Section 4, Chapter 3 - Approach Radar Control Procedures

Question 1

What are the responsibilities of the Approach Radar Controller (APR) at EGAA?

Answer 1

Traffic Identification and Control:

Identify and control inbound and outbound traffic.
Vector aircraft for an instrument approach, transfer to an adjacent ATSU, or continue on own navigation.

Arrival Information:

• Ensure arriving aircraft receive current arrival information:
• QNH/QFE.
• Type of approach.
• Any unserviceability/essential aerodrome information affecting the approach.
• Advise inbound aircraft of the approach chart for Runway 25 (ILS/DME z/y RWY25).

Clearances:

• Issue clearances into the Belfast TMA for inbound aircraft not operating under Standing Agreement procedures.

Control of Transit Aircraft:

• Control transit aircraft transferred for any part of their flight.

Spacing Requirements:

• INT or FIN ensures spacing required by the Tower controller, subject to wake turbulence and radar separation.
• Annotate spacing requirements on the Information Bar on EFPS.
• Agree and annotate spacing for multiple runways on an Info strip.
• The spacing between successive aircraft is defined as the range from touchdown of the second aircraft when the first aircraft touches down.
• Spacing requirements do not apply to aircraft making a visual approach or flying under VFR.
• Reduced separation may be used to expedite traffic, with prior coordination between Tower and INT.

Delegation of Control:

• May delegate control to the Approach Coordinator and/or No. 2 Radar Controller as appropriate.
• Ensure pertinent traffic details, restrictions, and type of radar service are included in the handover.
• Ensure no doubt exists as to responsibilities when delegation is made.

Communication:

• Inform the Approach Coordinator of any coordination or communication with radar ATCOs at other units and with the Aerodrome Controller.

Question 2

What radar services can the APR provide and what limitations exist for traffic operating in certain parts of Northern Ireland?

Answer 2

Radar Services:

• APR may provide radar services as outlined in MATS Part 1, Section 3, as requested.

Coverage Limitations:

• For traffic operating over some parts of Northern Ireland, especially southwest of the TMA, neither PC RTF nor radar can provide coverage at lower levels.
• Aldergrove APR Control provides a limited service in the FIR when traffic permits.
• Coordination is required with West Coast Sector/Antrim/FIR Sectors as appropriate.

Question 3

What are the key points regarding the use of local SSR codes at Aldergrove?

Answer 3

Allocated SSR Codes:

• Aldergrove has been allocated SSR Codes 7030 - 7047.
• These codes are allocated by the APR/APC Controller.
• Codes 7031-7037 may be allocated from the EFPS pool by ADC/APR Controllers.

During EFPS Outage:

• Non-permanent squawks may only be allocated by APR.

Identification/Validation:

• Detailed in Section 3.
• Mode C must be verified where available.

Local Code Management:

• Delete local codes from EFPS before discarding the electronic strip.
• Assign local codes to training aircraft.
• Allocate a local code to inbound aircraft with an ORCAM code for the duration of training.
• Do not leave aircraft displaying a local code at the termination of radar service.
• Confirm identification, validation, and verification if an aircraft with a local code leaves the radar display area.

Code/Callsign Pairings:

• All SSR codes and their associated callsigns are displayed on the APC CCDS, radar displays, and the ATM.
• ATCOs are responsible for confirming code/callsign pairings.

Question 4

What Conspicuity and Special Purpose Codes are approved for use with the IDENT feature for identification purposes?

Answer 4

Approved Codes:

• 0020: Helimed
• 0023: SAR Ops
• 0024: Calibrator
• 0033: Paradropping
• 0036: Powerline/Pipeline
• 0037: Royal Flights
• 7003: Red Arrows

Caution:

• Simultaneous requests for SPI transmissions within the same area may result in misidentification.

Question 5

What are the procedures and guidelines for using transponder code 7045, the Aldergrove Listening Squawk?

Answer 5

Purpose and Use:

• Aircraft within 40NM of EGAA may select transponder code 7045 with Mode C if available.
• Allows APR to establish contact to:
• Prevent potential Zone infringement.
• Assist lost or unsure aircraft.
• Provide separation or traffic information.

