LT PKG EXAM #4

Question 1

Question 1:
Your company has just received a ticket at 0900 hours for rope training at the Rock. As a student of LtQuestions.com, you know the latest you can leave from your quarters to attend this training can be found in which choice?

A: 0915 hrs

B: 0930 hrs

C: 0945 hrs

D: 1000 hrs

Answer 1

Answer: A

Explanation:
Units scheduled for such activities must leave from their quarters, with the day tour members no later than 0915 hours or night tour members no later than 1815 hours……If details are expected, the BC will ensure details arrive before 0915/1815
AUC 287 sec 5.1.3

Question 2

Question 2:
Lieutenant Jones is conducting a search on the first floor of a private dwelling fire. He notices one green light glowing on the heads-up display of his SCBA. This indicates how much air remains in the cylinder?

A: Full Cylinder

B: 3/4 Cylinder

C: 1/2 Cylinder

D: 1/4 Cylinder

Answer 2

Answer: B

Explanation:
A. Two green lights glowing
C. One yellow light flashing slowly
D. One red light flashing rapidly

Note: “AB&C” you can continue to operate; “D” you must leave the hazardous area immediately.

THIS WAS ASKED ON 2009 LT EXAM

TB SCBA 3.8.9

Question 3

Question 3:
Members were discussing the designations of units seen on a recent response ticket. Which of the following was described CORRECTLY?

A: Engine 256 was designated the Purple K unit. They were indicated on the ticket with the suffix P

B: Ladder 171 was designated the CPC Unit. They were indicated on the ticket with the prefix C

C: Engine 269 was designated the FireIce Unit. They were indicated on the ticket with the prefix F

D: Ladder 177 was designated the Hi-Rise Roof Team. They were indicated on the ticket with the suffix H.

Answer 3

Answer: D

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – COMPUTER ASSISTED DISPATCH
D IS CORRECT – 2.12.1#2
A – Purple K unit is indicated by PREFIX P
B – CPC Unit is indicated by SUFFIX C
C – FireIce Unit is indicated by Suffix I

Question 4

Question 4:
Two members of a busy Queens Engine Company were discussing various methods for stretching a hoseline. In which choice below was an incorrect comment made?

A: Well holes can exist in all three types of return stairways (straight run stacked stairs, half-landing return stairs, or wrap-around stairs) and may also exist in some scissor stairways.

B: In a traditional stairway stretch, to properly manage turns on a stairway, the hose should be carried in the inside arm of the stretching members to prevent entangling hose as they climb the stairs.

C: In order for a well hole to be used, it must be large enough to accommodate the hose. An effective test for size is a closed hand; if you can fit your gloved fist inside a well hole, it should be large enough to execute a well hole stretch.

D: When conditions allow, during a well hole stretch, both the nozzle and back up firefighters may carry their lengths up the stairs. This technique should be considered when floors are larger and more hose is required on the fire floor.

Answer 4

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) In a traditional stairway stretch, to properly manage turns on a stairway, the hose should be carried in the OUTSIDE arm of the stretching members to help them make wide turns with the hose as they climb the stairs.
Eng Ch 7 2.11.3, 4.3, 5.2, 5.8.1

Question 5

Question 5:
Upon returning to quarters from a 10-92, you discovered your quarters was broken into by an unknown person. At this point you should notify who?

A: BC, DC, NYPD, IG

B: BC, DC, NYPD, Fire Marshals (BFI)

C: BC, DC, NYPD, BITS

D: BC, DC, only

Answer 5

Answer: B

Explanation:
Always notify BC, DC, and NYPD
In addition, notify the IG only if there is a theft in which a Department employee is a suspect
In addition, notify Fire Marshals if incident involves a false alarm response
AUC 300 sec 3

Question 6

Question 6:
Firefighter Charles just transferred to the truck from the engine. Members are drilling with her on the Pak-Tracker. Which comment made during the drill is incorrect?

A: A member of the FAST unit other than the member monitoring EFAS shall monitor the Pak-Tracker.

B: When the Pak-Tracker receives a signal from a PASS device that has been in full-alarm for 10 seconds, the receiver will emit a 2-tone audible alarm, and the LCD display will show the SCBA’s identity (unit and member assignment) and relative signal strength.

C: The maximum range of the Pak-Tracker handheld receiver is approximately 900 feet line of sight.

D: When the Pak-Tracker receives an alarm signal, the FAST member monitoring the Pak-Tracker shall immediately notify the IC with a “mayday” transmission.

