LT PKG EXAM #16

Question 1

Question 1:
Which officer reviews the proby notebook on a monthly basis?

A: Lieutenant

B: Company Commander (captain)

C: Battalion Chief

D: Deputy Chief

Answer 1

Answer: B

Explanation:
Proby- Review weekly. Initial and date in blue or black ink
Officer on Duty- Review each tour the member works. Initial and date in red ink
Company Commander- Review monthly. Initial and date in red ink
Chief Officers- Review during company drill visits. Initial and date in red ink
AUC 323 add 2 sec 2.1

Question 2

Question 2:
When stretching a foam handline, what is the maximum number of 2 ½ inch lengths that may be used off the eductor?

A: 6

B: 8

C: 10

D: 12

Answer 2

Answer: C

Explanation:
NOTE: 1 ¾ INCH IS A MAXIMUM OF 6 LENGTHS

TB Foam Addendum 3 2.1

Question 3

Question 3:
Of the following hydrant connections, which provides the largest water flow?

A: 10-foot soft suction

B: 10-foot semi-rigid suction

C: 35-foot soft connection

D: 3 ½” hose

Answer 3

Answer: C

Explanation:
10-foot soft suction – can be bent but will straighten when charged with water and is very difficult to kink. At 10 feet long, it is the shortest hydrant connection and requires accurate positioning close to the hydrant.
10-foot semi-rigid suction – can be bent and will straighten when charged.
35-foot soft connection – 35 feet long. It provides the largest flow of any hydrant connection, but has the potential to kink, so it needs to be properly flaked out.
3 ½” hose – no limit on the number of lengths that can be used. Allows for the greatest flexibility, but provides the least water flow.
Eng Ch 5 3.2

Question 4

Question 4:
Members of Engine 256 and Ladder 171 were discussing the modified response program when a BARS ALARM response was received. Which company(s) were CORRECT in their response to the alarm?

A: Only the first due engine responded in emergency mode.

B: Only the first due engine and ladder responded in emergency mode.

C: All units responded in emergency mode

D: None of the units responded in emergency mode.

Answer 4

Answer: A

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 6 – ADDENDUM 1
A IS CORRECT – For a BARS alarm response, only the first due engine responds in emergency mode. 2.2

Question 5

Question 5:
When it comes to Major Aircraft incidents at Kennedy and LaGuardia Airports, the correct statement can be found in which choice?

A: The FDNY has the prime responsibility for aircraft incidents on airport property

B: FDNY personnel must not enter the Tarmac without a Port Authority escort unless there is a life threating emergency

C: When supplying a Port Authority Crash Truck with water, engine chauffeurs should not exceed 100 psi at the intakes of the Crash Truck

D: Ensuring an adequate delivery of water is the primary function of the FDNY

Answer 5

Answer: D

Explanation:
AUC 325
A- The Port Authority has the prime responsibility for aircraft incidents on airport property
The FDNY has the prime responsibility for structural incidents on airport property ….Introduction
B- Under NO circumstances are the Fire Department Units to enter the Aeronautical area (Tarmac) without a Port Authority escort…sec 3.10.2.note
C- should not exceed 80 psi….sec 4.1.2
D- sec 4.1.1

Question 6

Question 6:
Units respond to a reported odor of gas at the peck vent at a multiple dwelling. The Lieutenant quickly discusses the features of a peck vent with his members when they dismount the rig. Which choice accurately describes the peck vent?

A: There should normally be an odor of natural gas at a peck vent; it may have a blue cap.

B: There should normally be no odor of natural gas at a peck vent; it may have a blue cap.

C: There should normally be an odor of natural gas at a peck vent; it may have a red cap.

D: There should normally be no odor of natural gas at a peck vent; it may have a red cap.

Answer 6

Answer: D

Explanation:
Natural Gas 4.4.2

Question 7

Question 7:
When placing the aerial ladder to the roof of a building, extend the ladder so that the tip is?

A: At least 5 feet above the point where the ladder comes in contact with the building.

B: At least 2 feet above the point where the ladder comes in contact with the building.

C: At least 5 feet above the roof or parapet.

