Psychological Assessment and Issues in Intelligence Testing Flashcards

1
Q

____ ____ may be conceptualized as a process of using psychological tests, clinical interviews, behavioral observations, and other assessment tools to gather data on an individual’s cognitive, emotional, social, and behavioral functioning for the purposes of description, classification, prediction, and intervention planning and monitoring.

A

Psychological Assessment

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2
Q

Factors to consider when evaluating the appropriateness of a psychological test for a particular examinee or situation include the ____ of the ____ and ____ of the ____ and the ____.

A

Qualifications of the Examiner and Characteristics of the Examinee and the Test

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3
Q

____ ____: The ____, skills, training, and other qualifications needed to administer a test and interpret its results are important considerations when choosing a test or other assessment technique.

A

Examiner Qualifications; Knowledge

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4
Q

Several documents published by the American Psychological Association address this issue, including the Ethical Standards for the Distribution of Psychological Tests and Diagnostic Aids, which includes a ____-____ ____ for ____ ____ ____ ____: Level A tests may be administered and interpreted by ____; Level B tests require “some ____ ____ of ____ ____ and ____… [and completion of] supporting ____ and ____ subjects”; and Level C tests should be administered only by individuals “with at least a ____ ____ in ____… and at least ____ ____ of ____ ____ under a ____.”

A

Three-Teir System for Categorizing Test User Qualifications; Nonpsychologists; Technical Knowledge of Test Construction and Use; Psychological and Educational; Mater’s Degree in Psychology; One Year of Supervised Experience; Psychologist

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5
Q

____ ____ relevant to the evaluation of a psychological test include the examinee’s age, developmental level, gender, reading level, language proficiency, physical abilities, motivation, anxiety, familiarity with testing procedures, and cultural and socioeconomic background. The validity of a test is likely to be compromised when there is a mismatch between the language requirements of the test and the examinee’s language proficiency or when testing procedures are modified to accommodate an examinee’s disability and the test was not developed or normed for individuals with that disability.

A

Examinee Characteristics

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6
Q

____ ____: Determining the appropriateness of a test requires considering not only the match between the ____ of the ____ and the ____ for the ____ but also the test’s ____ and ____, its ____ (administration and scoring procedures and norms), and the types of ____ the test provides.

A

Test Characteristics; Purpose of the Test; Reasons for the Assessment; Reliability and Validity; Standardization; Scores

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7
Q

____ and ____: ____ refers to the degree to which test scores are free from the effects of measurement error, while ____ refers to the degree to which a test measures what it was designed to measure. Information about test reliability and validity is provided in the Test Construction chapter.

A

Reliability and Validity; Reliability; Validity

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8
Q

The term ____ is used to describe two characteristics of a test. First, a test is said to be standardized when “the testee’s ____ and ____, the ____, and the ____ have been ____ so the scores collected at different times and places are fully comparable.”

A

Standardization; Words; Acts; Apparatus; Scoring; Fixed

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9
Q

Any deviation from standardized administration and scoring procedures — e.g., the modification of test instructions — may result in ____ ____ about an examinee’s test performance. Second, a test is referred to as standardized when it has been administered under ____ ____ to a ____ sample for the purpose of establishing ____.

A

Invalid Conclusions; Standard Conditions; Representative; Establishing Norms

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10
Q

The greater the discrepancy between an examinee’s ____ and the characteristics of the ____ ____, the less ____ the test is likely to be for that examinee.

A

Characteristics; Norm Group; Valid

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11
Q

____ of ____: The scores provided by most tests can be categorized as ____-, ____-, or ____-____.

A

Types of Scores; Norm-, Criterion-, or Self-Referenced

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12
Q

____-____ ____ permit comparisons between an examinee’s test performance and the performance of individuals in the norm group. ____ ____ and ____ ____ are examples of norm-referenced scores.

A

Norm-Referenced Scores; Percentile Ranks and Standard Scores

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13
Q

____-____ ____ are also known as domain-referenced and content-referenced scores and permit interpreting an examinee’s test performance in terms of what the examinee can do or knows regarding a clearly defined content domain or in terms of performance or status on an external criterion (e.g., predicted rating on a measure of job performance).