Answer 6

Answer: D

Explanation:
D. When the Pak-Tracker receives an alarm signal, the FAST member monitoring the Pak-Tracker shall immediately NOTIFY THEIR COMPANY OFFICER WITH THE IDENTITY ON THE LCD DISPLAY (I.E. THE MEMBER’S UNIT AND ASSIGNMENT). THE FAST UNIT OFFICER SHALL NOTIFY THE IC OF THE ACTIVATION, AND ATTEMPT TO CONTACT THE MEMBER TO DETERMINE WHETHER THE SIGNAL IS FOR AN EMERGENCY OR AN INADVERTENT ACTIVATION. IF THE PASS ACTIVATION IS FOR A LIFE-THREATENING EMERGENCY, OR IF NO CONTACT CAN BE ESTABLISHED, THE FAST UNIT OFFICER SHALL NOTIFY THE IC WITH A ‘MAYDAY’ TRANSMISSION.

TB SCBA Addendum 8 4.3

Question 7

Question 7:
Which of the following construction classifications CORRECTLY describes a 15 story High Rise Fire-Protected Multiple Dwelling?

A: CL1R

B: CL2LW

C: CL2

D: CL2R

Answer 7

Answer: D

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 4 –CIDS – NEW MATERIAL 3/22
D IS CORRECT – A High Rise Fire Protected structure which is occupied as a residential building as described in FFP MD’s should be classified as CL2R. 4.5.3#3

Question 8

Question 8:
During company drill, an engine officer had to correct a comment made by the truck officer regarding the “Rope Stretch.” Which comment was incorrect?

A: Tossing the rope may be necessary if the rope needs to be thrown a distance away from the building, but it introduces the possibility of the rope becoming caught in an obstruction, or not reaching the ground if it does not play out of the container properly. Tossing the rope requires members in the street to make a more complex knot to secure the hose.

B: The engine officer may lower the rope by lowering the working end of the rope to the members below, keeping the container upstairs with him/her. This ensures a smooth play-out of the rope as it is lowered and allows the members below to use a carabiner or clip on the working end of the rope to secure the hose.

C: At higher elevations, the increased weight of the hose may make it necessary to use a rolling hitch to secure the hose. The rolling hitch is used when the weight of the line hanging vertically is heavy enough to cause the hose to kink when a hose strap is used.

D: When used to secure a hose hanging vertically, the width of the rolling hitch (wrapped 3 times around the hose) prevents kinking. The rolling hitch must be properly tied directly above a hose coupling and anchored with a substantial object knot inside the building.

Answer 8

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) When used to secure a hose hanging vertically, the width of the rolling hitch (wrapped 4 TIMES around the hose) prevents kinking. The rolling hitch must be properly tied directly BELOW a hose coupling and anchored with a substantial object knot inside the building.
Eng Ch 7 6.9, 6.15

Question 9

Question 9:
The incorrect policy for emergency tree cutting and clearance can be found in which choice?

A: The FDNY is responsible for cutting fallen trees and removing all debris from public sidewalks

B: Operations for fallen trees when on private property shall only be limited to assisting trapped or injured persons and preventing unauthorized entry into danger areas. Members can also cut and remove sections of the fallen tree blocking the entrance to the building

C: When a tree has fallen onto a vehicle, members shall not attempt to cut or remove the tree unless such action is required to perform a rescue, administer first aid, or establish an emergency lane

D: Any structure involved with a fallen tree must be searched for injured or trapped occupants

Answer 9

Answer: A

Explanation:
The FDNY is not responsible for the removal of debris from sidewalks or private property
AUC 301 sec 3 and 5.4

Question 10

Question 10:
Which choice below illustrates the correct priority order of valve closure for natural gas emergencies?

A: Appliance valve; individual meter valve; interior gas riser valve; master meter valve; head of service valve; curb valve; main valve.

B: Appliance valve; interior gas riser valve; individual meter valve; head of service valve; master meter valve; curb valve; main valve.

C: Appliance valve; interior gas riser valve; individual meter valve; master meter valve; head of service valve; curb valve; main valve.

D: Appliance valve; interior gas riser valve; individual meter valve; master meter valve; curb valve; head of service valve; main valve.

Answer 10

Answer: C

Explanation:
CODE: “ALL RICH MEN MUST HAVE CLEAN SOCKS”

APPLICANCE VALVE
RISER (INTERIOR) VALVE
METER (INDIVIDUAL) VALVE
MASTER METER VALVE
HEAD OF SERVICE VALVE
CURB (SERVICE VALVE)
STREET (MAIN) VALVE

Natural Gas 6.7.3

Question 11

Question 11:
Which of the following uses of an URGENT transmission during a fire operation is INCORRECT?

A: A firefighter locates an uninjured missing member.

