UPDATES PKG EXAM #4

Question 1

Question 1:
There are several new definitions/terms in the Places of Worship bulletin. Choose the correct definition/term.

A: Clearstory- is a high section of wall that contains windows above eye level. These windows are located on the exposure 2 and 4 sides

B: Minaret- is the main body of the church. It provides the central approach to the altar

C: Nave- is a type of tower typically found built into or adjacent to mosques. Due to its height, the Nave must be considered a collapse hazard

D: Transept- is an ornamental tapered pointed architectural structure, usually ending in a spire with a Crucifix or other religious artifact at its tip

Answer 1

Answer: A

Explanation:
B- Minaret- is a type of tower typically found built into or adjacent to mosques. Due to its height, the Minaret must be considered a collapse hazard
C- Nave- is the main body of the church. It provides the central approach to the altar
D- Transept- A transverse section, of any building, which lies across the main body of the building. In churches, a Transept is an area set crosswise to the Nave in a cruciform (cross-shaped)
Places of Worship (August, 2019)

Question 2

Question 2:
Lieutenant Johnson just finished conducting his first roll call as an officer when a firefighter approaches with a defective handie-talkie. Which one procedure is incorrect when placing this radio out of service and acquiring a spare radio?

A: An unusual occurrence report must be completed for any defect found with the radio.

B: Immediately notify the administrative division of the need for a spare radio.

C: Prepare an RT-2 with completed description of the defect of radio as well as unit and position of the radio being placed OOS.

D: Upon receipt of the spare, the following channels must be checked for proper ID: HT-1/Tac 1; HT-2/CMD; and HT-9/Tac SEC.

Answer 2

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. An unusual occurrence report must be completed for any EXCESSIVE DAMAGE TO A RADIO.

THE NEW RADIOS ARE YET TO BE TESTED ON A LT TEST. KNOW THIS CHAPTER WELL

Communication Ch 11 Add 4 2.1

Question 3

Question 3:
Each Assigned and Alternate Unit to the Buckeye Pipeline has been issued two copies of the Buckeye Pipeline Response Manual. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: One book shall be carried on the apparatus; the other shall be placed in a prominent clearly marked and protected place near the housewatch area with the extra wrench and extra cans (at least 3) of Class B AR-AFFF firefighting foam for use by relocated units.

B: Pipeline profile cards in the Manual show the elevation of valves above sea level and the amount of product carried in barrels between each valve. Fuel is measured in barrels and there are 42 gallons per barrel.

C: Pipeline profile cards have also been placed in each valve box for the information and use of responding units. If the laminated profile card is used it should be mailed to the Buckeye Pipeline Coordinator for inspection following use. Missing cards should result in notification to the dispatcher via the Department radio.

D: On the Unit Alarm Assignment page of the Manual, some alternate units are designated as such for more than one company. If not specifically assigned as an alternate for a particular company, the officer shall ascertain from the dispatcher for which company his or her unit is the alternate.

Answer 3

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Pipeline profile cards have also been placed in each valve box for the information and use of responding units. If the laminated profile card is used it should be returned to the valve box; missing cards must be reported VIA EMAIL to the Buckeye Pipeline Coordinator.

Question 4

Question 4:
In the event a member transmits a Mayday for another member (e.g., unconscious member), the transmitting member shall take each of the following actions except?

A: Depress the EAB on their own HT. This will identify the member transmitting the Mayday on EFAS.

B: After the Emergency Alert activation, provide the IC with the information required for the Mayday transmission.

C: After providing the IC with information, if possible, depress the EAB of the member in distress which will identify them on EFAS. Notify the IC via HT prior to EAB activation of the distressed member.

D: Finally, the transmitting member shall reset (cancel) their HT Emergency Alert by depressing and holding the Emergency Alert button of their remote microphone for approximately 2 seconds. The distressed member’s Emergency Alert shall also be deactivated at this time.

Answer 4

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) Finally, the transmitting member shall reset (cancel) their HT Emergency Alert by depressing and holding the Emergency Alert button of their remote microphone for approximately 2 seconds. The distressed member’s Emergency Alert SHALL REMAIN ACTIVATED UNTIL determined it is no longer required.
Comm 9 Add 3 5.1.5

Question 5

Question 5:
Engine 499 arrives first due at a fire on the 16th floor of a high-rise multiple dwelling. The officer orders his members to hook up to the standpipe outlet on the 15th floor. What is the proper pressure that the ECC of Engine 499 should supply to the standpipe system?

A: 175 psi

B: 180 psi

C: 170 psi

D: 185 psi

Answer 5

Answer: B

Explanation:
*THE PRESSURE IS BASED ON THE FLOOR WHERE THE LINE WILL BE OPERATING WHICH IS 16. IT IS 105 PSI + 5 PSI PER FLOOR OF ELEVATION = 105 + (5 X 15 FLOORS OF ELEVATION). THIS IS 105 + 75 = 180 PSI.

REMEMBER THE 16TH FLOOR IS 15 FLOORS OF ELEVATION SINCE THE GROUND FLOOR COUNTS AS 1.

THIS SECTION WAS UPDATED MAY 2022

Engine Ops Ch 8 3.9.9

Question 6

Question 6:
Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding use of of the Electronic Fireground Accountability System (EFAS)?

A: During an operation you may notice an unassigned spare radio in the “RADIO STATUS” area of the EFAS. This means that a spare radio was issued, but the spare radio list was not updated. If possible, the member monitoring EFAS should listen to the HT transmissions and try to identify who has the unassigned spare radio.

