14

Answer: D

Explanation:
A- A fog nozzle with a 30 degree spray pattern. Straight streams or foam should not be used since they are excellent conductors
B- Ladder company efforts should be directed toward opening ceilings to define the boundaries of the fire
C- The removal of solar panels is NOT an option
AUC 351 sec 6

Question 15

Question 15:
Pak-Trackers are currently carried by al ladder, rescue and squad companies. Which feature of this tool is described correctly?

A: A member of the FAST unit will monitor the Pak-Tracker. The rescue and squad Pak-Tracker’s will remain at the command post as a backup should the FAST unit be deployed.

B: While the Pak-Tracker can receive and store up to 25 SCBA identities, the LCD display screen is only large enough to display one line of information.

C: It is important to understand that a Pak-Tracker can lock onto multiple SCBA’s simultaneously.

D: When a SCBA’s pass alarm is activated in the full-alarm mode for 15 seconds, the PASS alarm transmits a signal that can be received by the Pak-Tracker handheld receiver.

Answer 15

Answer: A

Explanation:
B. While the Pak-Tracker can receive and store UP TO 36 SCBA identities, the LCD display screen is only large enough to display TWO LINES of information.

C. It is important to understand that a Pak-Tracker can ONLY LOCK ONTO ONE SCBA AT A TIME.

D. When a SCBA’s pass alarm is activated in the full-alarm mode for 10 SECONDS, the PASS alarm transmits a signal that can be received by the Pak-Tracker handheld receiver.

TB SCBA Addendum 8 5.3, 5.4, 6.1

Question 16

Question 16:
Ladder 171 has a damaged radio at the can position and the unit is in the process of obtaining a spare. Which choice below is INCORRECT regarding the process of exchanging out an OOS radio?

A: Notify the Battalion and Division of the need for a spare radio.

B: Prepare an RT-2 with complete description of defect of radio as well as unit and position of the radio being placed OOS.

C: An unusual occurrence report is required for excessive damage to the radio.

D: Forward defective radio, with battery, antenna and remote speaker mic to Division.

Answer 16

Answer: A

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 11 – ADDENDUM 4
A IS INCORRECT – Battalion is not notified when placing a radio in or out of service 2.1.1
B – 2.1.3
C – 2.1.4
D – 2.1.7

Question 17

Question 17:
Part of the duty of members of the Department is hydrant maintenance. Which of the following choices is not in compliance with Department policy?

A: Every hydrant shall be inspected twice per year. The spring hydrant inspection period is March 1st – June 1st and the fall hydrant inspection period is September 1st – December 1st.

B: When conducted, hydrant inspections shall be performed between the hours of 0900 and 1730.

C: When an unserviceable hydrant is found during an emergency response and it is not in the company’s administrative area, the officer should ensure the administrative company is notified of the defect and cause a white disc to be placed on the hydrant.

D: It is illegal for the public to open or use a fire hydrant without a permit issued by the Department of Environmental Protection (DEP). All units shall close down illegally opened hydrants whenever the officer in command determines that such action will not precipitate an incident. The Police Department shall be notified when necessary.

Answer 17

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) When conducted, hydrant inspections shall be performed between the HOURS OF 0930 AND 1700.
Eng Ch 3 Add 2 1.5, 2.1, 2.5.1

Question 18

Question 18:
To ensure that the In-Rig EBF-4 application continues to work properly, and to ensure that all officers are familiar with it, the IN-Rig EBF-4 must be used on a certain day each week. The correct day of the week the In-Rig EBF-4 must be used can be found in which choice?

A: Every Saturday 9x6

B: Every Sunday 9x6

C: Every Monday 9x6

D: Every Wednesday 9x6

Answer 18

Answer: B

Explanation:
AUC 346 sec 6.6

Question 19

Question 19:
Which concept regarding black fire is stated incorrectly?

A: Black fire occurs in areas of the fire building which are said to be in the fully developed stage.

B: It is called black fire because at the area affected there will be no visible flames, just dark superheated turbulent smoke.

C: Upon recognition of black fire conditions, treat the black fire smoke as if it were flames. Immediately flow water into the smoke layer with a hoseline to aggressively cool the area.

D: When black fire conditions are present, there is usually an area ahead of the black fire area where the main body of fire is free burning and heavily involved in flames.