B: Units are transitioning to an exterior attack.

C: Firefighters on the roof discover a structural problem indicating the danger of collapse.

D: Firefighters in the rear discover a change in conditions that will severely impact the safety of members.

Answer 11

Answer: A

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 9
A IS INCORRECT – The location of a missing member requires the transmission of a MAYDAY. Ex - Ladder 43 Fast Ov to Command. MAYDAY, missing member located. 9.4.1D - pg 9-7
B – Urgent Message 9.4.2C
C – Urgent Message 9.4.2D
D – Urgent Message 9.4.2G – Anytime a change in conditions will severely impact an operation or the safety of members.

Question 12

Question 12:
Properly transporting and deploying portable ladders can make operations safer and more efficient. Of the following choices, which is not in accordance with Department policy?

A: To ladder the rear of a rowframe, in most cases taking the ladder through the second floor of an adjoining rowframe and passing it out the rear window to another member in the yard below is faster than using the fire building.

B: In a brownstone, it is important to take the ladder through with the butt facing the rear of the building.

C: In a row frame, transporting a ladder through the interior of the building to the rear is generally less complicated because there are front and rear doors or window entries at ground level.

D: Most often, all floors in the rear of a brownstone can be reached with portable extension ladders. It is recommended that extension ladders be used in lieu of straight ladders due to their shorter nested length and ability to be adjusted.

Answer 12

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) To ladder the rear of a BROWNSTONE, in most cases taking the ladder through the second floor (parlor floor) of an adjoining BROWNSTONE and passing it out the rear window to another member in the yard below is faster than using the fire building.
Note: Generally,
4th floor - 35’ extension ladder.
3rd floor - 24’ or 35’ extension ladder.
2nd floor - 24’ extension ladder or 14’ “A” Frame ladder.
Lad 1 10.2

Question 13

Question 13:
In regards to your Personal Protective Equipment (PPE), which choice is incorrect?

A: The wearing of suspenders is mandatory

B: Once the hood becomes wet, it shall not be worn again until dry.

C: When operating in an IDLH, if a member feels any pain or discomfort through the hood, the member must leave the area immediately unless the area can be immediately cooled by a hoseline.

D: PPE must be donned in the following order 1- Pants and boots (PSS and suspenders in place) 2- HT (remote mic clipped to outside of coat) 3- Hood (completely over head) 4- Bunker coat 5- Push hood back onto back of neck in “ready position”

Answer 13

Answer: B

Explanation:
The hood shall be worn whether dry, damp, or saturated with moisture
AUC 310 sec 6 and 7
Choice D was on the 2005 Lts exam

Question 14

Question 14:
Personnel at the scene of an MVA with victim(s) pinned must have a specific strategy for overall safety and efficient victim removal. Which of the following procedures is incorrect?

A: When there are several vehicles with numerous patients, the first arriving officer must transmit a 10-75 for an emergency.

B: The power unit should be placed in the front or rear of the vehicle.

C: Never position any part of your body between the tool and the vehicle.

D: First arriving officers must immediately notify the dispatcher when a person is pinned in the vehicle.

Answer 14

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. When there are several vehicles with numerous patients, the first arriving officer SHOULD CONSIDER TRANSMITTING A 10-75 FOR AN EMERGENCY.

Disentanglement and Extrication 3.1; 3.2; 3.3.3

Question 15

Question 15:
Engine 322 was assigned on the air to a box to divert traffic on a highway for an EMS unit as they operated alone providing care to a patient suffering a life-threatening medical episode in their vehicle. At the conclusion of the incident, the officer transmitted a signal. Which is CORRECT?

A: 10-37 Code 2

B: 10-36 No Code

C: 10-43

D: 10-31

Answer 15

Answer: D

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 8 – RADIO COMMUNICATIONS
D IS CORRECT – All calls for assistance other than medical assignments, including a unit assigned to protect EMS by diverting or blocking traffic at a highway incident…pg 8-10
A – 10-37-2 Unit was not assigned to a CFR Run.
B – 10-36 NC -Vehicle Emergency
C – 10-43 - Any non-fire related rescue

Question 16

Question 16:
All members should be familiar with simple fire dynamics, as well as definitions and terms, in order to relay specific conditions to the IC. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: Rollover occurs during the Growth Stage of a fire.

B: The presence of rollover indicates that flashover is imminent.

C: During flashover, the environment of the room is changing from a two-layer condition (Upper Layer and Lower Layer/ hot on top, cooler on the bottom) to a single, well mixed, untenable, hot gas condition from floor to ceiling. The temperature in the compartment typically exceeds 1100 degrees F.