A

Criterion-Referenced Scores

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14
Q

When a ____-____ ____ is used for the purpose of mastery testing, an examinee’s performance is usually reported as percent of the test items answered correctly, and the percent is compared to a pre-established cutoff (e.g., 80% correct) to determine if the examinee has reached mastery or requires additional instruction.

A

Criterion-Referenced Test

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15
Q

____-____ ____ are provided by ____ ____, which permit ____ ____ — i.e., comparisons of an examinee’s score on one scale with his/her scores on other scales. For example, an examinee’s scores on the Edwards Personal Preference Schedule provide information on the relative strengths of his/her basic psychological needs.

A

Self-Referenced Scores; Ipsative Scales; Intraindividual Comparisons

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16
Q

There are many ways to categorize tests and other assessment techniques. For example, tests may be categorized as ____ or ____ ____, as ____ (____) or ____ (____) measures, and as ____-____ or ____-____.

A

Individual or Group Tests; Formal (Standardized) or Informal (Nonstandardized); Criterion-Referenced or Norm-Referenced

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17
Q

____ ____ focuses on overt and covert behaviors that occur in specific circumstances and may utilize behavioral interviews, behavioral observation, cognitive assessment (e.g., thought sampling, protocol analysis), and/or psychophysiological measures.

A

Behavioral Assessment

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18
Q

The term ____ ____ ____ (___) refers to a type of behavioral assessment that entails determining the function or purpose of a behavior by identifying its antecedents and consequences. The goal of an FBA is to identify strategies for ____ or ____ a ____ ____ by eliminating the ____ and ____ that are ____ the ____ and providing antecedents and consequences that support an ____ ____.

A

Functional Behavior Assessment (FBA); Decreasing or Eliminating a Target Behavior; Antecedents and Consequences; Maintaining the Behavior; Alternative Behavior

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19
Q

____ ____ was derived from Vygotsky’s method for evaluating a child’s mental development and involves an interactive approach and deliberate deviation from standardized testing procedures to obtain additional information about the examinee and/or determine if the examinee is likely to benefit from assistance or instruction. It is associated primarily with ____ ____ but has also been used with measures of ____ and ____ ____.

A

Dynamic Assessment; Educational Assessment; Personality and Social Functioning

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20
Q

____ the ____ is one type of dynamic assessment and involves providing an examinee with additional cues, suggestions, or feedback and is ordinarily done after standard administration of the test to preserve the applicability of the test’s norms. As an example, when used in conjunction with the Rorschach Inkblot Test, ____ the ____ follows the inquiry phase and involves asking questions or making suggestions to obtain more information about the examinee’s personality functioning — e.g., “Some people see something in this part of the inkblot. What does it look like to you?”

A

Testing the Limits; Testing the Limits

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21
Q

Two other types of dynamic assessment are ____ ____, which involves giving the examinee a series of verbal prompts that are graduated in terms of difficulty level, and ____-____-____, which involves following the initial assessment with an intervention designed to modify the examinee’s performance and then re-assessing the examinee.

A

Graduated Prompting; Test-Teach-Retest

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22
Q

____-____ ____: Computers are used not only to ____ ____ but also provide ____ and ____ of test results. Regarding administration, ____-____ ____ ____ can act as an alternative to standard testing or provide adaptive testing. using ____ ____ ____ (___), the computer tailors the test to an individual examinee by choosing subsequent items based on the examinee’s previous answers.

A

Computer-Assisted Assessment; Administer Tests; Scoring and Interpretation; Computer-Assisted Test Administration; Computer Adaptive Testing (CAT)

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23
Q

The primary advantages of CAT are its ____ and ____: CAT ensures that all examinees, regardless of their level or status on the characteristic being assessed, are measured with the same degree of ____ and does so in a way that reduces ____ ____.

A

Precision and Efficiency; Reliability; Testing Time

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24
Q

Regarding computer-based interpretations, Groth-Marnat notes that research that their validity may be ____ than ____ in some circumstances and, therefore, that they “should not be used to replace ____ ____ but should instead be used as an adjunct to provide possible interpretations that the clinician needs to ____.”

A

Less than Optimal; Clinical Judgment; Verify

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25
Q

A continuing debate in the literature on psychological assessment is about the accuracy of ____ versus ____ ____. ____ (____) ____ are based on empirically validated relationships between test results and specific criteria and make use of a multiple regression equation or similar statistical technique. In contrast, ____ ____ are based on the decision-maker’s intuition, experience, and knowledge. In other words, classifications, diagnoses, and predictions about behavior rely on the ____ ____.