B: It is imperative that members utilize their Emergency Alert Button (EAB) when transmitting a Mayday, which will automatically increase HT wattage to 5 watts and sound the Emergency Alert tone ‘Beacon’.

C: When a member activates their EAB, their identity line in EFAS will be automatically highlighted; their company, position, and name will be listed in yellow in both the “RADIO STATUS” and “EMERGENCY ALERTS/MAYDAYS” areas. In addition, a hard copy automatically prints showing the company, position, and time of the Mayday.

D: EMS officers, Haz-Tac Ambulances, and any other EMS unit with an assigned fireground HT that activates the Emergency Alert function will show up in EFAS with their EMS Unit, position, and name.

Answer 6

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) When a member activates their EAB, their identity line in EFAS will be automatically highlighted; their company, position, and name will be listed in RED in both the “RADIO STATUS” and “EMERGENCY ALERTS/MAYDAYS” areas. In addition, a hard copy automatically prints showing the company, position, and time of the Mayday.
A Note: The member who last transmitted is always shown at the TOP of the “RADIO STATUS” screen. The member monitoring EFAS shall note the Spare Radio ID number and the transmission made by the member. This may help to determine the identity of the member using the spare HT.
Comm 9 Add 3 4.4, 5.1.1, 5.1.2

Question 7

Question 7:
Fire officers are required to wear and have the CO meter turned on whenever they are out of quarters (emergency and non-emergency operations). Which one additional statement is incorrect?

A: Two Co meters have been issued to each battalion, ladder and engine company.

B: It is recommended that ladder companies assign the second meter to the OV position.

C: The engines second meter shall be carried with the CFR equipment, attached to the o2 bag.

D: One CO meter shall be worn by the battalion chief/ company officer affixed to the HT radio strap below the remote mic.

Answer 7

Answer: D

Explanation:
D. One CO meter shall be worn by the battalion chief/company officer affixed to the HT radio strap ABOVE THE REMOTE MIC.

SECTION UDATED JANUARY 2021

Haz Mat Ch 4 2.6

Question 8

Question 8:
To resolve a ‘Verbal’ Mayday on EFAS, take all of the following actions except in which incorrect choice?

A: Select the member’s name, and when the dialog box appears, select the “REMOVE MAYDAY” button.

B: When assigning a ‘Verbal’ Mayday to a member on EFAS, the member’s HT wattage is increased to 5 watts and the member’s HT will sound the Emergency Alert tone “Beacon.”

C: Once cleared, know that the member’s highlighted identity line will change from red (active) back to white in the “RADIO STATUS” area.

D: Once cleared, know that the member’s highlighted identity line will change from red (active) to yellow (cleared) and will remain in the “EMERGENCY ALERTS/MAYDAYS” area.

Answer 8

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) When assigning a member a ‘Verbal’ Mayday on EFAS, the member’s HT wattage is NOT increased to 5 watts and the member’s HT does NOT sound the Emergency Alert tone “Beacon.”
Comm 9 Add 3 5.2.3

Question 9

Question 9:
Following collapse of a concrete structure under construction which one consideration discussed below is incorrect?

A: A thermal imaging camera may be a critical tool to assist in locating workers by detecting body heat or movement of the victim(s).

B: The accounting of all workers by construction supervisors does not relieve the FDNY of the responsibility to conduct primary and secondary searches.

C: A list or sign in sheet of all construction workers on site for the day is usually available but not accurate.

D: When a structure is under construction, many safety features are not yet installed or are incomplete.

Answer 9

Answer: C

Explanation:
C. A list or sign in sheet of all construction workers on site for the day is usually ACCURATE AND AVAILABLE. THE IC SHOULD ATTEMPT TO QUICKLY LOCATE SUPERVISORY PERSONNEL WHO HAVE ACCESS TO THIS LIST.

THIS IS A TOTALLY NEW SECTION ADDED TO THIS SAFETY BULLETIN WHEN IT WAS RE-WRITTEN IN APRIL 2022

Safety Bulletin 7 Ch 5 3.3, 3.3, 3.4, 3.5

Question 10

Question 10:
You are the officer of a unit that has responded to a Class “E” alarm. Upon investigation, you find indications of smoke and heat on the floor of the alarm activation. Of the following actions, each would be correct with the exception of which choice?

A: Contact the firefighter in the lobby or chauffeur in the apparatus and request additional help (i.e. “transmit the Box”, “10-76”, etc.)

B: If working in an Engine Company, return to the lobby with firefighters and secure the necessary hose and equipment to prepare to operate. At this time, the alarm panel should be checked again and the elevators should be recalled.

C: Unless there will be an undue delay in the arrival of additional units, the Engine Company shall remain in the lobby and await the arrival of a Ladder Company.

D: If working in a Ladder Company, return to the lobby with firefighters and secure the necessary tools and equipment to prepare to operate. At this time, the alarm panel should be checked again and the elevators should be recalled.

Answer 10

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) If working in a Ladder Company, RETURN THE ELEVATOR CAR to the lobby with a firefighter in preparation of transporting incoming members to the upper floors. The chauffeur shall report to the lobby and gather any information available from the alarm panel, building personnel, etc., and convey that information to incoming units.
In a Ladder Company, personnel need NOT return to the lobby since they have their normal compliment of tools with them.
B Note: Additional information may become available and should be relayed to incoming units.
Comm 6 Add 2 3.7

Question 11

Question 11:
Lieutenant Jones is contacted by a member of her unit who has a few questions about the FDNY’s Bereavement Leave policy. The Lieutenant relays the following information but was incorrect in which one?