D: Flashover occurs during the Fully Developed Stage.

Answer 16

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) Flashover occurs during the GROWTH stage. Once flashover has occurred, the fire within the compartment is said to be in the Fully Developed Stage.
TB FD Ch 3 2.3, 2.4, 3.3, 3.5

Question 17

Question 17:
The incorrect procedure upon discovery of a DOA during an EMS run can be found in which choice?

A: All DOAs whether fire related or EMS generated should be treated as a potential crime victim.

B: Always cover the corpse to protect the dignity of the deceased

C: If the discovery of the DOA is due to a “hanging” the deceased should not be cut down

D: If the discovery of the DOA is inside a building, do not wash hands in sinks, do not use bathrooms, do not adjust radio or TV, or use the phone

E: If the DOA is found tied up (bound) in anyway, do not untie

Answer 17

Answer: B

Explanation:
Refrain from covering any corpse except in public view
AUC 317 sec 5

Question 18

Question 18:
Members of a Brooklyn ladder company have just placed one of their abrasive discs for the power saw out-of-service. They receive one of the new diamond blade discs as a replacement. Which description of these blades is incorrect?

A: It can be used for both wet and dry cutting.

B: The blade is bi-directional. It will cut effectively when used in either direction.

C: The blade shall never be used to cut wood.

D: If a blade begins to heat up and glow red during use, discontinue using that blade until it has cooled down.

Answer 18

Answer: C

Explanation:
C. The blade CAN CUT WOOD; HOWEVER, THIS IS NOT RECOMMENDED.

THIS IS THE NEWEST SAW BLADE AND HAS NEVER BEEN TESTED. KNOW IT COLD

TB Tools 9 Appendix 1 2.3.6, 2.3.8, 2.3.13, 2.3.15

Question 19

Question 19:
Which of the following choices is the CORRECT way to address individual marking situations on CIDS buildings?

A: When interconnected/attached buildings and building complexes have a separate house number posted on each building, a CIDS entry must be entered for the first and last address in the range. The separate building numbers are added in the transmitted data portion of the card.

B: When a single building has multiple addresses listed in the FDNY BIS or FDNY Map Application, but only a single address posted on the building, a CIDS Card must be completed for each address.

C: When a single building has an address range posted on the building, the combined number should also be included in the Transmitted Data portion of each CIDS entry.

D: When a single building with a single address posted fronts on more than one street, a CIDS entry must be completed for each street front.

Answer 19

Answer: C

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 4 – CIDS
C IS CORRECT 4.5.1 #3
A – CIDS entries must be prepared for each address with the transmitted data portion of each CIDS entry indicating the number of buildings in the complex. 4.5.1#4
B – Prepare a CIDS entry for the posted address. The unit officer will determine if additional CIDS are required for any other applicable addresses. 4.5.1#2
D – When a single building regardless of size has a single address, prepare one CIDS entry. This provision applies even if the building fronts on more than one street.

Question 20

Question 20:
During company drill on the Roof position at nonfireproof multiple dwelling fires, the probationary firefighter made an incorrect comment. Indicate the incorrect comment.

A: You can use both the Halligan and 6ft Halligan hook to assist in climbing onto a high bulkhead when alone. The Halligan is placed with the fork end down and the adz end up. Using the 6’ hook to support most of your weight, step on the adz end of the Halligan and pull yourself up.

B: Never attempt to climb onto or off a bulkhead or similar type structure at a spot near or next to an open shaft or near a building wall that faces on a shaft, areaway, courtyard or street.

C: Use a removed door in conjunction with the Halligan to gain access to the roof of a bulkhead. Drive the hook of the Halligan into the roof, then position the door against the bulkhead at an angle of 65 to 70 degrees with the roof.

D: One way to loosen a bulkhead door from the upper hinge is by opening the door slightly and putting the fork end of the tool between the door and the door jamb. Close the door on the tool, loosening the hinge screws.

Answer 20

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Use a removed door in conjunction with the Halligan to gain access to the roof of a bulkhead. Drive the hook of the Halligan into the roof, then position the door against the bulkhead at an angle of 30 to 45 DEGREES with the roof.
C Note: The Halligan serves as a stop and should be at a sufficient distance from the bulkhead to permit the proper angle. The door can be used as a ramp. The Halligan should be parallel to the bottom of the door for safety reasons.
A Note: While climbing the hook, exert a downward pressure and do not push against the wall with your feet. This lateral pressure may cause the hook to slip off the bulkhead wall. The intent is to enable the roof firefighter to reach the top of the bulkhead with both hands. Once this is achieved, they should be able to work themselves up onto the bulkhead.
Lad 3 5.3.2, 5.3.3

Question 21

Question 21:
Potassium Iodide (KI) tablets have been issued to all Ladder and Engine companies in case members are exposed to a radiological event. These KI tablets are kept where?