A

Actuarial; Clinical Predictions; Actuarial (Statistical) Predictions; Clinical Predictions; Clinician’s Judgement

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26
Q

Studies comparing actuarial and clinical predictions have generally found that, when a fair comparison is made between the two approaches — i.e., when the same data are used for both methods and when conditions that might inflate the accuracy of the ____ ____ are eliminated — the actuarial method alone is more ____ than ____ ____ alone.

A

Actuarial Method; Accurate; Clinical Judgment

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27
Q

____ ____: The research confirms ____ interviews can be used to obtain reliable and valid data from children as young as age ____. Kanfer, Eyberg, and Krahn note that there are two important goals when interviewing children: ____ ____ and maintaining the child’s ____.

A

Assessing Children; Interviews; Six; Establishing Rapport; Cooperation

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28
Q

____ ____ ____: ____ ____ include objective comments about a child’s appearance and non-negative comments about his or her behavior or demeanor (e.g., “You look happy today”). Descriptions give ____ to the child, ____ the child to continue doing what he/she is doing, and point out to the child what behavior is ____ of him/her.

A

Use Descriptive Statements; Descriptive Statements; Attention; Encourage; Expected

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29
Q

____ ____: ____ ____ mirror what the child says and can be either ____ or ____. Reflection helps clarify and organize the child’s ____ and ____.

A

Use Reflection; Reflective Statements; Literal or Interpretive; Thoughts and Feelings

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30
Q

____ ____ ____: ____ ____ indicates approval and helps guide and encourage the child to behave in a particular way (e.g., “You’re doing a good Job telling me what happened”).

A

Provide Labeled Praise; Labeled Praise

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31
Q

____ ____ ____: ____ elicits negative emotional reactions and defensiveness from a child and disrupts the development of rapport. Better tactics for altering undesirable behavior are to make ____-____ ____ (“One of the rules in this room is that …”), to make ____ ____ (“Come and sit at the table”), and to ____ the ____.

A

Avoid Critical Statements; Criticism; Rule-Based Corrections; Invitational Statements; Ignore the Behavior

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32
Q

Another useful strategy is to rely primarily on ____-____ ____ that cannot be answered with a simple “yes” or “no” or other brief response. Open-ended questions elicit a ____ ____ of ____ from the child and reduce the likelihood that he or she will be led to ____ the ____ ____.

A

Open-Ended Questions; Greater Amount of Information; Accept the Interviewer’s Conclusions

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33
Q

Not all open-ended questions are ____, however: Questions that begin with a “____ “ should usually be ____ e.g., it’s better to ask “What don’t you like about coming here?” than “Why didn’t you want to come here?” Angold notes that it is also important to avoid ____ ____ when interviewing children (e.g., “That probably made you angry, didn’t it?”) and, at least initially, to rely on the child’s free recall in order to obtain the most accurate information about a past event.

A

Useful; Why; Avoided; Leading Questions

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34
Q

Increased concern about child abuse has led to discussions about the best way to assess children for abuse, especially ____ ____. A topic of controversy is the use of ____ ____ ____ to determine if a child has been sexually abused. Advocates for their use point out that they can serve several important functions, including acting as a ____ for a ____ ____ and as a ____ ____ for children who are lack adequate ____ ____ or are too ____ to describe what happened to them.

A

Sexual Abuse; Anatomically Correct Dolls; Stimulus; Child’s Memories; Language Substitute; Verbal Skills; Embarrassed

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35
Q

Although a number of authorities have criticized their use on the basis of a lack of ____ and ____, Vizard’s review of the research suggests that children who have been sexually abused are, in fact, more likely than non-abused children to demonstrate ____ ____ when presented with the dolls and that their use does not cause young children to act more ____ than they would with other dolls. There are no widely ____ ____ for using these dolls, however, and there is evidence that, while anatomical dolls improve children’s ____ to ____ about ____ when compared to questioning without ____, these dolls may not be ____ ____ than ____ ____, ____ ____, or other ____.