D: At least 2 feet above the roof or parapet.

Answer 7

Answer: A
Explanation:
Lad 2 7.13

Question 8

Question 8:
Which of the following is CORRECT regarding UTAC channels?

A: The primary channel to be used with cooperating agencies in the NY region is Zone B, Channel 9, UTAC 42D.

B: The secondary IO channel to be used when there are multiple operations in progress and the primary channel is unavailable is 43D.

C: UTAC repeater channels are only intended for interior operations. Direct channels are required for outside communications.

D: When transmitting on a repeater channel, members must press and hold the push to talk button for 1 second before beginning to speak to allow the repeater to activate and not cut off the beginning of the message.

Answer 8

Answer: A

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 14 – ADDENDUM 4
A IS CORRECT – 1.1 & #2 CHART
B – The Secondary IO channel to be used is 41D 2.1.2
C – UTAC repeater channels are only intended for exterior operations and cannot be relied upon for interior operations. 2.2.1 A
D – Members must press and hold the push to talk button for 2 seconds. 2.2.1B

Question 9

Question 9:
You are taking up from an incident involving a tree that fell onto a house injuring several people, when channel 4 news approaches you and requests an interview. Since no superior officer is on scene, you decide to give the interview and answer all of the questions except?

A: Type of incident

B: Number of patients or victims

C: The hospital to which the patients were being transported to

D: Type of injuries of the patients or victims

Answer 9

Answer: D

Explanation:
Members shall not discuss the condition of patients(s) or victim(s) the care provided or other confidential information
AUC 332 sec 3.4.3

Question 10

Question 10:
What is the maximum internal pressure of the airbags when used for lifting purposes?

A: 200 psi

B: 135 psi

C: 118 psi

D: 22 psi

Answer 10

Answer: C

Explanation:
A. WHEN THE HIGH PRESSURE GAUGE FALLS BELOW 200 PSI, CHANGE THE AIR CYLINDER.

B. SET THE LOW PRESSURE GAUGE TO 135 PSI BY TURNING THE PRESSURE REGULATOR KNOB CLOCKWISE.

D. WHEN USED TO SEAL LEAKS, THE 22 PSI SAFETY RELIEF VALVE ON THE ORANGE HOSE IS DESIGNED TO LIMIT THE INTERNAL AIR PRESSURE IN THE BAG TO 22 PSI.

TB Tools 20: 3.1.4, 4.2, 7.2.4

Question 11

Question 11:
Members may encounter dumbwaiter fires in the course of their duties, specifically in nonfireproof multiple dwellings. Which of the following choices is not in accordance with Department standard operating procedures?

A: All units must be immediately notified of a dumbwaiter fire. It is important that the top floor, cockloft and cellar are checked as soon as possible.

B: If fire is reported in the dumbwaiter shaft, the roof firefighter should vent the dumbwaiter bulkhead. If heavy smoke is venting out of a dumbwaiter bulkhead, the roof firefighter should inform his/her officer.

C: If after venting a dumbwaiter bulkhead, the roof firefighter does not see any appreciable volume of smoke venting, this is a positive indication there is no fire in the dumbwaiter shaft and a notification is not required.

D: If the dumbwaiter bulkhead has been previously removed and tarred over, the roof firefighter should notify his/her officer. This could result in rapid extension to the cockloft.

Answer 11

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) If after venting a dumbwaiter bulkhead, the roof firefighter does not see any appreciable volume of smoke venting, the roof firefighter should NOTIFY HIS/HER OFFICER as this may indicate there is an OBSTRUCTION in the shaft below.
Notes: Members should not place any part of their body in the shaft. In most cases these shafts are not in use, but they still may contain heavy objects not substantially secured that may fall through the shaft, such as pulleys, mechanisms, etc.
Lad 3 4.3

Question 12

Question 12:
The TAC U channel has been programmed to allow for FD/PD interagency communications. Which of the following choices is INCORRECT regarding this channel?

A: Zone “B” channel 12 is designated as the TAC “U” Channel. This channel transmits at 5 watts.