Answer 19

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. Black fire occurs in areas of the fire building which are said to be in the GROWTH STAGE.

NOTE: BLACK FIRE; ROLLOVER; AND FLASHOVER ALL OCCUR IN THE GROWTH STAGE.

TB Fire Dynamics Ch 3 5.1, 5.2, 5.3, 5.4

Question 20

Question 20:
Cast Iron arches and columns can present a unique problem during fire operations. Which statement regarding the characteristics is INCORRECT?

A: When properly cast, these structural members will withstand a great deal of thermal stress.

B: When subjected to the heat from fire, the strength lost is cumulative and is never regained.

C: At 1100 degrees Fahrenheit, cast iron loses 58% of its original strength.

D: A properly cast column cooled by a hose line can contract disproportionately leading to failure.

Answer 20

Answer: D

Explanation:
FIREFIGHTING PROCEDURES – LOFTS
D is incorrect – An IMPROPERLY cast column cooled by a hose line can contract disproportionately leading to potential failure. 5.1.10E
A – 5.1.10E
B – 5.1.10F
C – 5.1.10F

Question 21

Question 21:
Portable ladders may be used to bridge a fence during fires or emergencies. When utilizing this procedure, each of the choices below should be followed except for which incorrect choice?

A: Entrance may be gained using two short portable ladders and a short length of rope or hose strap. One ladder is placed against the fence at the proper climbing angle and butted by a member.

B: One member ascends the ladder to the point where the top of the fence is at about knee level.

C: The butt end of the second ladder is passed to the member on the first ladder, who then places one beam of the second ladder on top of the fence.

D: The second ladder is slid out a sufficient distance, pivoted downward from the fence top, lowered to the ground, and adjusted to provide a proper climbing angle. The adjacent beams of the two ladders are tied together securely where they intersect, to prevent ladder movement during use.

Answer 21

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) One member ascends the ladder to the point where the top of the fence is at about WAIST level.
Lad Ch 1 9.2.1

Question 22

Question 22:
The NFPA 704 Diamond is a standardized system that uses colors and numbers to define the hazards of a material. From this Diamond, which choice is correct when the Yellow 3 is highlighted?

A: May Detonate

B: Shock and Heat May Detonate

C: Violent Chemical Change

D: Unstable if Heated

E: Stable

Answer 22

Answer: B

Explanation:
Yellow- Reactivity Hazard
4- May Detonate
3- Shock and Heat May Detonate
2- Violent Chemical Change
1- Unstable if Heated
0- Stable
ERP p- 39

Question 23

Question 23:
Members at MUD are drilling with the Ogura cordless rebar cutter. They make the following comments but were incorrect in which one?

A: The tool has “high speed mode” and “high torque mode”. The operator must select one of these modes prior to cutting.

B: The Ogura cordless rebar cutter is designed for cutting maximum 1” diameter high tensile rebar, tensile fastening bolts, locks and treaded rod.

C: Do not start cutting immediately after the motor is switched on. Allow the tipped saw blade to reach full speed before beginning to cut.

D: Position the guide in the opening against the rebar. Then push the tool forward slowly to start to cut the rebar.

Answer 23

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. The tool has “high speed mode” and “high torque mode”. IT WILL SELECT THE OPERATING MODE AUTOMATICALLY, ACCORDING TO THE WORK LOAD.

TB Tools 28 Data Sheet 2 3.1, 3.6, 4.2, 4.5

Question 24

Question 24:
Two members were discussing the hazards of an IDLH environment during a quiet night tour. Which comment made during the discussion was incorrect?

A: Two of the most toxic gases found in smoke are carbon monoxide and hydrogen cyanide which are both chemical asphyxiants and are responsible for many fire deaths.

B: FDNY paramedic ambulances and FDNY conditions cars (EMS Supervisors) carry an antidote medication to reverse the effects of hydrogen cyanide. This antidote is also available in all hospitals and non-FDNY ambulances.

C: Consider smoke to be additional fuel.

D: When air is heated it becomes more buoyant (hot air rises). In addition to buoyancy, more than three-quarters of air is made up of nitrogen which expands from the energy released during a fire.