A

Reliability and Validity; Sexual Activity; Suggestively; Accepted Standards; Responses to Questions; Abuse; Props; More Effective; Nonanatomical Dolls; Anatomical Drawings; Media

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36
Q

____ ____ of ____ ____ ____: Factors that must be considered when choosing assessment techniques for members of culturally diverse groups include the individual’s ____, ____ /____ ____, and ____ ____; the availability of appropriate ____; the cultural equivalence of the ____ or ____ measured by the test; and the availability of ____ that are more ____ for the client’s ____.

A

Assessing Members of Culturally Diverse Populations; Acculturation, Racial/Ethnic Identity, and Language Proficiency; Norms; Content or Construct; Alternatives; Appropriate; Background

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37
Q

In their discussion of multicultural assessment, Suzuki, Meller, and Ponterotto offer the following guidelines for selecting, administering, and interpreting assessment procedures: ____________________________.

A

Purpose of the Assessment, Test Content, Alternative Methods, Ethnic Norms, Rold of the Examiner

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38
Q

____ of the ____: Professionals should be clear about the ____ of the ____ and should use only techniques that are likely to accomplish that purpose and benefit the person being assessed.

A

Purpose of the Assessment; Purpose of the Evaluation

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39
Q

____ ____: Professionals must be sensitive to the cultural loading in current assessment procedures and practices and be aware that, currently. there are no truly “culture-fair” or “culture-free” tests.

A

Test Content

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40
Q

____ ____: Whenever possible, professionals should use culturally sensitive procedures and assessments either as ____ to standard tests or in conjunction with them. Possible ____ include curriculum-based measurement and performance-based assessment.

A

Alternative Methods; Alternatives; Alternatives

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41
Q

____ ____: Professionals must be aware of ____ ____ within different ____ and ____ ____ and interpret an examinee’s responses within the appropriate cultural context.

A

Ethnic Norms; Normative Behavior; Racial and Ethnic Groups

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42
Q

____ of the ____: Professionals must self-monitor their “level of assessment expertise with respect to members of racial and ethnic minorities” and should be cognizant of any cultural differences that might interfere with the establishment of rapport.

A

Role of the Examiner

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43
Q

A topic of controversy in the field of multicultural testing is whether racial, ethnic, or Cultural differences between an examiner and examinee affect the ____ ____ ____. The research on this issue is far from ____: For example, some studies comparing the effects of a White or African American examiner on the test performance of African American children have found no difference, while others have found a White examiner to have either a negative or positive impact.

A

Examinee’s Test Performance; Consistent

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44
Q

Overall, probably the best conclusion is that there is no consistent effect of a match or mismatch of the examiner and examinee in terms of race, ethnicity, or culture and that other factors — e.g., ____ and the examiner’s ____ — may be more critical to an ____ ____ ____.

A

Rapport; Examiner’s Attitude; Examinee’s Test Performance

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45
Q

____-____ is one of the most common ways social scientists collect data from a large group of people. This information may include: _________________________________________.

A

Self-Report; personality traits, moods, thoughts, attitudes, preferences, and behaviors

46
Q

Much of the social science theory and knowledge is based on ____-____ ____. The advantages of self-report methods are ____ ____ and ____ and ____ ____. The greatest disadvantages can be ____ ____ and ____ ____.

A

Self-Report Data; Quick Production and Scoring and Low Cost; Weak Validity and Weak Reliability

47
Q

____ -____ ____ are used to make decisions about a client; for example, assigning diagnoses and creating treatment plans. Psychologists can also use this approach to draw conclusions from the ____ ____ of others to make decisions about ____ ____ ____ for clients/patients.

A

Multi-Informant Reports; Empirical Research; Mental Health Treatment

48
Q

One of the greatest aspects of the multi-informant report approach is the ____ of ____ that can be ____ per client/patient/participant. The main drawback to this approach tends to be the ____ that can arise from the ____ ____ regarding a ____ ____ or ____ /____.

A

Volume of Information; Generated; Inconsistencies; Various Informants; Single Participant or Client/Patient

49
Q

____ ____ are used to observe physiological functions (heart rate, skin perspiration, facial muscles, etc.) which can often describe the ____ ____ of an individual. The physiological reactions are monitored and measured using sensors attached to the ____. This approach can also include ____-____ ____ to discover what the participant ____.

A

Psychophysiological Measures; Emotional State; Participant; Self-Report Data; Experienced

50
Q

The main strength of the psychophysiological measures approach is the ability to investigate and analyze ____ ____ without intervening in the interaction while it ____. A main weakness of this approach can be the ____ ____ required, and that not every momentary experience can be important to every ____ being studied.