A: In the company office in a secured location

B: In a secured container located in the EMS trauma bags

C: In a designated compartment on the apparatus

D: In the glovebox on the apparatus

Answer 21

Answer: D

Explanation:
KI tablets can be stored for at least 5 years without losing their potency. Refrigeration is not required
Members shall only take KI tablets when directed by the Chief of Department
ERP add 4C sec 5

Question 22

Question 22:
Two members discussing fire dynamics had to ask the on-duty officer to correct a single false statement that was made. Which statement was incorrect?

A: A flashover may develop more quickly in compartments that have peaked ceilings or cathedral ceilings as these features contribute to the formation of gases at upper levels.

B: In oxygen depleted environments, a temporary improvement period caused by venting can last for an unspecified amount of time; seconds or several minutes. There is no way to accurately determine how long this temporary improvement period will last but firefighters can extend it by coordinating ventilation with fire attack.

C: The occurrence of Black Fire is a condition when thick, turbulent, superheated, fuel-rich black smoke has been heated well beyond its ignition point but is so rich with gasses it is beyond its flammable range and is too rich to burn. Black Fire occurs in areas of the fire building which are said to be in the Growth Stage, and should be treated as if it were flames.

D: Ignition can occur on the exterior of a building when smoke ignites as it is released from a window or door, and mixes with air in the atmosphere. This is known as vent point ignition.

Answer 22

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) A flashover may take LONGER to occur in compartments that have peaked ceilings or cathedral ceilings since these features make it DIFFICULT for the upper layer to form.
C Note: This can and often does include areas above or adjacent to rooms of fire that are fully involved and in the fully developed stage. Treat Black Fire smoke as if it were flames. Immediately flow water into the smoke layer with a hoseline to aggressively cool the area. If you are unable to immediately cool the area, isolate our forces from the fire area by closing a door or some other means if possible, or retreat to an area of safety.
TB FD Ch 3 3.5 Note, 4.7, 5.1, 5.3, 5.4

Question 23

Question 23:
It is critical that newly promoted Lieutenants are aware of their responsibilities as the FAST unit officer. Which one of those responsibilities is incorrect?

A: The officer of the FAST unit shall announce their arrival on the scene over the handie-talkie and report to the ICP, unless otherwise directed by the IC.

B: If assigned by the IC to other than FAST duties, the FAST officer shall remind the IC of their FAST designation.

C: The FAST unit shall report to and stage near the ICP, within verbal contact, at a position from which they can be readily deployed.

D: When communicating with FAST unit members, the FAST officer shall include the word FAST after their unit designation.

Answer 23

Answer: D

Explanation:
D. When communicating TO OTHER UNITS, the FAST officer shall include the word FAST after their unit designation.

COMMUNICATION BETWEEN FAST UNIT MEMBERS DOES NOT REQUIRE THE USE OF THE WORD FAST AFTER THE UNIT DESIGNATION.

MMID Ch 2 3.1, 4.1, 4.2, 4.4

Question 24

Question 24:
Officers should have a basic knowledge of how to put a Tower Ladder’s large caliber stream into operation. Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information?

A: Generally only one supply source at the base of the Tower Ladder should be used. A Satellite Water Unit is the best source of supply if available; the largest diameter hose should be used.

B: 200 - 250 psi is the recommended pressure at the gated inlet of a Tower Ladder for an effective operation. The Tower Ladder may be supplied at either side of the apparatus.

C: When stretching a 3 ½” supply line to a Tower Ladder, ensure the male end is stretched to the gated inlet.

D: Water flow to the Tower Ladder should be controlled at the tower ladder gated inlet. Water should not be shut down at the supply source; this will avoid affecting other lines.

Answer 24

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) Water flow to the Tower Ladder should be controlled AT THE SUPPLY SOURCE (e.g. Engine apparatus or Satellite manifold). Water should ALWAYS be shut down at the SUPPLY PUMPER.
Note: When repositioning the Tower Ladder is required, this may be accomplished by disconnecting the 3 ½” supply line at the base of the Tower Ladder apparatus. However, if the distance is short and sufficient slack remains in the supply line, the Tower Ladder may be repositioned without disconnecting the supply line. The apparatus shall never be moved with the boom in the raised position.
TL Ch 4 4.1

Question 25

Question 25:
The NFPA 704 Diamond is a labeling system that incorporates the use of four diamonds combined in one central diamond. This standardized system uses colors and numbers to define the hazards of a material. The diamond shaped design displays four colors and hazard combinations. The four colors consist of red, white, blue, and yellow. The incorrect information corresponding to the color can be found in which choice?