B: When the TAC U channel is activated, all operating units shall remain on the Primary tactical channel unless specifically instructed to switch to another channel.

C: If an emergency alert tone is activated, only members of the FDNY will receive the alert over their HT’s and only on the channel on which the EA was activated.

D: Users of Interoperable (I/O) frequencies are reminded to use 10 codes or FD terminology while communicating on these frequencies.

Answer 12

Answer: D

Explanation:
COMMUNiCATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 14 – ADDENDUM 2
Users of Interoperable (I/O) frequencies are reminded to use plain language and refrain from using 10 codes or FD terminology while communicating on these frequencies. 1.1 Note
A – *** This is a change in our manuals from 6/28/22. It’s on your NOE. sec 2.1
B – 3.3
C – 2.2 Note

Question 13

Question 13:
Which tactic/procedure is incorrect when operating at a Con-Ed Substation?

A: Sprinklers, if present, protect only transformers

B: Carbon dioxide extinguishers should not be used as an extinguishing agent at battery room fires

C: When raising Al or TL maintain an 18 foot safe clearance horizontally from the substation’s exterior fence line

D: Ask the Con-Ed White hat to retrieve the information from the FDNY lockbox located outside the substation

Answer 13

Answer: D

Explanation:
AUC 338 add 2
A- A 3 1/2” supply line shall be stretched, but not charged to the sprinkler Siamese if present. if requested by Con-Ed white hat, supply the Siamese with water at the posted pressure. Sprinklers if present protect only the transformers…sec 5.2
B- Dry Chemical extinguishers are to be used…sec 5.5
C- sec 6
D- INSIDE the substation …sec 4.2

Question 14

Question 14:
At motor vehicle emergencies, the goal of vehicle stabilization is to prevent rocking of the vehicle. Which provision outlined below is incorrect?

A: Check under the vehicle for victims before any stabilization methods are taken.

B: Vehicles found on their side or roof shall be secured to a substantial object (apparatus, tree etc.) with a life-saving rope.

C: When deflating tires use vice grips or pliers to remove the valve stem.

D: When stabilizing vehicles on all four wheels, place chocks just behind the front wheels and in front of rear wheels, step side down.

Answer 14

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. Vehicles found on their side or roof shall be secured to a substantial object (apparatus, tree etc.) with UTILITY ROPE.

Disentanglement and Extrication 5.3, 5.4, 5.5, 5.6

Question 15

Question 15:
Members may encounter difficulties when connecting hose to a Fire Department Connection (FDC.) This can include defective/damaged threads, frozen/stuck swivels and broken valves. Of the potential solutions described below, which is incorrect?

A: Tapping the swivel(s) on the FDC with a tool (spanner) may loosen paint, dirt, etc., and allow the swivel to operate.

B: Twist the supply hose 2-3 turns to the left, insert the male end, then twist the male end to the right (clockwise) into one of the female swivels of the FDC.

C: Insert a 3” x 3” x 3” Siamese into one of the female swivels of the FDC, which provides a female coupling for the male coupling of the 3 ½” supply hose to attach to.

D: Attach a 3” double male fitting to the malfunctioning female coupling of the FDC and then couple a 3” double female fitting to the double male to provide a female coupling for the male coupling of the 3 ½” supply hose to attach to.

Answer 15

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) Twist the supply hose 4-5 TURNS to the left, insert the male end, then twist the male end to the right (clockwise) into one of the female swivels of the FDC.
Eng Ch 5 4.3.4

Question 16

Question 16:
Smoke may present itself in many colors. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: Grey smoke indicates that at least some flaming combustion or smoldering combustion is present.

B: The further the smoke travels, the more carbon it can lose, resulting in a grey smoke.

C: Dark smoke that has travelled some distance can cool and large carbon particles suspended in the smoke can adhere to surfaces.

D: In a building issuing dark smoke from some areas and grey smoke from other areas, usually the areas with dark smoke are remote from the fire.

Answer 16

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) In a building issuing dark smoke from some areas and grey smoke from other areas, usually the areas with GREY smoke are remote from the fire.
TB FD Ch 2 3.5.4 C

Question 17

Question 17:
When operating at an aircraft incident, which side of the aircraft is referred to as the “rescue side” of the aircraft due to the layout of doors?