Indications and Limitations:

• Indicates aircraft is maintaining a listening watch on Aldergrove Approach frequency 133.125 MHz.
• 7045 is considered unvalidated and unverified.
• Controllers do not issue code 7045 to aircraft receiving a service from Aldergrove ATC.
• Aircraft displaying code 7045 are not expected to contact ATC and will not receive any service from Aldergrove ATC.

Responsibilities of Aircraft Displaying Code 7045:

• Responsible for their own navigation, separation, and terrain clearance.
• Expected to remain clear of the Aldergrove CTR.

Procedure Upon Contact:

• When APR establishes contact with an aircraft displaying code 7045, instruct the pilot to switch to another SSR code allocated by APR.
• Identify the aircraft and use correct validation and verification procedures.
• Ensure the aircraft is aware of the service it is receiving and any limitations.

Example Phraseology:

• “Aircraft squawking 7045, position… (range and bearing from the BEL, or geographical reference) this is Aldergrove Radar”.

Ceasing Listening Watch:

• When a pilot ceases to maintain a listening watch, they will deselect transponder code 7045.

Question 6

What is the significance of transponder code 7401, the Scottish FIS Squawk, and what are the associated guidelines?

Answer 6

Purpose:

• Used by aircraft receiving a Flight Information Service from ‘Scottish Information’ on 119.875 MHz.

Implications:

• Assignment of code 7401 does not imply the provision of a radar service.
• The code and any associated Mode C should be considered unvalidated and unverified by observing units.

Question 7

What procedures must be followed in the event of a CCDS failure regarding Mode A and Mode C data?

Answer 7

Mode A Validation:

• Mode A will not be deemed validated.
• Perform normal validation and verification as per MATS Pt 1, Section 1, Chapter 6.

Mode C Verification:

• Ensure the ‘level request’ is consistent with the type of level information (flight level or altitude) indicated by the relevant label block on the radar display.

Question 8

How should level information be inputted and displayed below the transition altitude and above it?

Answer 8

Input Responsibility:

• Correct input of the QNH into the EFPS Information Bar is a shared responsibility between any ATCO or OSS manning a position.

Display Format:

• Above Transition Altitude:
• Flight level information displayed as 3 digits (e.g., F080 for FL80).
• Below Transition Altitude:
• Provided the QNH is inputted, level information shown as altitude.
• Format examples:
• A050 for 5000ft Altitude.
• A007 for 700ft Altitude.

Question 9

What are the procedures for SSR-only operations due to PSR failure at Aldergrove?

Answer 9

Indication of PSR Failure:

• Loss of PSR target symbols (cross), leaving SSR targets only (square).
• Notify the DEO.

Actions When Primary Radar is Not Available:

• EFPS Information Strip: Display in all open positions.
• Update ATIS: Reflect use of SSR Radar only.
• ADC Responsibilities:
• Remain responsible for identification of Aldergrove departures as per ADC responsibilities in Section 3.
• Service Availability:
• SRAs are not available.
• Deconfliction Service is not available.
• Limited Traffic Service may be provided with the phraseology:
• “[Callsign], reduced traffic information, RADAR services are being provided using SSR only data”.
• Separation Using SSR Data:
• Minimum lateral radar separation: 5 NM unless separation is deemed to exist.
• Select a minimum of 6 trail dots/history.
• Inform pilots of service limitations using ATIS transmissions in the short term and NOTAM action in the longer term.
• If a pilot has not acknowledged an up-to-date ATIS message, APR will advise:
• “RADAR services are being provided using SSR only data”.

Question 10

What are the operating procedures for handling arriving traffic at Aldergrove?

Answer 10

ETA Reception:

• Received from PC via NAS.

Diversion Out:

• APC gives PC Antrim sector prior warning.
• Request an ATC clearance.

Inbound Estimate for VFR/SVFR Flights:

• APC advises ADC or ADC OSS, as appropriate.
• Provide flight rules and altitude if above 2000ft.
• Pass revisions as necessary.