A: Red is for flammability

B: Yellow is for Reactivity

C: Blue is for Health hazards

D: White is for oxygen concerns

Answer 25

Answer: D

Explanation:
White is for special hazards of the material
Starting to the left side of the diamond and rotating clockwise is Blue, Red, Yellow, White…..Acronym is: “Hot Farts Really Stink”
- Health (Blue)
- Flammability (Red)
- Reactivity (Yellow)
- Special Hazards (White)
ERP p-39

Question 26

Question 26:
Which Fire Department Connection (FDC) is correctly described?

A: An unpainted FDC with white-painted caps indicates a standpipe system.

B: An FDC painted yellow, with a white disc, indicates a partially out-of-service combination system (sprinkler/standpipe).

C: An unpainted FDC with aluminum-painted caps indicates a nonautomatic sprinkler system or perforated pipe.

D: An FDC painted green, with a blue disc, indicates a fully out-of-service automatic sprinkler system.

Answer 26

Answer: C

Explanation:
C
Note: Either the caps or the entire FDC may be painted.
A) An unpainted FDC with RED-painted caps indicates a standpipe system.
B) An FDC painted yellow, with a white disc, indicates a FULLY out-of-service combination system (sprinkler/standpipe).
D) An FDC painted green, with a blue disc, indicates a PARTIALLY out-of-service automatic sprinkler system.
Eng Ch 8 3.7.2, 3.7.3

Question 27

Question 27:
When requesting an ambulance, companies must provide the following information to the dispatcher for relay to EMD. Which one listed is incorrect?

A: Pulse and respiratory rate

B: Age

C: Mechanism of injury

D: CUPS status

Answer 27

Answer: C

Explanation:
“CCC RAP”

CUPS status
Chief complaint
CPR initiated
Respiratory rate
Age
Pulse rate

CFR Ch 2 3.11

Question 28

Question 28:
At a rowframe fire where the building is fully involved and there is fire in the exposures (a “Holding Operation”) which line placement option is correct?

A: The first hoseline is stretched into the most severe exposure.

B: The second hoseline is stretched to the top floor of the fire building.

C: If the second hoseline is needed to back up the first hoseline, the third hoseline is stretched to the rear yard.

D: If the second hoseline is stretched to the top floor of the most severe exposure, the third hoseline is stretched to the top floor of the opposite exposure.

Answer 28

Answer: D

Explanation:
The first hoseline is stretched into the fire building through the front door.
The second hoseline, if not needed to back up the first hoseline, is stretched to the top floor of the most severe exposure.
If the second hoseline is needed to back up the first hoseline, the third hoseline is stretched to the top floor of the most severe exposure.
If the second hoseline is stretched to the top floor of the most severe exposure, the third hoseline is stretched to the top floor of the opposite exposure.
Note: The fourth hoseline Stretched as ordered by the Incident Commander.
BS/RF 6.5

Question 29

Question 29:
The minimum safety distance when operating an Lithium-ion Energy Storage System (container/cabinet) outdoors can be found in which choice?

A: 100 ft radius

B: 25 ft radius

C: 10 ft radius

D: 50 ft radius

Answer 29

Answer: D

Explanation:
Minimum of 100 ft from container/cabinet exhaust fan opening (usually located on the container’s /cabinet’s side opposite FDC)….Cabinets may not have exhaust systems
Haz-Mat ch 19 sec 5

Question 30

Question 30:
At a fire on an upper floor of a High Rise Office Building, your Ladder Company is assigned to the Forward Staging Area. Your unit should bring each of the following, unless otherwise directed, except?

A: A SCBA for each member.

B: A set of forcible entry tools and a six-foot hook.

C: Search and utility ropes.

D: A spare SCBA cylinder for each member.

Answer 30

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) TWO sets of forcible entry tools and six-foot hooks.
Ladder companies reporting to the Forward Staging Area shall bring with them the following equipment, unless otherwise directed:
Acronym: 2 SUSS
2 sets of forcible entry tools and six-foot hooks.
Search ropes.
Utility ropes.
SCBA for each member.
Spare cylinder for each member.
Engines reporting to the Forward Staging Area shall bring with them the following equipment unless otherwise directed:
A SCBA for each member.
A standpipe kit and a nozzle.
A length of hose per firefighter.
A spare SCBA cylinder for each member.
HROB 6.3.6 E, F

Question 31

Question 31:
Based on varying building designs and available ventilation openings, there may be multiple flow paths within a structure. The flow path can be bidirectional or unidirectional. Which of the following points concerning flow paths is incorrect?