A

Momentary Experiences; Occurs; Monetary Expense; Domain

51
Q

____ ____, also known as “____ ____ “, is a method of collecting evaluative information in which the evaluator watches the participant in his or her usual environment without altering that environment. Direct observation is used when other data collection procedures, such as surveys and questionnaires are ____ ____. The goal of using this approach is to evaluate an ____ ____ ____, ____, or ____, or when there are ____ ____ that can be readily seen that otherwise would be ____.

A

Direct Observation; Observational Study; Not Effective; Ongoing Behavior Process, Event, or Situation; Physical Outcomes; Missed

52
Q

Direct observation can be ____, when the participant and individuals in the environment know the ____ of the ____, or ____, when the subject and individuals in the environment are ____ of the ____ of the ____.

A

Overt; Purpose of the Observation; Covert; Unaware of the Purpose of the Observation

53
Q

____ ____ ____ are most appropriate when standardized information needs to be gathered, and result in quantitative data. ____ ____ ____ looks at natural occurrence and provides qualitative data. Weaknesses of this approach include ____ and ____ ____.

A

Structured Direct Observations; Unstructured Direct Observations; Participant and Observer Bias

54
Q

____ and ____-____ ____ are different from other forms of assessment as they involve social interaction. Researchers can ask ____ ____ or ____ ____ ____, each category can lead to ____ ____ and thus add to the ____ of the ____. Structured interviews are typically ____ to ____ as there are a fixed set of ____ ____ that are used, which means it is easy to test for ____. Some limitations are they are not ____, and the answers may lack ____.

A

Structured and Semi-Structured Interviews; Open Ended or Close Ended Questions; Various Answers; Quality of the Data; Easy to Replicate; Closed Questions; Reliability; Flexible; Detail

55
Q

Unstructured interviews are more ____ and thus the questions can be ____ as ____, and generate vast amounts of ____ ____, because of the ____ included in the ____. Some limitations tend to be that they are ____ ____, and that interviewers need to be ____ which can be ____.

A

Flexible; Adapted as Needed; Qualitative Data; Detail; Answers; Time Consuming; Trained; Expensive

56
Q

There are many advantages associated with ____ regarding ____ and ____ ____. For example, ____-____ ____ ____ can bypass several of the challenges that are encountered in traditional methods of evaluation (data entry and administration). Another advantage is that the use of technology can ____ ____ of ____ of the evaluation.

A

Technology; Assessing and Diagnosing Individuals; Web-Based Evaluation Models; Decrease Costs of Administration

57
Q

There are ways to select ____ ____ for administration of evaluations and assessments so that portions can be through ____ or ____ ____, and the other parts being done ____ ____ with a ____ or the traditional ____ and ____ method. With assessments and evaluations being performed ____, there can be greater ____ and ____ as access can be severely limited to a ____ ____ if necessary. The drawback to this has been an increase to ____ ____, ____ ____ and ____ ____.

A

Hybrid Approaches; Electronic or Technological Means; In Person; Professional; Paper and Pencil; Online; Security and Privacy; Select Few; Cyber Infiltration, Threatening Privacy and Personal Records

58
Q

Characteristics of the test that should be considered when evaluating its appropriateness for a particular examinee include its reliability, validity, and standardization. With regard to the latter, a test is said to be standardized when fixed (1) ____ procedures have been established and the test has been administered to a representative sample to establish (2) ____.

A

(1) administration and scoring; (2) norms

59
Q

The scores provided by most tests can be categorized as norm-referenced, criterion-referenced, or self-referenced. (3) ____-referenced scores are also known as domain- or content-referenced and permit interpreting an examinee’s performance in terms of what he/she can do or knows with regard to a clearly defined domain; while self-referenced scores permit intraindividual comparisons and are also known as (4) ____ scores.

A

(3) Criterion-; (4) ipsative

60
Q

Functional behavioral assessment (FBA) involves determining the function of a behavior by identifying its (5) ____ and consequences. (6) ____ is a type of dynamic assessment that is usually done after standard administration of a test and involves providing cues, or feedback to obtain additional information about an examinee. An advantage of (7) ____ is that it tailors the test to the individual examinee by choosing subsequent items based on his/her previous answers.