A: Nose side of aircraft

B: Tail side of aircraft

C: Right side of aircraft

D: Left side of aircraft

Answer 17

Answer: D

Explanation:
Port Authority will use this side as a reference point and the primary side for rescues
AUC 325 sec 6.2.4

Question 18

Question 18:
For a member in distress, air may be supplied to the member through the use if the low pressure system by one of the following methods: 1) Via the Universal Air Connection 2) FAST Pak regulator with the member’s facepiece 3) Hansen fitting of the low pressure hose 4) FAST Pak facepiece and regulator. Which methods are correct?

A: 1, 2, 3, 4

B: 1, 2, 3 only

C: 2, 3, 4 only

D: 1, 2, 4 only

Answer 18

Answer: C

Explanation:
THE USE OF THE UNIVERSAL AIR CONNECTION IS A HIGH PRESSURE METHOD

Managing Members in Distress Ch 2 7.5, TB SCBA 9.1

Question 19

Question 19:
Rowframe fires can spread at a rapid pace and it’s beneficial to have the proper resources in place sooner rather than later. Which of the following choices is not in accordance with Department policy?

A: When a floor is fully involved in fire from the front to the rear, a full first alarm assignment is required. It is also mandatory to call for an additional engine and ladder.

B: When two or more floors are fully involved, or a top floor fire has extended into the cockloft, the need for a second alarm must be considered.

C: When two buildings are involved, we have a 2nd alarm situation.

D: Prompt consideration must be given to transmitting a 3rd alarm when it extends beyond two buildings.

Answer 19

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) When a floor is fully involved in fire from the front to the rear, a full first alarm assignment is required. It is also ADVISABLE to call for an additional engine and ladder.
These statements should be memorized word-for-word. Past exams have had questions like these where changing a single word made a statement incorrect.
BS/RF 7.6

Question 20

Question 20:
The Roof Firefighter at a fire in a multiple dwelling is responsible for communicating vital pieces of information to the incident commander. Which of the following choices is INCORRECT?

A: The Location of stairways, fire escapes and party wall balconies.

B: Whether there is a difference in height of the building from front to rear, side to side, or street to street.

C: Persons trapped and their exact location.

D: When roof duties are completed, and the member is descending to conduct searches above the fire.

Answer 20

Answer: D

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 9 – UNIT COMMUNICATIONS
D IS INCORRECT – Not listed as a communication to Incident Commander. As per Ladders 3, that communication is made to the company officer – L-III pg 21 section 10.
A – 9.3.2 E
B – 9.3.2 G
C – 9.3.2 D

Question 21

Question 21:
You are giving a drill on roof operations where a cell site is involved. The only correct point you gave can be found in which choice?

A: Cell site rooms have multiple points of ventilation. If involved in fire enter room and extinguish all visible fire

B: If coaxial cable or antenna grounds are in the way members can move or cut them in order to operate safely on the roof

C: Avoid cutting roof openings too close to cell site installation equipment, coaxial cables, or support system

D: Avoid using portable dry chemical extinguishers at incipient fires

Answer 21

Answer: C

Explanation:
AUC 331
A- Cell site rooms have limited ventilation; operate from the exterior if at all possible…sec 5.9
B- Do not cut or dislodge coaxial cable or antenna grounds….sec 5.7 and 5.10
C- sec 6.10
D- Consider using portable dry chemical extinguishers at incipient fires…sec 6.9

Question 22

Question 22:
Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding CFR documentation and record keeping?

A: A separate PCR is to be completed for each patient treated.

B: In all cases, members shall document the assessment and patient care provided by the CFR company and the EMS providers.

C: A PCR must be completed when patient care is provided by a CFR certified member regardless of response type and/or unit assignment (e.g., CFR certified member on a non-CFR unit performs patient care.)

D: A PCR is not required when a CFR company is on-scene (10-84) at any CFR assignment unless patient care is provided.