Training Approach Followed by Missed Approach:

EFPS Methodology:
* INT provides an inbound check to ADC with go-around instructions (note instructions in the remarks field prior to delivery).
* Before transferring to ADC, INT passes go-around instructions to the pilot, populates the HDG & LVL fields with these instructions, and TICKS them when read back.

Question 11

What are the speed limits for aircraft under Aldergrove Radar Controllers in Class D airspace?

Answer 11

• Aldergrove Radar Controllers may not approve aircraft to fly at IAS greater than 250kts below FL100 in Class D airspace.

Note: Relaxation of the speed limit is not permitted for departing aircraft.

Question 12

What are the conditions and procedures for direct routings/vectoring of arriving traffic outside Controlled Airspace (CAS) at Aldergrove?

Answer 12

Agreement and Notification:

• Agreement with the pilot must be reached in advance.
• Pilot must be informed of the UKFIS that will be provided.
• Aircraft may be routed or vectored to leave CAS above the vertical limit of the Belfast TMA.

Standard Procedures:

• In all other circumstances, follow MATS Part 1 Section 1 Chapter 6.

Unplanned Departure from CAS:

• If an aircraft with an IFR flight plan to remain within CAS leaves CAS without prior notification or agreement from the pilot, and/or ATC has not changed the service in a timely manner:
• Submit a Mandatory Occurrence Report (MOR) containing all relevant details.

Question 13

What are the procedures for conducting Surveillance Radar Approaches (SRAs) at Aldergrove?

Answer 13

IFR Movements:

• All aircraft carrying out an SRA are treated as IFR movements.

Termination of SRAs:

• SRAs will terminate no later than 2NM from touchdown.
• SRAs may be conducted to any runway.
• Missed approach tracks must be protected.

Go-Around Instructions:

• Must not include any conditions (e.g., “remain south of the airfield”) to ensure the approach can be flown down to minima.

Question 14

What are the coordination procedures with ADC for Surveillance Radar Approaches (SRAs) at Aldergrove?

Answer 14

EFPS Coordination:

• Selecting SRA as the type of approach on EFPS will automatically show the strip to ADC.

Phone Call to ADC:

• A single phone call is required to coordinate the approach.
• Establish the following:
• Aircraft Position: 10nm check.
• Pilot Intentions.
• Coordination of Clearance/Missed Approach Instructions.
• Effectiveness of Coordination: Whether it is effective immediately or deferred (e.g., “on the greens” by way of LCIS).

Note: Aircraft that are making a touch and go from an SRA should be advised to contact ADC when able.

Question 15

What are the key steps and requirements for executing a Surveillance Radar Approach (SRA) according to MATS 1 and CAP413?

Answer 15

• SRAs are typically carried out on a discrete frequency, at the discretion of the responsible Air Traffic Control Officer (ATCO).
• Primary radar must be used.
• Approach information must be communicated as follows:
• “This will be a surveillance radar approach to Rwy X terminating at 2nms from touchdown, check your minima, step-down fixes, and missed approach point.”
• Note: Not all approaches have step-down fixes associated with them.
• Azimuth guidance must be provided during the approach.

Question 16

How does the Landing Clearance Indicator System (LCIS) function in assisting radar controllers with aircraft landing clearance?

Answer 16

• Purpose: LCIS enables the radar controller to obtain clearance for aircraft under control, such as emergency traffic intending to land.
• Back-up: The LCIS function on EFPS may be used as a backup.

Requesting Clearance:
* The Radar Controller requests clearance when the aircraft is approximately 5nm from touchdown.
* The Aerodrome Controller responds with:
* Green ‘Clear to Land’ light
* Orange ‘Continue Approach’ light

Missed Approach:
* Initiated by the red ‘Go Around’ light.
* The Radar Controller then instructs the aircraft to ‘Go Around.’

Subsequent Actions:
* After an initial green or orange response, if the ADC needs the aircraft to go around, they must press “col canc” and then the red light.
* If breaking off the approach in advance of a clearance request, the ADC must use the telephone.