A: Bereavement leave will always begin at 0900 following the time of death.

B: Bereavement leave may not be less than 4 calendar days.

C: Vacation leave shall not be interrupted, delayed or extended by notification of death for which bereavement leave would normally be granted.

D: Bereavement leave will be granted for any relative of a member residing in the members household at time of death.

Answer 11

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. Bereavement leave will NORMALLY BEGIN AT 0900 HRS FOLLOWING THE TIME OF DEATH. IN CIRCUMSTANCES WHERE THERE WILL BE A DELAY IN THE SERVICES OF THE DECEASED, MEMBERS MAY, WITH THE APPROVAL OF THE BATTALION AND DIVISION, BEGIN THEIR BEREAVEMENT LEAVE AT 0900 HOURS ON A LATER DATE.

THIS SECTION WAS CHANGED WITH THE RELEASE OF THE NEW BULLETIN IN APRIL 2022

PAID 1 Ch 3 1.1.1, 2.5, 2.7 2.8

Question 12

Question 12:
EFAS has many features that contribute to the safety of members. Individuals monitoring EFAS should be familiar with this application and should know which choice to be incorrect?

A: The member monitoring EFAS has the option of setting a “FLAG” for a member. When the EFAS monitoring member sets the “FLAG” they must notify the Incident Commander in case further action is warranted.

B: A flagged member will remain flagged if a Mayday is activated for that member. If the Mayday is resolved for the flagged member, the flag will not be cleared and must be manually cleared by the member monitoring EFAS.

C: A snapshot of currently displayed transmissions can be manually printed by selecting the “PRINT TXs” button. The first transmission printed will be the first visible transmission in the “RADIO STATUS” area. Scroll to the desired transmissions before selecting “PRINT TXs.”

D: EFAS defaults to HT-1/TAC-1. It has the capability of monitoring any of the programmed radio channels, including FDNY-specific channels, UTAC, and repeater channels; however, it can only monitor one channel at a time.

Answer 12

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) A flagged member will remain flagged if a Mayday is activated for that member. If the Mayday is resolved for the flagged member, the flag WILL AUTOMATICALLY be cleared.
D Note: Therefore, a separate Battalion/Division/EFAS-equipped vehicle in conjunction with an EFAS-trained member is required for each channel in use (e.g., primary tactical, secondary tactical, primary command).
Comm 9 Add 3 5.3.2, 5.5, 5.5.1, 6.1

Question 13

Question 13:
Which class of fire is incorrectly described below?

A: Class A- Common combustibles (wood, paper, cloth, etc)

B: Class B- Flammable liquids and gases

C: Class C- Energized electrical equipment

D: Class D- Cooking oils and fats

Answer 13

Answer: D

Explanation:
Class A- Common combustibles (wood, paper, cloth, etc)
Class B- Flammable liquids and gases
Class C- Energized electrical equipment
Class D- Combustible metals
Fire Dynamics (May, 2021) ch 1 sec 4 Class K- Cooking oils and fats

Question 14

Question 14:
In 2020 the FDNY released a new search rope bulletin outlining the features and use of a new search. Which one feature below is correct?

A: The rope is 150 feet long with a double-action snap hook at the working end and a single-action snap hook at the opposite end that secures the rope to the bottom of the bag.

B: The distance/directional markers are cone shaped; the narrow end of the cone clearly identifies the direction into the IDLH.

C: When a unit deploys the search rope they must notify the IC or Sector/Group Supervisor.

D: Repack and inspect the rope monthly.

Answer 14

Answer: C

Explanation:
A. The rope is 200 FEET LONG with a double-action snap hook at the working end and a single-action snap hook at the opposite end that secures the rope to the bottom of the bag.

B. The distance/directional markers are cone shaped; the narrow end of the cone clearly identifies the direction OF EGRESS OUT OF THE IDLH.

D. Repack and inspect the rope QUARTERLY

MANY DIFFERENCES BETWEEN THE OLD ROPE AND NEW ROPE

Rope 6 2.1, 3.2, 5.1, 12.2

Question 15

Question 15:
All members should know proper terminology when making transmissions at the scene of a fire. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: In a Brownstone building: “Engine 2 to Command, fire is located on the first floor.”

B: In a Brownstone-type Rowframe building: “Engine 2 to Command, fire is located in the basement.”

C: In a Brownstone with fire on the 3rd and 4th floor: “Engine 2 to Engine 2 Chauffeur, special call an extra engine and truck.”

D: In a Brownstone with heavy fire in the cellar and 1st floor: “Engine 2 to Engine 2 Chauffeur, transmit a second alarm.”