Answer 22

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. Members shall document ONLY the assessment and patient care provided by the CFR company. DO NOT DOCUMENT CARE PROVIDED BY THE EMS CREW OR EMS PROVIDERS OTHER THAN WHERE APPLICABLE.

CFR Ch 5 1.2, 1.2.1, 1.2.2

Question 23

Question 23:
Your unit is operating as the first arriving Ladder Company at a 12th floor fire in a 16-story Class 2, Fire Resistive high rise multiple dwelling. This building has only one open, interior stairs providing the only access to the roof. Of the following choices, you should know which choice to be incorrect?

A: The 1st Ladder officer must make a determination whether roof access for ventilation will be attempted.

B: When roof ventilation is to be attempted, and the stairway is an IDLH, two members must be assigned to vent the roof. If the stairway is not an IDLH, one member may be assigned to vent the roof.

C: When roof ventilation is to be attempted, the fire apartment door must be controlled until members verify their arrival on the roof and the bulkhead door is closed or they have attained an area of refuge.

D: When roof ventilation is to be attempted, if door control cannot be maintained, or any other condition exists that will impact the members assigned to roof ventilation, the officer shall immediately communicate this information to them.

Answer 23

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) When roof ventilation is to be attempted, WHETHER OR NOT the stairway is an IDLH, two members must be assigned to vent the roof (1st roof and a member of FE team or 2nd roof).
MD Ch 4 10.1.2 B

Question 24

Question 24:
Which of the following building classifications is CORRECT?

A: A 150x150 Non-Fireproof MD that was renovated using metal C joist is classified as CL3LW.

B: A 25x60 Wood Frame PD that was renovated using metal C joist is classified as CL2LW.

C: A 80x80 15sty Fire Protected MD that was renovated using C joist is classified at CL2R.

D: A 200x200 Heavy Timber structure that was renovated using Mass Timber engineered products should be classified as CL6HT

Answer 24

Answer: A

Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS MANUAL – CHAPTER 4 – CIDS – NEW MATERIAL 3/22
A IS CORRECT – 4.5.3 Ciii – A Non-Fireproof structure which is constructed, renovated, repaired, using any type of structural light-weight materials should be classified as CL3LW.
B – CL4LW
C – CL2LW
D – CL6MT – Constructed, renovated, repaired

Question 25

Question 25:
All vehicles powered by Compressed Natural Gas (CNG), which require a Fire Department permit to operate using such fuel, are required to have a warning placard placed where on the vehicle?

A: All four sides

B: Front and rear bumper

C: Rear bumper only

D: Vehicles powered by Compressed Natural Gas are not required to be placarded

Answer 25

Answer: B

Explanation:
All other CNG powered vehicles registered in the state of NY are likely to be placarded only on the rear bumper
Haz-Mat 1 sec 4.2.1

Question 26

Question 26:
Ladder 300 has young firefighter working her first tour of the one year rotation. After roll call, members are going over the operation of the power saw and make the following comments. They were incorrect in which one?

A: During roof or floor cutting operations, everyone in the vicinity of the saw in operation shall observe as near as possible and practical, a 20 foot radius circle of danger.

B: Use of the power saw from a ladder (except a tower ladder) is not permitted.

C: Only the officer, the operator, and the member designated as the guide may enter the circle of danger.

D: The saw shall always be shut down when unattended.

Answer 26

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. Use of the power saw from a ladder (except a tower ladder) IS NOT RECOMMENDED.

NOTE “A”: THE CHAIN SAW IS 10 FEET

NOTE “C”: THE CHAIN SAW IS ONLY THE CONTROL PERSON AND OPERATOR ALLOWED IN CIRCLE OF DANGER

TB Tools 9 4.7, 4.7.1, 4.8.3, 4.14.2 Note

Question 27

Question 27:
Two members of Tower Ladder 200 were conducting a drill on pedestal to bucket communications. During their conversation, one statement was identified as being incorrect. Indicate the incorrect statement.

A: The Tower Ladder intercom system allows for bucket to pedestal communications and should be the primary means of communication between the bucket and pedestal.

B: A test of the intercom system shall be made each tour and at the initial stages of placing the Tower Ladder into operation.