A

(5) antecedents; (6) Testing the limits; (7) computer adaptive testing (CAT)

61
Q

Predictions are classified as either actuarial or clinical. The former are based on (8) ____ relationships between test results and target criteria, while the latter are based on (9) ____. The research has found that actuarial predictions alone tend to be (10) ____ accurate than clinical predictions alone.

A

(8) empirically validated; (9) the clinician’s judgment; (10) more

62
Q

To establish rapport and maintain the cooperation of children during an interview, the interviewer can make use of (11) ____ statements and reflection, and should rely primarily on (12) ____ questions (except for those starting with “why”).

A

(11) descriptive; (12) open-ended

63
Q

To enhance sensitivity in multicultural assessment, examiners should be aware of the cultural (13) ____ of many assessment techniques and use alternative techniques whenever possible. Research on the effects of a White examiner on the test performance of African American children can best be summarized as demonstrating (14) ____.

A

(13) loading (content); (14) no consistent effect (inconsistent results)

64
Q

Multiple (15) ____ methods exist, including self-report, direct observation, psychophysiological measures, and multiinformant reports. Utilizing (16) ____ may be helpful in administering evaluations and decreasing costs, but there is also a risk of personal records being infiltrated.

A

(15) data collection); (16) technology

65
Q

There is no single widely accepted ____ of ____ and a variety of theories are frequently cited in the literature.

A

Theory of Intelligence

66
Q

____ ____-____ ____: Based on his observation that various measures of intelligence ____ to some degree with each other, Spearman proposed a general intellectual factor (g) and argued that performance on any cognitive task depends on g plus one or more specific factors (s) unique to the task.

A

Spearman’s Two-Factor Theory; Correlate

67
Q

____ and ____ ____ and ____ ____: Horn and Cattell distinguished between two primary cognitive abilities: ____ ____ (Gc) refers to acquired knowledge and skills, is affected by educational and cultural experiences, and includes reading and numerical skills and factual knowledge. In contrast, ____ ____ (Gf) does not depend on specific instruction, is relatively culture-free, and enables an individual to solve novel problems and perceive relations and similarities.

A

Horn and Cattell’s Fluid and Crystallized Intelligence; Crystallized Intelligence; Fluid Intelligence

68
Q

____ ____-____ ____: Carroll distinguished between three levels or strata of intelligence. Stratum Ill is g (____ ____); stratum Il consists of ____ ____ ____ including fluid intelligence, crystallized intelligence, and general memory and learning; and stratum I consists of ____ ____ that are each ____ to one of the second stratum abilities. For example, ____ ____ is linked to language development. comprehension, spelling ability, and communication ability.

A

Carroll’s Three-Stratum Theory; General Intelligence; Eight Broad Abilities; Specific Abilities; Linked; Crystallized Intelligence

69
Q

____ ____-____-____ (___) ____ of ____ ____: McGrew combined elements of the Horn-Cattell and Carroll approaches to derive the ___ ____, which was developed on the basis of extensive ____ ____ and serves as the framework for the ___-_ and ____-____ _.

A

McGrew’s Cattell-Horn-Carroll (CHC) Theory of Cognitive Abilities; CHC Model; Empirical Research; KABC-II and Woodcock-Johnson IV

70
Q

The CHC model distinguishes between ____ ____-____ level abilities and over _ ____-____ abilities that are each linked to one of the ____-____ ____. Although McGrew acknowledges the existence of g, it is omitted from his theory because of his belief that it does not contribute to ____ ____ ____.

A

Ten Broad-Stratum; 70 Narrow-Stratum; Broad-Stratum Abilities; Psychoeducational Assessment Practice

71
Q

____ ____ and ____ ____: Guilford’s structure-of-intellect model distinguishes between ____ and ____ ____. ____ ____ relies on rational, logical reasoning and involves the use of logical judgment and consideration of facts to derive the correct solution to a problem. In contrast, ____ ____ involves nonlogical processes and requires creativity and flexibility to derive multiple solutions. Guilford argued that most intelligence tests focus on the former.

A

Guilford’s Convergent and Divergent Thinking; Convergent and Divergent Thinking; Convergent Thinking; Divergent Thinking

72
Q

____ ____ ____: Sternberg’s ____ ____ defines “successful intelligence” as the ability to adapt to, modify, and choose environments that accomplish one’s goals and the goals of society and proposes that it is composed of three abilities — ____, ____, and ____.