Answer 15

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) In a Brownstone-type Rowframe building: “Engine 2 to Command, fire is located on the FIRST FLOOR.”
Note: For Brownstones and Brownstone-type Rowframes, the word “basement” shall not be used in fireground communications. Members referring to the first story of the building during fireground communications shall only use the terminology “First Floor.”
Note: In the “Brownstone” section of this bulletin, 4.4 states “Special call an extra engine and ladder for two floors of fire. Transmit a second alarm for a heavy fire in the cellar and basement.” Remember, when transmitting about the “basement” only “first floor” terminology should be used.
BS/RF 2.1.1, 4.4, 5.1.2

Question 16

Question 16:
There are several new definitions found in the newly released Fire Dynamics bulletin. Choose the incorrect definition

A: Pyrolysis is the chemical decomposition of a solid material that is caused by the absorption of heat. When pyrolysis of a material occurs, gas is released from the solid material. Pyrolysis often precedes combustion

B: The Fire Triangle illustrates the elements required for non-flaming combustion

C: The Fire Tetrahedron illustrates the elements required for flaming combustion

D: Flash Point is the highest temperature of a liquid at which that liquid gives off sufficient vapors to ignite, but will not continue to burn

Answer 16

Answer: D

Explanation:
Fire Dynamics (May, 2021) ch 1
A- sec 5.2
B- sec 2.4.1
C- sec 2.4.2
D- Flash Point is the LOWEST temperature of a liquid at which that liquid gives off sufficient vapors to ignite, but will not continue to burn…sec 6.2

Question 17

Question 17:
Which one duty of the second engine company officer at a high rise office building fire is incorrect?

A: This officer should normally ensure proper HT communications exist between the standpipe outlet and the first arriving engine nozzle team by monitoring HT communications.

B: If there are water problems affecting the operation of the first hoseline, the second engine officer must proceed to the fire floor to determine the cause.

C: The second engine officer must advise the IC when members of this unit are assisting the first engine advance into the IDLH.

D: This officer must advise the IC when additional assistance is required on the first hoseline.

Answer 17

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. If there are water problems affecting the operation of the first hoseline, the second engine officer MAY NEED TO REMAIN AT OR NEAR THE OUTLET UNTIL THE WATER SUPPLY PROBLEMS HAVE BEEN RESOLVED.

A LOT OF NEW WORDING IN THIS SECTION UPDATED MAY 2022

High Rise Office 9.2

Question 18

Question 18:
Of the following Buckeye Pipeline response duties, which is correct and in accordance with Department policy?

A: Valves should always be closed as per duties outlined in the response card manual, except when a unit is required to protect life or property. If a unit is diverted from isolation duties, the dispatcher must be immediately notified by the unit officer.

B: Patrolling the pipeline to locate the leak will be on foot or by apparatus as designated in the response manual. When units have the responsibility of both closing a manual valve and patrolling to adjacent valve(s), shutting the valve shall take place prior to patrolling.

C: Foot patrols are conducted by two handie-talkie equipped firefighters. When a unit officer determines that the duties of shutting down valves and patrolling the pipeline cannot be accomplished, the officer must request the response of another unit directly through the dispatcher.

D: Upon receipt of a 9000 series box, prior to leaving quarters, confirm your unit is equipped with the special valve wrench and Buckeye Pipeline Response Manual. Any unit special called which does not have the special valve wrenches or Buckeye Pipeline Response Manual shall notify the dispatcher and proceed to the box location.

Answer 18

Answer: C

Explanation:
A) Valves should always be closed as per duties outlined in the response card manual, except when a unit is required to protect life LIFE a serious, life-threatening situation. If a unit is diverted from isolation duties, the dispatcher must be immediately notified by the unit officer.
A Note: The dispatcher will special call a designated alternate unit to carry out the isolation duties.
B) Patrolling the pipeline to locate the leak will be on foot or by apparatus as designated in the response manual. When units have the responsibility of closing a manual valve and patrolling to adjacent valve(s), BOTH functions are to be carried out SIMULTANEOUSLY.
D) Upon receipt of a 9000 series box, prior to leaving quarters, confirm your unit is equipped with the special valve wrench and Buckeye Pipeline Response Manual. Any unit special called which does not have the special valve wrenches or Buckeye Pipeline Response Manual shall RESPOND TO THE QUARTERS of the nearest unit so equipped and secure this equipment.
D Note: Units shall contact the Dispatcher to ascertain the location of the nearest unit quarters with such equipment.
AUC 149 6.2, 6.2.1, 6.3.2, 7.1, 7.2

Question 19

Question 19:
A vacant building may be sealed or unsealed. Which type of buildings are more likely to be structurally unstable? Which type of buildings present a higher probability of fire extension to exposures?

A: sealed; sealed

B: sealed; unsealed

C: unsealed; sealed

D: unsealed; unsealed

Answer 19

Answer: D

Explanation:
UPDATED INFORMATION WHEN BULLETIN RELEASED IN JANUARY 2020

Vacants 4.2 #1

Question 20

Question 20:
During company drill on Buckeye Pipeline response, one member made an incorrect statement. Which statement made was incorrect?

A: Units performing isolation duties will announce to the dispatcher which valve location they are responding to, when they are “10-84” at the valve location, when they have closed the valve and when they have completed their patrol duties.

B: During patrol duties away from the apparatus it is vital that Officers remain in contact with the Borough Dispatcher. The Company Officer shall have one member switch their Handie-Talkie to the appropriate borough frequency and remain with the Officer in order to deliver these communications to the dispatcher and maintain situational awareness.

C: Upon confirmation of a leak, transmit a second alarm and a 10-60 for the leak location.

D: When transmitting the appropriate signal for confirmation of a leak, the following information shall be included in the preliminary report to the dispatcher: Location of the leak, Amount of product, Topography and Exposures.