C: If intercom test results are negative, members shall rely on hand signals for communication between the bucket and pedestal.

D: When communicating, the reference point is always the pedestal; not the bucket position.

Answer 27

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) If intercom test results are negative, members shall rely on the HT for communication between the bucket and pedestal.
A Note: it is the most effective and will limit radio traffic on the HT tactical channel during operations.
TL Ch 1 1.5

Question 28

Question 28:
During extensive structural collapse operations, units may encounter “search markings.” Which description of these markings below is inaccurate?

A: A single slash, with unit identity to the left, indicate search operations are in progress within this area.

B: Two slashes, making an “X,” with unit identity in the left quadrant, indicate all personnel have exited from that structure or area.

C: The time and date that the company/team personnel left a structure should be indicated in the bottom quadrant.

D: The right quadrant of the “X” indicates personal hazards to units/teams (e.g., utilities, open shafts, dangerous areas, rats).

Answer 28

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) The time and date that the company/team personnel left a structure should be indicated in the TOP QUADRANT. The bottom quadrant should contain the number of live and/or expired victims still inside the structure/area. “0” = No Victims.
Collapse Add 2 4.1-4.6

Question 29

Question 29:
All units can be used during Gross Decontamination. One option for setting up a mass Decon is to stretch a handline. When using the handline option, which choice contains incorrect information?

A: A 2 1/2” handline equipped with a AquaStream nozzle is to be used

B: The recommended operating pressure range is between 50-80 psi

C: Consideration can be given to the use of two handlines operating opposite each other, approximately 25’-30’ apart

D: A 1 3/4” handline equipped with a fog nozzle is to be used

Answer 29

Answer: D

Explanation:
2 1/2” handline with Aqua stream nozzle
Haz-Mat 7 sec 2.4.3

Question 30

Question 30:
Successful ventilation tactics begin with the understanding of basic fire dynamics as well as how a ventilation tactic will impact the fire’s behavior. Which statement explaining fire dynamics and ventilation is incorrect?

A: Modern content fires enters an early decay stage. The fire will remain in the decay stage unless it becomes ventilation limited.

B: The exchange of air is bidirectional when there is a single vent opening on the same level as the fire.

C: Modern content fires are largely comprised of hydrocarbons and synthetics which rapidly consume the available oxygen in the fire area as they burn.

D: Modern content fires quickly become ventilation-limited fires due to their higher fuel load.

Answer 30

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. Modern content fires enters an early decay stage. The fire will remain in the decay stage AS LONG AS IT REMAINS VENTILATION LIMITED.

Ventilation 2.2, 2.4.1, 2.4.2, 2.4.3

Question 31

Question 31:
Which choice below reflects the most correct order of priority for accessing the roof of a Class 2, Fire Resistive high rise multiple dwelling?

A: 1. Remote/unaffected Stair with Roof Access. 2. Adjoining Building. 3. Ladder (Aerial). 4. Fire Escape. 5. Open Stairs.

B: 1. Remote/unaffected Stair with Roof Access. 2. Ladder (Aerial). 3. Adjoining Building. 4. Fire Escape. 5. Open Stairs.

C: 1. Adjoining Building. 2. Remote/unaffected Stair with Roof Access. 3. Ladder (Aerial). 4. Fire Escape. 5. Open Stairs.

D: 1. Adjoining Building. 2. Remote/unaffected Stair with Roof Access. 3. Open Stairs. 4. Ladder (Aerial). 5. Fire Escape.

Answer 31

Answer: A

Explanation:
Acronym: RALFO
1. Remote/unaffected Stair with Roof Access
2. Adjoining Building
3. Ladder (Aerial)
4. Fire Escape
5. Open Stairs
Note: Check CIDS for roof access information.
Note: FYI in these buildings the Aerial Ladder is usually not a viable option.
MD Ch 4 10.1.4 C

Question 32

Question 32:
Fires in private dwellings constructed of lightweight materials require very specific tactics. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: When fire is located in the cellar or first floor, and conditions prevent visual identification of the type of construction, an examination could be made in a similar attached exposure.