A

Sternberg’s Triarchic Theory; Triarchic Theory; Analytical, Creative, and Practical

73
Q

According to Sternberg, traditional intelligence tests focus on ____ ____ but neglect ____ and ____ ____, which are also important contributors to ____ and ____ ____.

A

Analytical Ability; Creative and Practical Abilities; Academic and Occupational Achievement

74
Q

____ ____ ____: According to Gardner, the traditional view of intelligence is too ____, and his theory of ____ ____ distinguishes between eight types of cognitive ability — ______________________________________________________.

A

Gardner’s Multiple Intelligences; Narrow; Multiple Intelligences; Linguistic, Musical, Logical-Mathematical, Spatial, Bodily-Kinesthetic, Interpersonal, Intrapersonal, and Naturalistic

75
Q

Gardner contends that everyone possesses ____ ____ to some ____ and that the intelligences are not ____ but can be developed by ____ to appropriate ____ ____.

A

All Intelligences; Degree; Static; Exposure; Learning Experiences

76
Q

A continuing controversy among those interested in intelligence is whether individual and group differences in intelligence test scores are primarily the result of ____ or ____. Although experts generally agree that ____ contribute to intelligence, some place greater emphasis on ____ while others emphasize the role of the ____.

A

Nature or Nurture; Both; Heredity; Environment

77
Q

The ____ of ____: The relationship between ____ and ____ is demonstrated by studies comparing the IQs of people with varying levels of genetic and environmental similarity. A frequently cited study is the one conducted by ____ and ____.

A

The Rold of Heredity; Heredity and Intelligence; Bouchard and McGue

78
Q

As shown in Table 1, their findings show that the greater the ____ ____, the higher the ____ between ___ ____:

A

Genetic Similarity; Correlation; IQ Scores

79
Q

The impact of heredity on intelligence can be expressed in terms of a ____ ____, which indicates the proportion of variability in intelligence that is due to inherited factors. Most reported heritability correlations for people in industrialized countries range from .60 to .80, which means that between 32 and 64% of variability in intelligence is due to ____ ____.

A

Heritability Estimate; Genetic Factors

80
Q

Note that heritability estimates must be interpreted with caution for several reasons: First, heritability applies to ____ and is not useful for determining the ____ ____ of ____ and ____ to an individual’s ____ ____.

A

Groups; Relative Contributions of Heredity and Environment; Intellectual Ability

81
Q

Second, a heritability estimate indicates the ____ of ____ within ____ and cannot be used to interpret differences ____ ____. Third, a heritability estimate applies only to the ____ ____ from which it was derived and may not be applicable to ____ ____ or even the ____ ____ if there are ____ in ____ or ____ ____.

A

Degree of Heritability; Groups; Between Groups; Particular Populations; Derived; Other Populations; Same Population; Changes in Genetic or Environmental Conditions

82
Q

Fourth, heritability estimates do not provide information about the potential ____ of a ____. Fifth, the research suggests that, at least until middle-age, the impact of genetic factors on 19 ____ while the impact of environmental factors ____ with ____ ____.

A

Modifiability; Trait; Increases; Decreases; Increasing Age

83
Q

The ____ of the ____: The contribution of the ____ to intelligence is suggested by several studies. For example, 19 test scores have been linked to socioeconomic status, educational opportunities, family environment, and nutrition. Evidence for environmental factors is also provided by research on the ____ ____ and the ____ ____.

A

The Rold of the Environment; Environment; Confluence Model; Flynn Effect

84
Q

____ ____: Studies have found that there is a relationship between family size, birth order, and IQ, with children’s IQ scores decreasing from the child that is born ____ to the child that is born ____.

A

Confluence Model; First; Last

85
Q

Zajonc’s ____ ____ explains the firstborn child’s advantage in terms of the changing intellectual environment in the family: In contrast to their younger siblings, firstborns do not initially have to share their parents’ attention, are exposed to more adult language. and are more likely to act as “tutors” for their brothers and sisters.

A

Confluence Model

86
Q

____ ____: Research conducted by Flynn and others prior to 2000 found that IQ test scores consistently ____ over the previous 70 years in the United States and other industrialized countries. This increase — which is referred to as the ____ ____ — involved an increase of at least ____ ___ ____ per decade and was apparently due primarily to increases in ____ ____.