Answer 20

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Upon confirmation of a leak, transmit a second alarm and a 10-86 for the leak location.
B Note: For safety, this member must be teamed with another member who is operating on HT channel 1 -Tactical 1.
D Note: L. A. T. E.
Location of the leak
Amount of product
Topography
Exposures
AUC 149 7.6-7.9

Question 21

Question 21:
The low air whistle of the fast pak activates at ________ remaining in the cylinder. When use of the fast pak is anticipated, it is recommended the member assigned to monitor the air turn on the cylinder ________.

A: 1/4; prior to entering the IDLH

B: 1/4; when arriving at the location of the member in distress

C: 1/2; prior to entering the IDLH

D: 1/2; when arriving at the location of the member in distress

Answer 21

Answer: B

Explanation:
BOTH NEW POINTS IN THE NEW FAST PAK BULLETIN

SCBA Addendum 1 8.3.2; 13.4

Question 22

Question 22:
Class “E” and “J” alarm investigative procedures are correctly indicated below in all choices except?

A: The officer of a single unit responding to a Class “E” or Class “J” alarm, while a Battalion Chief monitors the alarm, shall ensure signal 10-84 is transmitted upon arrival.

B: On arrival, the officer shall enter the building with all firefighters except the chauffeur, who shall remain in the apparatus to monitor both the Department Radio and handie-talkie for additional information. The chauffeur shall also relay information between the officer and the dispatcher.

C: Members entering the building shall be equipped with their personal protective equipment and SCBA. Ladder Companies shall bring their usual compliment of tools and Engine Companies shall bring forcible entry tools into lobby in addition to rolled up lengths of hose.

D: After investigating the cause of the alarm and determining that no additional help is required, the unit shall promptly transmit the appropriate signal.

Answer 22

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Members entering the building shall be equipped with their personal protective equipment and SCBA. Ladder Companies shall bring their usual compliment of tools and Engine Companies shall bring forcible entry tools into lobby; at this time NO ROLLED UP LENGTHS of hose will be required.
Comm 6 Add 2 3.1 - 3.3

Question 23

Question 23:
High-pressure pumping is defined as operating at discharge pressures over what pressure?

A: 200

B: 250

C: 300

D: 350

Answer 23

Answer: C

Explanation:
CHANGED WITH RELEASE OF NEW ENGINE OPS IN AUGUST 2021

Engine Ops Ch 8 Addendum 1 1.4

Question 24

Question 24:
In certain areas of the city the Buckeye Pipeline runs parallel and adjacent to railroad tracks. Specifically, in Brooklyn and Queens, the Long Island Railroad tracks are used by the New York & Atlantic Railway for the transportation of freight. Which of the following choices is incorrect?

A: These trains are diesel powered since the line is not electrified. These trains have both radio and cellular telephone contact with the New York & Atlantic Yardmaster.

B: Requests to stop train traffic must be accomplished through the Brooklyn or Queens Dispatcher by contacting the Yardmaster. The New York & Atlantic Yardmaster will order all trains to stop until all Fire Department members are clear of the tracks.

C: For an added measure of safety, the Incident Commander must position “flagpersons” at least 1,000 feet on each side of the incident. These “flag-persons” must be equipped with handie-talkies, flashlights, and have a clear understanding of their responsibilities and how to accomplish them.

D: New York & Atlantic train crews will respond to a flashlight being swung up and down vertically as a signal to stop.

Answer 24

Answer: D

Explanation:
D) New York & Atlantic train crews will respond to a flashlight being swung SIDE TO SIDE HORIZONTALLY as a signal to stop.
Note: In North Queens, certain parts of the railroad tracks will be electrified. Units could encounter both electrically powered and diesel powered trains. The Incident Commander must initiate the following procedures in order to protect members operating near these tracks:
Request the power be shut off, and that train traffic be stopped, through the Queens Fire Dispatcher.
Position “flag-persons” at least 1,000 feet on each side of the incident, as a precautionary measure, to stop train traffic.
AUC 149 6.4

Question 25

Question 25:
There are 4 stages of fire; Incipient, Growth, Fully Developed, and Decay. At which stage does Roll Over and Flash Over occur?

A: Incipient

B: Growth

C: Fully Developed

D: Decay

Answer 25

Answer: B

Explanation:
This is written in Bold
Fire Dynamics (May, 2021) ch 2 sec 1.2.3

Question 26

Question 26:
In 2014 a new fire code was enacted that requires auxiliary radio communications systems (ARCS) in all newly constructed High-Rise buildings. Which one feature of this technology is described correctly?

A: When a lower strength signal is received, it will re-transmit the signal via installed ARC infrastructure allowing it to travel shorter distances, providing greater signal penetration throughout the building or facility.

B: Duplex radio repeater systems will support multiple simultaneous transmissions.

C: There will be no audible warning on the handie-talkie or visual indication in the lobby that the repeater system has failed or is on the verge of failing.

D: Failure of the repeater system, for any reason, will still allow communications on the repeater channel.

Answer 26

Answer: C

Explanation:
A. When a lower strength signal is received, it will re-transmit the signal via installed ARC infrastructure allowing it to travel LONGER DISTANCES, providing greater signal penetration throughout the building or facility.

B. Duplex radio repeater systems WILL NOT SUPPORT multiple simultaneous transmissions.

D. Failure of the repeater system, for any reason, WILL ALSO NEGATE ALL communications on the repeater channel.

THERE WERE SIGNIFICANT CHANGES TO THIS CHAPTER WHEN RELEASED IN JUNE 2020

Communications Ch 13 2.1

Question 27

Question 27:
Which of the following choices is incorrect regarding Buckeye Pipeline operations?