B: Only under extreme circumstances should the roof of a peaked or flat roof building of lightweight construction be cut with the power saw.

C: When fire is on the top floor and there is clear indication that the fire has not entered the cockloft, roof operations shall be limited to venting the top floor windows and skylights if present, inspecting HVAC duct vents for unusual heat and checking the rear and sides of the building.

D: When fire is on the top floor and there are indications that it has extended to the attic/cockloft, the IC shall be immediately notified, and members shall not be permitted to operate on the roof.

Answer 32

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) Under NO circumstances shall the roof be cut in any peaked or flat roof building of lightweight construction.
Cutting the roof and pushing down the ceiling could expose the cockloft area to additional heat and fire from the top floor. In addition, a saw cut could sever a structural member causing the failure of one or more trusses/joists.
A Note: This inspection shall be assigned by the IC to an available unit.
C Note: All members shall be removed from the roof upon completion of these duties.
Acronym: VHS
Venting top floor windows/skylights
HVAC duct vents inspected for unusual heat
Sides and rear checked
D Note: Any fire present in the attic/cockloft represents the potential for a partial or complete collapse of the roof.
PD Ch 6 4.3.2, 4.3.8, 4.3.20, 4.3.11

Question 33

Question 33:
The incorrect tactic when operating at a vehicle involving Compressed Natural Gas (CNG), can be found in which choice?

A: Extinguish a fire by stopping the flow of gas

B: If the flow of gas cannot be stopped do not extinguish the fire- let it burn

C: If the CNG cylinders are exposed to fire, apply water directly to the cylinders to cool them

D: Establish a minimum safe perimeter of 100’ around the vehicle

Answer 33

Answer: C

Explanation:
DO NOT apply water to CNG cylinders exposed to fire because this may cool the pressure relief device (PRD) resulting in it not activating. This can result in a catastrophic cylinder failure
Haz-Mat 1 sec 4.5.2

Question 34

Question 34:
Members must be familiar with the knots and hitches required for the proper deployment of the KLSR. Which description below contains incorrect information pertaining to these requirements?

A: There is no set predetermined number of wraps for tensionless hitch.

B: The KLSR system requires the use of the figure eight knot with a bight of approximately 10”-12”, and a tensionless hitch.

C: The bowline-on-the-bight with a slippery hitch might be required for use with the KLSR.

D: The red anchor carabiner must hang freely. The red anchor carabiner cannot be placed on the rope leading back to the KLSR.

Answer 34

Answer: D

Explanation:
D. The red anchor carabiner MUST BE PLACED ON THE ROPE LEADING BACK TO THE KLSR. The red anchor carabiner CANNOT HANG FREELY.

THIS IS A NEW TOOL THAT HAS NEVER BEEN TESTED ON A LT EXAM. ANTICIPATE IT BEING ASKED AND KNOW IT COLD

TB Rope 5 Addendum 1 1.1, 1.2, 2.1.3 Note, 2.10 Note

Question 35

Question 35:
At a high rise office building fire, which unit is responsible for conducting a primary search of the floor above the fire?

A: 1st arriving Ladder Company

B: 2nd arriving Ladder Company

C: 3rd arriving Ladder Company

D: 4th arriving Ladder Company

Answer 35

Answer: C

Explanation:
HROB 8.5.1 B8

Question 36

Question 36:
Engine companies should proceed with caution when fighting fires in vacant buildings. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: Engine Companies may be ordered to stretch hose lines to exposures in order to operate exterior hose streams. Hoselines used from this defensive position shall be 2 ½”.

B: Members should stretch hose lines consistent with Department policies for each building type (e.g., stretch a 1 ¾” hose line for a fire in a vacant rowframe building).

C: Engine Companies shall be alert to the need for a 3 ½” hose line to supply a Tower Ladder when consistent with operational needs. Whenever possible, a separate Engine shall be dedicated to the sole task of supplying water to a Tower Ladder in order to ensure proper water delivery.

D: Hose lines may be advanced within the fire building after a fire has been largely extinguished from the exterior and exterior streams have been shut down. Before committing members, however, the interior of the building should be surveyed by a Chief or Company Officer in order to assess its structural stability.