Question 17

What are the key procedures for APC when vectoring an aircraft to an instrument approach to Runway 17?

Answer 17

Localiser Interception:
* Aircraft must be vectored to intercept the localiser at least 2nm before the FAF unless the pilot requests otherwise.

Approach Altitude:
* The approach must be made from 2500ft QNH (height 2300ft) in accordance with the relevant ATCSMAC level.

Phraseology for Glidepath Descent:
* For aircraft establishing on the localiser outside 8 miles:
* “[Callsign], after passing 8 DME, descend on the glidepath.”
* For aircraft establishing on the localiser at 8 miles or less:
* “[Callsign], descend on the glidepath.”

Higher Altitude Approaches:
* If the APC wishes the aircraft to make the approach from a higher altitude, coordination with ADC is required.

Note on ILS 25:
Aircraft shall be vectored to intercept the localiser before the FAF unless specifically requested by the pilot.

Question 18

What are the key procedures for APC when vectoring an aircraft for a non-precision approach?

Answer 18

Aircraft Configuration:

• Aircraft must be in a properly configured state (speed, flaps, gear).
• Aircraft must be at the ‘platform altitude’ specified on the approach plate.
• If these conditions are not met, the pilot must abandon the approach.

ATCO Actions:

• Do not descend the aircraft below the ‘platform altitude’ applicable to the approach.
• Vector the aircraft to intercept the final approach track at least 2nm before the FAF.
• Ensure a period of level flight before the aircraft commences its descent.

Aircraft Speed Considerations:

• Aircraft may need to reduce speed sooner.
• Aircraft may be unable to maintain the requested speed profile compared to a precision approach.

Specific Instructions for VOR DME Approach to Runway 25:

Final Approach Track:

• Instruct aircraft to maintain their last cleared altitude until descent to platform altitude can be given.

Descent Instructions for Runway 25:

• Avoid vectoring towards Cavehill to prevent spurious TAWS warnings, especially if the aircraft may have a high rate of descent.

Question 19

What are the key procedures and considerations for RNP approaches?

Answer 19

RNP Map Overlay:

• Map showing RNP points: SULEV, LIRGU, VAGMO, AA07I, AA07F.
• Accessible via ASD Bg > Map select > AERON.

RNP Approach Availability:

• Consider RNP approach available for suitably equipped aircraft unless advised otherwise by the crew.
• Pass the temperature to the crew if it is below -5°C when an RNP approach is requested.
• Do not offer the RNP procedure if the temperature at Aldergrove is below -15°C due to altimeter limitations.
• Withdraw RNP procedures if temperature indication is lost unless confirmed above -15°C by the Met Office.
• Verify and record temperature every 15 minutes in the watch log.

Pilot Communication:

• Advise pilots of the runway in use and the type of approach upon initial contact.
• If available, select the Approach Path Monitor for all RNP RWY 07 operations.

Question 20

What are the procedures to be followed for RNP approaches?

Answer 20

Waypoint Advisory:

• ATC advises which waypoint to join the procedure at following radar vectors.
• Aircraft are initially sequenced by Aldergrove Radar, descending to 4000ft QNH, and on own navigation towards the appropriate IAF.

Clearing for RNP Approach:

• Radar clears the aircraft for the RNP approach with suggested phraseology:
• “[Callsign], cleared RNP approach runway [xx] via [xxxxx], report at the FAF, QNH.”
• Take into account CAS constraints and ATCSMAC levels before clearing for the RNP approach.
• Do not alter the lateral or vertical profile of the procedure.

Commencement of Approach:

• Normally from the IAF, but can commence from the IF if needed, ensuring descent to 2,500’ in time for level flight before the FAF.
• Do not route directly to the FAF.

Vectoring for RNP Approach:

• Vector traffic to intercept the FAT before the Intermediate Fix (IF) waypoint.

Own Navigation:

• Ensure aircraft can successfully maneuver to the IAF or IF when released on own navigation.
• Aircraft usually turn before the IAF or IF to make good the track for the next waypoint.

Speed Limitation:

• Maximum IAS of 210kts for the procedure at the IAF.