A: The “primary consideration” is the evacuation of the area involved. Avenues of escape must remain open for civilians and FD personnel.

B: Vapors of flammable liquids are heavier than air and may drift into cellars, sewers, manholes, or subways with a potential for explosion and fire. Do not hesitate to cover unignited pools of spilled fuel with Class B (AR-AFFF) firefighting foam.

C: Department apparatus should not be brought closer than 600’ to a leak. This not only removes a source of ignition but removes personnel from any vapor cloud present.

D: Engine companies responding from quarters on the second alarm for a street box associated with a leak from the pipeline should place additional cans (at least 3 cans) of Class B firefighting foam on the apparatus. Engine companies out of quarters, receiving a notification to respond to a second alarm for a pipeline leak must not return to quarters for the additional cans of firefighting foam.

Answer 27

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) Department apparatus should not be brought CLOSER THAN 500’ to a leak. This not only removes a source of ignition but removes personnel from any vapor cloud present.
B Note: Explosions in sewer lines may damage other underground utilities. Request response from utility companies.
AUC 149 7.13, 7.15, 7.17, 7.18, 7.20, 7.21

Question 28

Question 28:
Units are operating at a fire in apartment 4A on the 4th floor of a multiple dwelling. Regarding the horizontal ventilation operations of the fire area, the ladder company officer inside the fire area shall consider the following points. Which one is incorrect?

A: Ensure door control at the fire area entrance and evaluate the ventilation profile at the entry point; pay particular attention to the air being pulled into the fire area.

B: Ventilation points that are behind your operating position may place you in a flow path; control and limit flow paths until there is a charged line is advancing into the fire building.

C: If the officer encounters a high heat and heavy smoke condition without a charged hoseline, he/she should consider directing members to immediately exit the fire area.

D: If the officer encounters a high heat and heavy smoke condition without a charged hoseline, he/she should consider limiting additional ventilation; horizontal ventilation prior to extinguishment will not sufficiently cool or improve conditions but will allow the fie to grow, potentially placing members in an untenable situation.

Answer 28

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. Ventilation points that are behind your operating position may place you in a flow path; control and limit flow paths until there is a charged line is advancing WITHIN THE FIRE AREA TO EXTINGUISH THE FIRE.

Ventilation 8.1.1

Question 29

Question 29:
Newly promoted officers may work in certain Divisions where their units respond to Class “E” and “J” alarms. Which of the following choices is not in accordance with Department policy?

A: If a Class “E” alarm is the only alarm received from a given address, one Engine or one Ladder Company shall be dispatched.

B: If a Class “J” alarm is the only alarm received from a given address between the hours of 0700 through 1900 hours, one Engine or one Ladder Company shall be dispatched.

C: If a Class “E” alarm is for a Carbon Monoxide (CO) Detector activation, one Engine or one Ladder Company shall be dispatched.

D: If after arrival at the building location of a Class “E” alarm, and making contact with building personnel, the officer of the sole responding unit determines that the alarm is for a CO detector activation, the officer shall notify the borough dispatcher that they are investigating a CO alarm activation.

Answer 29

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) If a Class “E” alarm is for a Carbon Monoxide (CO) Detector activation, one Engine AND one Ladder Company shall be dispatched.
D Note: Class “E” alarms from certain occupancies require a minimum response of 3 Engines, 2 Ladders and a Battalion Chief. This response will be indicated in the CIDS message when a Class “E” alarm is received for these occupancies.
Note: Engine Companies are assigned to respond to Class “E” alarms during the months of January, March, May, July, September and November. Ladder Companies are assigned during the months of February, April, June, August, October and December.
Comm 6 Add 2 2.1-2.3

Question 30

Question 30:
Which post-fire consideration at a lithium ion energy storage system emergency is described correctly?

A: Consult subject matter expert (SME) on scene—SME is required to be on scene within 1 hour.

B: FDNY personnel may open container/cabinet doors after consultation with SME in order to extinguish the fire.

C: FDNY personnel shall only enter container to search for life.

D: No overhauling shall be performed on any ESS.

Answer 30

Answer: D

Explanation:
A. Consult subject matter expert (SME) on scene—SME is required to be on scene WITHIN 2 HOURS.

B. FDNY personnel may open container/cabinet doors after consultation with SME AND THE FIRE IS EXTINGUISHED.

C. FDNY personnel shall NOT ENTER ANY CONTAINER.

Haz Mat Ch 19 6.0

Question 31

Question 31:
Precautionary hoselines shall be stretched as necessary at manhole/underground electric utility fires and emergencies. Engines should following the information presented in each of the choices below except?

A: Generally, it is preferred to await the arrival of Con Edison without placing water or FireIce into a manhole, vault or service box; however, if size-up dictates, water or FireIce may be operated into these underground structures prior to the arrival of Con Edison by order of an on scene FD Chief Officer (BC/ABC or higher in rank).

B: Operating water into a manhole, vault or service box is most effective if the cover is of the vented type or the cover is already removed (by explosion or by Con-Ed).

C: When utilizing water from a hose line, maintain a distance of at least 10 feet from the nozzle to the manhole, vault or service box and use a fog nozzle to reduce or prevent any shock hazard.

D: Do not use water or FireIce as an initial tactic on a combustible liquid transformer fire (indicated by a large volume of fire/ flames 10 feet or more in height). Use of water or water agents such as Fire Ice may cause a boil-over in this situation.