Answer 36

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) Hose lines may be advanced within the fire building after a fire has been largely extinguished from the exterior and exterior streams have been shut down. Before committing members, however, the interior of the building SHALL be surveyed by a CHIEF Officer in order to assess its structural stability.
A Note: When using an exterior hose line from a purely defensive position (i.e., when a unit does not expect to advance a hose line within the structure), members should stretch a 2 ½” hoseline.
Vacants 6.1 A, B, C, E, F

Question 37

Question 37:
Upon arrival to an aircraft incident you are ordered to perform search and rescue in the “A” Sector area of the aircraft. You would expect the “A” Sector to be located where in reference to the aircraft?

A: From the pilots point of view the “A” sector is on the left side of the cockpit

B: From the pilots point of view the “A” sector is on the right side of the cockpit

C: From the pilots point of view the “A” sector is on the left side of the cockpit in the rear behind the wing

D: From the pilots point of view the “A” sector is on the right side of the cockpit in the rear behind the wing

Answer 37

Answer: A

Explanation:
This is a tough question.
From the pilots point of view the “A” sector is on the left side of the cockpit, adjacent to where the pilot sits for fixed winged aircraft. The remaining sectors are then assigned clockwise starting from the “A” sector.
Doors are numbered 1,2,3 starting with the door closet to the cockpit as door number 1
YOU NEED TO LOOK AT DIAGRAM
AUC 325 sec 6.2

Question 38

Question 38:
For fire on the 29th floor of a high rise fireproof multiple dwelling (HRFPMD), what would be the most accurate pressure for the ECC to supply the standpipe with?

A: 235 psi

B: 240 psi

C: 245 psi

D: 250 psi

Answer 38

Answer: C

Explanation:
At a HRFPMD, the ECC should generally supply the standpipe system with a pressure of 105 psi, plus an additional 5 psi per floor of elevation. This is measured to the floor on which the hoseline will be operating. For example, if fire is on the 26th floor of a HRFPMD, the ECC should supply 230 psi to the standpipe system (105 psi-baseline + 125 psi for 25 floors of elevation).
Eng Ch 5 4.3.7

Question 39

Question 39:
When able to locate the source of the leak, if FDNY members can remove power from the area of the leak before natural gas readings reach a maximum of ____ LEL, it should be done.

A: 10%

B: 20%

C: 80%

D: 100%

Answer 39

Answer: C

Explanation:
NOTE: IF ANY READINGS DISPLAY LEVELS OF 80% LEL OR GREATER, THE OPPORTUNITY TO CUT POWER HAS EXPIRED.

NOTE: WHEN UNABLE TO LOCATE THE SOURCE OF THE LEAK, DO NOT SHUT POWER.

Natural Gas 9.2.2

Question 40

Question 40:
Laddering a Brownstone with portable ladders presents specific challenges to operating members. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: Placing a portable ladder at the window of the small room over the front entrance door will be difficult because of the long, high stoop, which may interfere with firefighting operations. Consider placing the ladder at the adjoining window to gain entrance to this small room.

B: There may be 2 doors to the small room over the front entrance door; one from the interior hall and one from a larger adjoining bedroom. If there is no door leading into the small room from the large bedroom and hallway fire conditions prevent normal entry into the small room, access may be gained by breaking through the lath and plaster partition between the two rooms.

C: Some Brownstones have small, elevated or depressed courts in the front of the building, adjacent to the stoop. They generally have a small wall or iron railing around them, creating additional obstacles.

D: In most cases, taking the ladder through the second floor (parlor floor) of an adjoining brownstone and passing it out the rear window to another member in the yard below is faster than using the fire building. It is important to take the ladder through with the tip facing the rear of the building.

Answer 40

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) In most cases, taking the ladder through the second floor (parlor floor) of an adjoining brownstone and passing it out the rear window to another member in the yard below is faster than using the fire building. It is important to take the ladder through with the BUTT facing the rear of the building.
Note: In a row frame, transporting a ladder through the interior of the building to the rear is generally less complicated because there are front and rear doors or window entries at ground level.
Lad 1 10.2