A: A bidirectional flow path is a flow path where hot gasses from the fire area (lower pressure) flow towards a ventilation point (higher pressure) and there is an entrainment of fresh air in the opposite direction back to the seat of the fire.

B: During a bidirectional flow path, at the ventilation opening, the hot gasses and smoke exhaust out above the neutral plane and the fresh air is pulled into the fire compartment below the neutral plane.

C: During a unidirectional flow path, all gas movement is in one direction.

D: The neutral plane can be an indicator of the stage of the fire is in, and will drop down towards the floor as the fire grows in intensity.

Answer 31

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. A bidirectional flow path is a flow path where hot gasses from the fire area (HIGHER PRESSURE) flow towards a ventilation point (LOWER PRESSURE) and there is an entrainment of fresh air in the opposite direction back to the seat of the fire.

Ventilation Glossary

Question 32

Question 32:
Ladder Company operations at a private dwelling cellar fire are crucial to successful extinguishment. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: After an initial size-up, the first ladder inside team should proceed to the entrance that provides the quickest access to the cellar, to provide entry for the engine and the quick application of water on the main body of fire.

B: While in the cellar, if an interior door is found leading to the first floor at the top of the stairs, and it is open, it should be closed to reduce the amount of oxygen feeding the fire and the officer should communicate the status of this door to the second ladder officer and the IC.

C: When the first ladder inside team proceeds to the cellar via a secondary entrance, the second ladder inside team will then provide VEIS of the floors above the cellar.

D: Bilco style doors may cover an exterior cellar entrance. Utilizing this type of entrance for line placement is desirable for fast application of water on the fire.

Answer 32

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) This type of secondary entrance often requires extensive forcible entry, and is more indicative of an unoccupied cellar. Utilizing this type of entrance for line placement is the LEAST desirable of the secondary entrances and shall NOT be utilized for hoseline placement UNLESS it is the ONLY option.
A secondary entrance (excluding Bilco style doors) should be used for access to the cellar if it provides the quickest access point for attack on the fire.
PD Ch 4 10.3

Question 33

Question 33:
Choose the incorrect procedure when operating at a tree cutting emergency.

A: Trees that have fallen onto overhead electrical wires can be cut safely since wood is a poor conductor of electricity as long as safe distances from the wires are maintained

B: The chain saw is not to be operated from a ladder.

C: When using the TL bucket, the chain saw should be started inside the bucket and then held outside the bucket until it is shut off

D: When using the TL bucket during chain saw use, both feet are to be kept within the bucket

Answer 33

Answer: A

Explanation:
Trees can conduct electricity. No cutting or moving is to be attempted until the utility company certifies that power has been removed and wires have been disengaged from the trees
AUC 301 sec 5

Question 34

Question 34:
Your unit is assigned to a train derailment in an Under River Railway between Queens and Manhattan. You were told the removal of non-ambulatory red tag victims was complete and that your unit would be removing the next victim group. You would be correct to prepare for removing?

A: Ambulatory victims

B: Non-ambulatory yellow tag victims

C: Red tag victims requiring disentanglement/extrication

D: Yellow tag victims requiring disentanglement/extrication

Answer 34

Answer: B

Explanation:
Victims should be removed in the following order:
Ambulatory Victims
Non-Ambulatory Victims Red Tag (Immediate Transport)
Non-Ambulatory Victims Yellow Tag (Delayed Transport)
Victims Requiring Disentanglement/Extrication Red Tag (Immediate Transport)
Victims Requiring Disentanglement/Extrication Yellow Tag (Delayed Transport)
Black Tag (deceased victims)
URR 7.1

Question 35

Question 35:
When an incident is determined to be a “major gas emergency” it would be most correct to transmit which of the following signals specifying a “major gas emergency”?

A: 10-75; 10-80 No Code

B: 10-75; 10-80 Code 1

C: 10-75; 10-80 Code 2

D: 10-75; 10-80 Code 3

Answer 35

Answer: B

Explanation:
10-80 Codes 2,3, and 4 no longer exist

10-80 CODE 1 TRANSMITTED FOR:

MAJOR GAS EMERGENCY
CHEMICAL SUICIDE (HAZ MAT CHAPTER 11)
LITHIUM ION ENERGY STORAGE SYSTEM (HAZ MAT CHAPTER 19)

Natural Gas 7.3

Question 36

Question 36:
A firehouse discussion regarding proper placement of the aerial ladder at a structural fire devolved into an argument over which incorrect comment?