Answer 24

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) FDNY paramedic ambulances and FDNY conditions cars (EMS Supervisors) carry an antidote medication to reverse the effects of hydrogen cyanide. This antidote is NOT available in MOST hospitals or on non-FDNY ambulances.
TB FD Ch 2 3.2-3.4

Question 25

Question 25:
Rescue and removal using the Tower Ladder bucket must be carefully conducted. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: The apparatus should be positioned so that the center line of the turntable is at least 25’- 30’ from the building; this will allow the bucket to reach street level and ensure an efficient transfer to EMS. To ensure a smooth operation, the Pedestal Firefighter should perform the lowering operation if conditions permit.

B: Position the middle of the bucket at a level where a person can easily step into it without straddling the window sill or fire escape railing.

C: Positioning the top bucket rail level with the window sill or top rail of the fire escape is the preferred position for unconscious, incapacitated or obese victims.

D: When utilized, the stokes basket may be lashed to a substantial part of the bucket in an upright, horizontal or diagonal position. Upright positioning is preferred as it is the easiest and safest of the three options.

Answer 25

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) When utilized, the stokes basket may be lashed to a substantial part of the bucket in an upright, horizontal or diagonal position. DIAGONAL positioning is preferred as it is the easiest and safest of the three options.
TL Ch 3 3.3

Question 26

Question 26:
The incorrect procedure for “Suspicious Activity Reporting” can be found in which choice?

A: Enter information collected from the scene into Diamond Plate

B: Notify NYPD

C: Notify BFI

D: Forward “Suspicious Activity Reporting” form to the Chief of Operations via chain of command

Answer 26

Answer: D

Explanation:
Forward “Suspicious Activity Reporting” form to the BFI via the bag
AUC 363 sec 8.3, 8.4, 8.6, and 8.9

Question 27

Question 27:
The member(s) performing ventilation for search shall comply with the following. Which choice is incorrect?

A: The ladder company officer shall be notified when a search team enters from the exterior to conduct a search for a known life hazard or when they are entering to conduct standard search procedures.

B: If the ladder company officer and interior team have quicker access to the location of a victim or to the area requiring a search, the ladder company officer may decide to disapprove the entry to search in order to limit any negative impact caused by additional ventilation.

C: Upon completion of clearing the window, and after entering, the member should reassess the smoke and heat conditions to determine if the area is tenable.

D: After venting and entering, the priority action for the member is to isolate the area by closing a door before conducting the search (VEIS).

Answer 27

Answer: C

Explanation:
C. Upon completion of clearing the window, AND BEFORE ENTERING, the member should reassess the smoke and heat conditions to determine if the area is tenable.

Ventilation 12.6

Question 28

Question 28:
CIDS should be utilized for low-rise fireproof multiple dwellings (LRFPMDs) to indicate each of the following except?

A: Roof access

B: Apparatus access

C: Search rope required (when necessary)

D: Cockloft construction

Answer 28

Answer: D

Explanation:
These are fireproof buildings
CIDS should be utilized for LRFPMDs to indicate: Acronym: Search RASH
Search rope required (when necessary)
Roof access
Apparatus access
Stairways/sections - Number, Type, Open, Enclosed, Fire Doors
Hydrant locations as needed
MD Ch 3 6.1

Question 29

Question 29:
Your unit is conducting a critique of a recent fire operation where fire involved a number of vacant rowframe buildings in a row. Which engine company tactic was incorrect?

A: The first engine company positioned the apparatus for possible use of the multiversal nozzle. In line pumping was utilized.

B: The first to arrive engine company stretched a 3 ½” hoseline to supply a tower ladder, and a hoseline for use on the exterior of the building.

C: The first hoseline initially operated from the exterior until a large caliber stream was placed into operation. The hoseline was then stretched into the fire building.

D: The second hoseline was not needed to back up the first hoseline, so it was stretched through an exposure to the rear yard.

Answer 29

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) The first hoseline initially operated from the exterior until a large caliber stream was placed into operation. The hoseline was then stretched into THE MOST SEVERE EXPOSURE.
D Note: The second hoseline could be stretched to the opposite exposure or through an exposure to the rear yard. Additional hoselines are stretched as directed by the Incident Commander.
BS/RF 6.7 B

Question 30

Question 30:
The most correct placement of the Positive Pressure Fan when pressurizing the attack stair can be found in which choice?