FAF Call:

• Check that the aircraft is at or above 2500ft when it calls at the FAF.
• If the aircraft is at the wrong altitude, request the pilot to check QNH and confirm passing level.

Question 21

What should be done in the event of RNP equipment failure during an approach?

Answer 21

Flight Crew Notification:
* The flight crew must advise ATC that they are unable to accept the RNP procedure due to equipment failure.

ATC Response:
* Aldergrove Radar shall provide vectors and descent instructions for an alternative approach.

Question 22

What should controllers do when they become aware of problems with the RNP system?

Answer 22

Notify the Pilot:
* Controllers will inform the pilot of RNP system problems.
* Specify details such as the type of operation, location, geographical boundaries, and times, if known.

Question 23

What actions are taken following a RAIM (Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring) alert during an RNP approach?

Answer 23

Pilot Actions:
* A RAIM alert indicates the RNP system is unavailable due to insufficient satellites or a system fault.
* The pilot will break off the approach or continue visually if applicable.
* The pilot must inform the controller of the RAIM event and their intentions.

Question 24

What are the procedures following a missed approach during an RNP approach?

Answer 24

Revert to Conventional Navigation:
* The aircraft will follow the standard missed approach as published on the chart.

BEL VOR Out of Service:
* Missed approach instructions must be given before clearing the aircraft for the approach if the BEL VOR is out of service.

Alternate Initial Approach Fix:
* If an aircraft executes a missed approach or is broken off the final approach track, an alternate Initial Approach Fix (IAF) may be used.
* Confirmation must be obtained from the aircraft that they can accept the alternate IAF.
* It may take some time to set up the alternate IAF.

Question 25

What are the operating procedures for departing traffic, specifically regarding IFR & SVFR departures?

Answer 25

Approval Requirement:

• All IFR and SVFR (including SVFR circuits) departures must be approved by APC.

Pre-notification of Departure:

• Aircraft entering the PC Controlled airspace structure will typically depart under Freeflow conditions, with only a ‘Departure Warning’ pre-notification.

Busy Periods or Equipment Difficulties:

• During busy periods, equipment difficulties, or when DFR measures are applied by adjacent ATCCs, some regulation of departures may be necessary.
• The Sector Planner will advise of the necessary restrictions to achieve an acceptable flow rate.
• APC is responsible for coordinating startup clearances with the appropriate sector under these conditions.

Question 26

What are the procedures for EGAA outbound releases?

Answer 26

Request Sequence:

• ADC requests one outbound release at a time in the order of the departure sequence.

Release Process by INT:

• INT populates the HDG field and amends the level if required (amendments highlighted in dark blue).
• INT selects green to release the departure.

ADC Actions:

• If ADC accepts the release:
• Pass clearance to the pilot.
• Acknowledge read back by ticking the clearance popup, removing the blue highlight.
• If ADC does not accept the release:
• Select the red “Reject” through R1.
• Initiate a phone call to INT for a new release coordination.

Coordination for New Release:

• INT amends the release and selects green again for the new release.

Further Amendments:

• Before transfer of control, any further amendments can be initiated by either party via telephone, and INT will amend the release accordingly.

Question 27

What are the responsibilities for the allocation of headings to aircraft taking off?

Answer 27

Allocation of Radar Heading:

• APR may allocate a radar heading to IFR departures as per MATS 1.

ADC Responsibilities:

• Assume responsibility for Identification and Mode A validation as detailed in S3 (1.1).

INT Responsibilities:

• Verification of Mode C.

Question 28

What are the procedures for routing or vectoring departing traffic outside Controlled Airspace (CAS)?

Answer 28

Agreement with Pilot:

• Ensure agreement with the pilot in advance that they will be taken outside CAS.
• Inform the pilot of the UKFIS that will be provided.

Routing/Vectoring:

• Departing traffic may be routed or vectored to leave CAS above the vertical limit of the Belfast TMA.

General Procedures:

• In all other circumstances, follow MATS Part 1 Section 1 Chapter 6.