Answer 31

Answer: C

Explanation:
C) When utilizing water from a hose line, maintain a distance of at least 25 FEET from the nozzle to the manhole, vault or service box and use a fog nozzle to reduce or prevent any shock hazard.
C Note: Adjoining manholes & service boxes should be identified and clear of civilian and FD personnel before starting water.
C Note: Success in the use of water hinges upon directly contacting the burning cables with the stream. The cables are hung on the walls inside the manhole. For this reason, reposition as necessary to have the stream penetrate manhole from different angles.
AUC 180 4.6-4.7.8

Question 32

Question 32:
The newest type of saw blade in the FDNY’s arsenal is the diamond blade. Which one characteristic of this blade is incorrect?

A: This blade is diamond brazed for use on the roof saw.

B: It generates 90% less sparks than abrasive discs.

C: One blade should outlast 150 quality abrasive discs.

D: If the blade begins to heat up and glow red during use, discontinue using that blade until it has cooled down.

Answer 32

Answer: A

Explanation:
A. This blade is diamond brazed for use on the FORCIBLE ENTRY SAW.

Tools 9 Appendix 1 2.3.1, 2.3.9, 2.3.10, 2.3.13

Question 33

Question 33:
Proper use of the Electronic Fireground Accountability System (EFAS) is critical to ensuring member safety at a fire operation. Which of the following is not in accordance with Department policy?

A: It shall be the responsibility of the first arriving Battalion Firefighter, after performing their primary duties, to monitor EFAS until relieved by an EFAS-trained member of the Firefighter Assist and Search Team (FAST) Unit.

B: Upon arrival of the FAST Unit, the EFAS-trained member designated at roll call to monitor EFAS shall report to the Battalion vehicle being used to monitor EFAS. This FAST Unit member will then monitor EFAS while the Battalion Firefighter monitors the Battalion’s FAST Unit HT.

C: When the Division is on scene, it shall be the responsibility of the Division Back-up Firefighter, if available, to report to the Battalion vehicle being used to monitor EFAS to either assist the EFAS trained member of the FAST unit or relieve the Battalion firefighter if not yet relieved by an EFAS-trained member of the FAST Unit.

D: The member monitoring EFAS shall be identified by radio designation “EFAS” when communicating by HT, (e.g., “EFAS to Command” “Command to EFAS”.)

Answer 33

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) Upon arrival of the FAST Unit, the EFAS-trained member designated at roll call to monitor EFAS shall report to the Battalion vehicle being used to monitor EFAS. This FAST Unit member will then monitor BOTH EFAS and the Battalion’s FAST Unit HT.
Note: All regularly assigned Divisions, Battalions, Field Communications, and Marine companies 1, 6, and 9 are equipped with EFAS.
Comm 9 Add 3 2.1-2.4

Question 34

Question 34:
Several protocols for fire/ems communications are outlined below. Which one is incorrect?

A: When responding to CFR and non-fire incidents, a CFR unit that wants to transmit critical information directly to the EMS dispatcher but cannot determine the appropriate EMS borough frequency should transmit on EMS-CW1.

B: If a CFR unit arrives and an EMS unit is on-scene, the fire unit will initiate contact utilizing fire handie-talkie channel 10 with unit designation (i.e. “engine 100 to EMS”).

C: EMS borough frequencies are available on engine and ladder fire apparatus and are not to be used for routine requests.

D: When fire units are transmitting on EMS borough or citywide frequencies do not use box number, 10-codes or fire jargon.

Answer 34

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. If a CFR unit arrives and an EMS unit is on-scene, the fire unit will initiate contact utilizing fire handie-talkie CHANNEL 1 with unit designation (i.e. “engine 100 to EMS”).

CHANNEL 10 IS NO LONGER USED. IT IS NOW THE ENCRYPTED SECURED COMMAND CHANNEL

THIS CHAPTER WAS REVOKED AND REISSUED IN JUNE 2022

Communication Ch 14 Addendum 1 2.2, 2.5, 2.6, 2.7

Question 35

Question 35:
Two members of Engine 100 were discussing hose maintenance when one made an incorrect comment. Indicate the incorrect comment.

A: Hose folded into a completed horseshoe should be roughly 4 feet long.

B: All hose must be tested for serviceability each year to 250 psi (annual hose test).

C: To place hose out of service (OOS), complete form RT-3 and attach it to the OOS hose.

D: When hose is being placed out-of-service, it is arranged in a single roll. The male coupling should be placed on the inside when single rolled.

Answer 35

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) All hose must be tested for serviceability each year to 300 PSI (annual hose test).
Eng Ch 3 Add 3 3.3.1 D, 3.5.2, 5.1, 6.1

Question 36

Question 36:
At a recent drill on Places of Worship, the Lieutenant made several statements. The Lieutenant was incorrect in which statement?

A: The attic vent opening is typically located on the front or rear of the long side of a place of worship. When located in the front, it will be a few feet above the Rose window.

B: When fire is not visible, but suspected to be in the attic/cockloft area, the first priority is to operate a Tower Ladder stream into the attic vent

C: Ceiling height in these buildings can be as high as 60 feet. Thermal Imaging Cameras must be used to evaluate heat and fire conditions above

D: Choir lofts are often found above the Clearstory windows. A small narrow stair usually provides access to this area making access difficult

Answer 36

Answer: D

Explanation:
Choir lofts are often found above the main entrance below the large Rose window. A small narrow stair usually provides access to this area making access difficult. It is common for the pipes from this organ to partially block part of the Rose window. When fire involves the underside of the choir loft, the possibility of collapse is present
Places of Worship (August, 2019) pages 6-7

Question 37

Question 37:
Members of Ladder 385 are at the rock for KLSR education day. During the discussion about the rope the following statements were made. Which one was correct?