A: Place fan in the stairwell 4-6 feet/titled up at an 80 degree angle

B: Place fan outside the stairwell 4-6 feet/titled up at an 80 degree angle

C: Place fan in the stairwell 4-6 feet/titled up at an 60 degree angle

D: Place fan outside the stairwell 4-6 feet/titled up at an 60 degree angle

Answer 30

Answer: B

Explanation:
The fan shall be positioned to blow into the stairwell; it should NOT be placed in the stairwell. Placing the fan in the stairwell does not create any pressure in the stairwell. It may create higher CO levels and negative stack effect by pulling smoke and heat down the stairwell
AUC 349 sec 7.2

Question 31

Question 31:
The MSA Altair Digital Gas Meter alarms at all but which of the following levels?

A: 5% LEL

B: 10% LEL

C: 23.5% o2

D: 19.5% o2

Answer 31

Answer: A

Explanation:
Natural Gas Addendum 2 2.5

Question 32

Question 32:
In addition to the standpipe hose maintained in roll-ups and hose carried in the hosebeds, additional hose is required to be carried on the Engine apparatus. Descriptions of what is required are accurately portrayed below in all choices except?

A: At least 3 lengths of 1 ¾” hose shall be carried, rolled or arranged in a roll-up, for use as an additional length in a hose stretch. One of these 1 ¾” hose lengths should be maintained with a nozzle attached.

B: Two lengths of 1 ¾” hose to be used as a “booster line”. This hose should be maintained with a fog nozzle attached to one length and is intended to be used on outside fires, such as rubbish fires or car fires.

C: In an emergency, the “booster line” can be used to apply water from the exterior of the fire building.

D: Hose used as a “booster line” should be maintained pre-connected to a discharge outlet. It may also be maintained pre-connected to a gated wye attached to a discharge outlet.

Answer 32

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) At least 4 LENGTHS of 1 ¾” hose shall be carried, rolled or arranged in a roll-up, for use as an additional length in a hose stretch. One of these 1 ¾” hose lengths should be maintained with a nozzle attached.
D Note: This hose may be maintained either rolled or folded. Generally, it is stored on the front bumper of the apparatus.
Eng Ch 2 12.1

Question 33

Question 33:
NYCT Emergency Evacuation Devices (EED) can be an asset to operating members at an Under River Rail incident. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding these devices?

A: They are located at the base of emergency exit stairs nearest the under river tubes. They are also located near stations, at the first blue light south of the station, on the southbound track.

B: They are secured by Transit Authority locks. Keys for these locks have been issued to all units.

C: With the flat side up they can be used to move passengers from one train to another. When this is done, ropes or hooks should be used as guides.

D: When the EED is reversed to other than the flat side, it can be used as a ladder to take passengers on and off trains, or from the track to an emergency exit landing.

Answer 33

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) They are secured by Transit Authority locks. Keys are located AT THE TOKEN BOOTH IN THE STATION.
B Note: Bolt cutters or forcible entry tools will be required.
URR Figure 9A - 9C

Question 34

Question 34:
Which choice is most correct when describing the M2 Rail cars found on the New Haven line of the Metro North?

A: M2 cars operate in pairs, one “A” car (an even numbered car) having a pantograph is coupled to a “B” car (odd numbered car) having no pantograph. A PCB transformer will be found on the “A” car only

B: M2 cars operate in pairs, one “A” car (an odd numbered car) having a pantograph is coupled to a “B” car (even numbered car) having no pantograph. A PCB transformer will be found on both cars

C: M2 cars operate in pairs, one “A” car (an even numbered car) having a pantograph is coupled to a “B” car (odd numbered car) having a pantograph. A PCB transformer will be found on both cars

D: M2 cars operate in pairs, one “A” car (an even numbered car) having a pantograph is coupled to a “B” car (odd numbered car) having no pantograph. A PCB transformer will be found on both cars

Answer 34

Answer: D

Explanation:
AUC 266 add 2 sec 3
M2 cars have Orange Stripes
This section has been used on several Lieutenants exams

Question 35

Question 35:
When conducting a search with the search rope, a member comes across 4 distance markers. How many feet of rope deployed does this indicate?

A: 50

B: 100

C: 150

D: 200

Answer 35

Answer: B

Explanation:
EACH MARKER INDICATES 25 FEET. 1 = 25; 2 = 50; AND SO FORTH.

ALSO NOTE THE NARROW SIDE OF MARKER INDICATES THE DIRECTION OUT OF THE IDLH.