IFR Flight Plan Considerations:

• If an aircraft filed an IFR flight plan to remain within CAS but leaves CAS without prior notification or agreement from the pilot, or if ATC has not changed the service in a timely manner:
• Submit a Mandatory Occurrence Report (MOR) containing all relevant details.

Question 29

How should military aircraft departing EGAA or Low Flying Area 19 and overflying or returning to an airfield in GB be handled if they are leaving Controlled Airspace (CAS)?

OAT

Answer 29

Passing Details:

• Ensure details are passed to Swanwick Mil West or North West as per the designated map.

Climb Instructions:

• Climb to FL90 or cruising level if lower.
• If a higher altitude than FL90 is required, coordinate the climb with Antrim or West Coast sector as appropriate.
• PC does not need the aircraft details.

Radar Handover:

• When clear of conflicting traffic, carry out a radar handover to Swanwick Mil.
• If a radar handover cannot be carried out, once clear of CAS, the aircraft can free call London Mil:
• On UHF 282.625 if routing north of the Belfast TMA.
• On UHF 282.125 if leaving CAS east of P600.

Remaining Inside CAS:

• If the aircraft plans to remain inside CAS as far as the Isle of Man (IOM), pass the details initially to ANT ASST, then carry out a radar handover to ANT.

Question 30

What is the area of responsibility for surveillance-based UK Flight Information Services (UK FIS)?

Answer 30

Surveillance-based UK FIS may be provided to arriving, departing, and transit flights at FL195 or below within the following areas:

ATCSMAC:

• To the minimum levels permitted.

MSAs outside the ATCSMAC:

• Up to 25NM.

4000ft QNH:

• Between 25NM and 40NM.

All services are subject to the limitations specified in MATS Part 1 and MATS Part 2, Section 6.

Question 31

What are the responsibilities of the FIN (Radar 2) controller?

Answer 31

Vectoring Inbound Aircraft:

• Responsible for vectoring inbound aircraft transferred by INT to a suitable position for an instrument or visual approach to land.

Surveillance Radar Approaches (SRAs):

• Carries out SRAs as necessary.

Compliance with Restrictions:

• Comply with any restrictions imposed by INT (e.g., direction of circuit, altitude restrictions).

Control of Departing/Transit Aircraft:

• Does not normally control departing or transit aircraft except as required by INT.
• May be delegated EGAC traffic by INT and must carry out all necessary coordination, including radar handovers.

Alteration of Normal Routing Procedures:

• Inform INT immediately if it becomes necessary to alter normal routing procedures (e.g., delaying aircraft on final approach).
• Coordinate any required actions with INT.
• Inform INT immediately of any aircraft emergency, the assistance required, and the actions being taken.

Informing ADC:

• Inform ADC of inbound aircraft as per Section 3, paragraph 3.2.2.

Landing Clearance:

• Obtain landing clearance using the ‘LCIS’ system.

Reporting to INT:

• Inform INT of the number and type of approaches being given to aircraft/helicopters under their control.

Question 32

What are the basic handover procedures from INT to FIN?

Answer 32

Prior to Transfer, INT Should:

Tactical Heading and Descent Instructions:
* Set up a tactical heading with initial descent instructions where applicable.

Current ATIS Information:
* Ensure the aircraft has received current ATIS information, including confirmation of QNH and QFE if applicable.

During Transfer:

Radar Handover:
* The aircraft must be identified with a radar handover to FIN.
* Provide details of any conflicting traffic or restrictions (airspace or otherwise), including serviceabilities.

Caution:
* Ensure that traffic will always be within the DOC when transferring from INT to FIN.

Question 33

When should aircraft be transferred to Aerodrome Control (ADC)?

Answer 33

Transfer Conditions:
* As soon as the aircraft has reported established on an instrument approach.
* When the aircraft has the runway in sight on an SRA.
* When the aircraft has been satisfactorily sequenced and no further assistance is required.

Question 34

What action should be taken on the radar displays in INT and FIN when a runway at EGAA is closed?

Answer 34

Remove FAT:
* The relevant Final Approach Track (FAT) shall be removed from the radar displays in INT and FIN.