A: During a lowering operation the KLSR will always be used with an energy absorber.

B: The KLSR rope will be marked every one (1) foot; the one foot mark is designed to assist the operator in identifying speed.

C: For a single slide, the KLSR will be used in conjunction with a mechanical decent control device, presently the Petzl I’D L.

D: The KLSR is 1-inch in diameter.

Answer 37

Answer: A

Explanation:
B. The KLSR rope will be marked every one (1) METER; the one METER mark is designed to assist the operator in identifying speed.

C. FOR A LOWERING OPERATION the KLSR will be used in conjunction with a mechanical decent control device, presently the Petzl I’D L. FOR A SINGLE SLIDE EVOLUTION FOUR (4) TURNS ON THE PERSONAL HARNESS HOOK ARE REQUIRED.

D. The KLSR is 1/2 INCH in diameter.

Rope 10 1.1, 1.5, 1.6, 3.1

Question 38

Question 38:
Which duty of the officer at a Class “E” or “J” alarm is listed incorrectly?

A: The officer shall make contact with building personnel, inquire as to the alarm source and direct building personnel to reset the alarm system. If the alarm panel does reset, the officer shall remain approximately one to two minutes to ensure that the reset holds.

B: If the alarm panel does not reset or is again activated, the officer must view the panel for the alarm location and verify the floor from which the alarm is being transmitted. In addition to the member remaining in the apparatus, the officer shall leave an additional member of the in the lobby.

C: The officer and remaining members investigate while one firefighter remains with the elevator, if an elevator was used.

D: If the alarm is determined to be for a Carbon Monoxide Detector activation, the officer shall notify the dispatcher, then investigate the area of activation regardless of alarm status. No attempt to reset the alarm shall be made without an investigation of the alarm location.

Answer 38

Answer: A

Explanation:
A) The officer shall make contact with building personnel, inquire as to the alarm source and direct building personnel to reset the alarm system. If the alarm panel does reset, the officer shall remain approximately TWO to THREE minutes to ensure that the reset holds.
Comm 6 Add 2 3.4-3.6

Question 39

Question 39:
Lightweight hose is a relatively new addition to the FDNY. Engine company members are discussing its uses at roll call and make the following comments but were incorrect in which one?

A: The control firefighter should supply the hoseline with 80 psi for a 3 length stretch with two lengths of 2 1/2 inch hose, one length of 2 inch hose, and a nozzle with 1 inch tip.

B: When using the standpipe in a commercial occupancy only the lead length of hose may be 2 inch.

C: A 1 3/4 hose must not be stretched from a standpipe outlet.

D: In a residential occupancy, a lead length of 2 1/2 inch hose should be considered in situations in which adequate pressure may not be immediately available from the standpipe outlet.

Answer 39

Answer: B

Explanation:
B. When using the standpipe in a commercial occupancy ALL HOSELINES STRETCHED FROM THE OUTLET WILL BE 2 1/2 INCH.

NOTE “D”: SOME EXAMPLES ARE AN OUTLET WITH A PRV OR A BUILDING WHERE THE ECC WILL BE DELAYED SUPPLYING THE FDC. IN THESE SITUATIONS, THE LARGER DIAMETER OF THE 2 1/2 INCH HOSE WILL ALLOW FOR BETTER PERFORMANCE AT LOWER SUPPLY PRESSURES.

A LOT OF NEW INFORMATION HERE WITH RELEASE OF ENGINE OPS IN AUGUST 2021

Engine Ops Ch 8 5.3, 7.6.2, 7.6.3

Question 40

Question 40:
Two newly promoted officers discussing the Electronic Fireground Accountability System (EFAS) disagreed on one statement made, which was later found to be incorrect. Which statement was incorrect?

A: A member who activated their Emergency Alert Button will have their identity line remain red in EFAS until the Emergency Alert is resolved and the HT is reset. Once the Mayday is “cleared” in EFAS, the member’s highlighted identity line will change from red (active) back to white in the “RADIO STATUS” area and change from red (active) to yellow (cleared) in the “EMERGENCY ALERTS/MAYDAYS” area.

B: Members can resolve an inadvertent ‘Manual’ Emergency Alert by depressing and holding the EAB of their remote microphone until the reset tone is heard (approximately 1/4 second)

C: The EFAS system is capable of handling multiple Emergency Alert transmissions at the same time. All active Maydays will appear in red in both the “RADIO STATUS” and the “EMERGENCY ALERTS/MAYDAYS” area and the member monitoring EFAS may have to utilize the scroll bar in order view all Maydays that were transmitted.

D: If a member verbally transmits a Mayday message on their HT, but does not activate their Emergency Alert Button, the member monitoring EFAS shall highlight that member by utilizing the MDT touch screen and assign them a “Mayday.” Once a Mayday is assigned, a hard copy will print showing the member’s company, position, and time the Mayday was assigned.

Answer 40

Answer: B

Explanation:
B) Members can resolve an inadvertent ‘Manual’ Emergency Alert by depressing and holding the EAB of their remote microphone until the reset tone is heard (approximately 2 seconds).
Comm 9 Add 3 5.1.3, 5.1.4, 5.2