TB Rope 6 3.4

Question 36

Question 36:
At a traditional private dwelling fire, opening up a peaked roof may be required. Which of the following choices is not indicative of correct operations?

A: The first hole should be made at the main gable.

B: The power saw may only be used from the basket of a tower ladder for this type of ventilation.

C: When using an axe, straddle the peak to cut a hole over the fire, parallel to and on the lee side of the ridge.

D: When using an axe, the size of the opening is limited by the member’s reach and maneuverability, but will generally be about 4’ x 6’.

Answer 36

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) When using an axe, the size of the opening is limited by the member’s reach and maneuverability, but will generally be ABOUT 2’ x 3’.
A Note: A center hall usually follows the same direction as the main gable.
Note: A hole at the main gable, with the ceiling pushed down, when directed by the ladder company officer, will vent the blind attic space, the knee walls and the attic hall and rooms below, allowing rapid line advancement and search by the inside team. Prior to conducting any ventilation tactics from the exterior, the member(s) shall request permission from the Ladder Company officer operating in the fire area in order to coordinate ventilation tactics with interior operations.
Note: A 6’ hook (10’ for a Queen Anne) should be brought to the roof to push down the ceiling.
PD Ch 3 6.4 A, B

Question 37

Question 37:
At the scene of a collapse, members of your unit find a wall with a large “V,” approximately 2 feet in height, with a circle around it and a horizontal line painted through the middle. This would most accurately indicate?

A: A confirmed victim is nearby, and is confirmed deceased.

B: A confirmed victim is nearby, and is confirmed deceased and removed.

C: A confirmed victim is nearby, who has been removed.

D: A possible victim is nearby, and is possibly deceased.

Answer 37

Answer: A

Explanation:
Collapse Add 2 5.4

Question 38

Question 38:
During an Active Shooter incident, the Rescue Task Force Leader operating in the Warm Zone shall ensure the focus is on care and removal of which patients?

A: Black tag patients

B: Red tag patients

C: Orange/Yellow tag patients

D: Green tag patients

Answer 38

Answer: B

Explanation:
ERP add 3A sec 11.6.2
Remember, do NOT bring Oxygen or the Defibrillator in to the Warm Zone….11.4.1
Remember, the Rescue Task Force Leader will be closet to the rear in the rolling “T” formation..sec 11.6.1

Question 39

Question 39:
Which color smoke indicates the early stages of the pyrolysis of timber products and in a wood framed building may indicate the structure is involved?

A: Black

B: Brown

C: Grey

D: White

Answer 39

Answer: B

Explanation:
BLACK: DARK SMOKE OFTEN INDICATES FUEL RICH CONDITIONS, DUE TO RESTRICTED AIR SUPPLY (VENTILATION LIMITED).

GREY: IN A BUILDING ISSUING DARK SMOKE FROM SOME AREA AND GREY SMOKE FROM OTHER AREAS, USUALLY THE AREAS WITH GREY SMOKE ARE REMOTE FROM THE FIRE.

WHITE: STEAM MIXED WITH SMOKE OR “WHITE GHOST” IS PRODUCED WHEN CERTAIN FUELS ARE HEATED TO THEIR PYROLYSIS TEMPERATURE AND VOLATILE COMPONENTS ARE RELEASED.

Fire Dynamics Ch 2 3.5.4

Question 40

Question 40:
It is important for all units to be aware of proper positioning when operating at a fire in a high rise office building. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: The first and second arriving engine companies shall be teamed to stretch and operate the first line while the third and fourth arriving engine companies shall be used to stretch and operate the second line.

B: The first arriving ladder company shall be assigned to search and evacuate the fire floor with the second arriving ladder company assigned to augment this search and evacuation of the fire floor.

C: The third arriving ladder company shall be assigned to search and evacuate the floor above the fire with the fourth arriving ladder company assigned to augment this search and evacuation of the floor above the fire.

D: The CFR engine company, with all CFR-D equipment and forcible entry tools, shall be assigned to the Fire Sector Supervisor/Branch Director.

Answer 40

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) The third arriving ladder company shall be assigned to search and evacuate the floor above the fire and the fourth arriving ladder company shall be assigned to operate on the UPPER FLOORS and to INITIATE the search of the attack stairway.
HROB 5.3.1