A: For a severe fire with people on the fire escape above the fire, place the ladder alongside the fire escape with the tip 2” away from the face of the building and about one to three feet above the balcony railing.

B: For a severe fire with people on the fire escape above the fire, whenever possible, place the ladder on the most exposed side of the building.

C: For a severe fire in a large frontage building (over 30’) with no people showing, if no condition exists in front of building requiring a definite position, place the center of the turntable approximately 15’ from the side wall passed on your approach.

D: For a severe fire in a large frontage building (over 30’) with no people showing, if there is a condition requiring possible aerial ladder operations or possible use of the ladder pipe, then position the ladder for maximum coverage.

Answer 36

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) For a severe fire with people on the fire escape above the fire, whenever possible, place the ladder on the LEAST exposed side of the building.
Lad 2 3.3.1, 3.3.2, 3.5.1, 3.5.3

Question 37

Question 37:
When detailed to another firehouse, members have the option of walking, using public transportation, or using their private vehicle. When it comes to walking, this mode of travel can only be used if the firehouse is within how many blocks of a members assigned firehouse?

A: approximately 25 blocks

B: approximately 20 blocks

C: approximately 30 blocks

D: approximately 35 blocks

Answer 37

Answer: B

Explanation:
within 1 mile or approximately 20 blocks
AUC 287 sec 6.2

Question 38

Question 38:
All members should be familiar with proper standpipe operations. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: Existing 1 ½” diameter occupant-use hose should not be used, except in rare cases where life is in immediate peril and a FDNY hoseline is unavailable. This situation would most likely occur when a ladder company or rescue company is operating without an engine company.

B: Standpipe systems are supplied with 3 ½” hose. The only exception to this is when 3” high pressure hose is used to supply a standpipe system as part of the High-Pressure Pumping evolution.

C: When a building is equipped with both a standpipe system and automatic sprinklers, the first supply line should supply the standpipe system.

D: If a pressure reducing valve (PRV) is found on a floor outlet, it should be removed, if possible. If the PRV cannot be removed, another outlet should be used.

Answer 38

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) If a pressure reducing/restricting DEVICE (PRD) is found on a floor outlet, it SHOULD be removed, if possible. If the PRD cannot be removed, the outlet MAY still be used, so long as sufficient water can be supplied.
If a floor outlet has a Pressure Reducing VALVE (PRV) attached, it WILL NOT be removable. As long as sufficient pressure can be achieved, the outlet CAN STILL be used to supply the hoseline. The purpose of a PRV is to supply the appropriate pressure to the floor on which it is located under the operation of the building fire pump, so sufficient pressure at the outlet can be expected. The Engine Officer should be notified that the outlet being used has a PRV attached.
Eng 8 1.3, 3.1, 3.3, 3.8.2, 4.9

Question 39

Question 39:
Which of the following features describing the thermal imaging camera is correct?

A: The temperature measurement zone indicator is disabled.

B: Thermal imaging will “see” through water.

C: Average field of view of thermal imagers is approximately 30 degrees horizontally.

D: Focal point of the TIC is approximately 5 feet from the camera lens.

Answer 39

Answer: A

Explanation:
B. Thermal imaging WILL NOT “see” through water.

C. Average field of view of thermal imagers is approximately 50 DEGREES horizontally.

D. Focal point of the TIC is approximately 3 FEET from the camera lens.

NOTE A: THIS IS NEW INFORMATION WITH THE RELEASE OF THE NEW BULLETIN ON MARCH 18, 2022

• TB Tools 27 4.3, 4.4, 4.5, Data Sheet 1 3.3

Question 40

Question 40:
All officers should be familiar with the Fire Department’s five stages of a collapse rescue operation. Which is the appropriate order of these stages?

A: 1. Reconnaissance 2. Search of the voids 3. Accounting for and removal of the surface victims 4. General debris removal and tunneling 5. Selected debris removal

B: 1. Accounting for and removal of the surface victims 2. Reconnaissance 3. Search of the voids 4. Selected debris removal and tunneling 5. General debris removal

C: 1. Reconnaissance 2. Accounting for and removal of the surface victims 3. Search of the voids 4. Selected debris removal and tunneling 5. General debris removal

D: 1. Reconnaissance 2. Accounting for and removal of the surface victims 3. Search of the voids 4. General debris removal and tunneling 5. Selected debris removal

Answer 40

Answer: C

Explanation:
Acronym: Read All Volumes for Study Group
1. Reconnaissance
2. Accounting for and removal of the surface victims
3. Void Search
4. Selected debris removal and tunneling
5. General debris removal
Collapse 11.1