A

Flynn Effect; Increased; Flynn Effect; Three IQ Points; Fluid Intelligence

87
Q

The Flynn effect cannot be explained by ____ since it involves changes over only one or two generations and, therefore, is believed to be the result of ____ ____. Research conducted after 2000 suggests that the Flynn effect has recently ____ or ____ in some countries (e.g., Norway and Denmark) and that, in the United States, it has continued for individuals with IQs ranging from 70 to 109 but has reversed for individuals with IOS of 110 and above.

A

Genetics; Environmental Factors; Stopped or Reversed

88
Q

Intelligence test scores become fairly consistent after about age ____, although some fluctuations in specific abilities are not uncommon. While scores on measures of intelligence continue to be relatively stable during the ____ and ____ ____ ____, several predictable changes in cognitive abilities occur in ____ ____.

A

Seven; Early and Middle Adult Years; Later Adulthood

89
Q

____ and ____ ____: The relationship between ____ and ____ was addressed by Horn, who proposed that ____ ____ increases until about age _ but that ____ ____ peaks in ____ ____ and thereafter ____. Horn’s hypothesis was supported by Kauffman’s research, which found that WAIS-Ill Verbal (which depends primarily on crystallized intelligence) increased until the mid-50s and then declined slightly, while WAIS-Ill Performance IQ (which depends primarily on fluid intelligence) peaked in the mid-20s and thereafter declined rapidly and steadily.

A

Fluid and Crystalized Intelligence; Aging and Intelligence; Crystallized Intelligence; 60; Fluid Intelligence; Late Adolescence; Declines

90
Q

Declines in fluid intelligence in adulthood have been linked to age-related declines in the ____ of ____ ____ that, in turn, have been attributed to declines in ____ ____.

A

Efficiency of Working Memory; Processing Speed

91
Q

____ ____ ____: Many early studies investigating the stability of intelligence over the lifespan found that IQ test scores increased until ____ or ____ ____ but thereafter ____ ____. However, subsequent research suggested that this finding was largely the result of the ____-____ ____ used in the early studies: In contrast to cross-sectional studies, ____ ____ found that intelligence continued to ____ over time, with significant ____ not occurring until after age _ or until the period just preceding ____.

A

Seatle Longitudinal Study; Adolescence or Early Adulthood; Gradually Declined; Cross-Sectional Methodology; Longitudinal Research; Increase; Declines; 60; Death

92
Q

The confounding effects of the research methodology have been demonstrated by Schaie et al.’s ____ ____ ____, which used a ____-____ ____ that combined cross-sectional and longitudinal methodologies. Based on their findings, these investigators concluded that a cross-sectional design is more likely to find early age-related declines in 10 because it is more vulnerable to ____ (intergenerational) ____ — i.e., to the confounding effects of educational and other differences between different age groups: Generally, at any given time, younger people are better educated than older people and are more likely to have had experiences (e.g., better nutrition and health care) that tend to increase scores on intelligence tests.

A

Seattle Longitudinal Study; Cross-Sequential Design; Cohort Effects

93
Q

Schaie et al.’s evaluation of intelligence permitted an examination of ____-____ ____ for six mental abilities — ___________________________________. They found that, for most people, only perceptual speed declined substantially prior to age 60. In contrast, ____ ____ did not show a significant decline until after age 60, and the other four abilities remained ____ ____ until about age 70 or 75.

A

Age-Related Trends; Inductive Reasoning, Spatial Orientation, Perceptual Speed, Numeric Ability, Vocabulary, and Verbal Memory; Perceptual Speed; Numeric Ability; Fairly Stable

94
Q

____ ____ to ____ ____: Researchers have identified several factors that are associated with cognitive decline in later adulthood: First, many items and tasks included in cognitive ability tests emphasize speed of ____ ____, and, consequently, observed age-related declines on those tests may be due to the fact that people over 50 experience a decline in the ____ and ____ with which they ____ ____.

A

Factors Related to Cognitive Decline; Information Processing; Efficiency and Speed; Manipulate Information

95
Q

Support for this explanation is provided by the finding that older examinees do better when they are given as ____ ____ as ____ ____ to complete ____ ____. Second, ____ ____ is one of the strongest predictors of the maintenance of cognitive functioning in later adulthood.

A

Much Time as they Need; Cognitive Tasks; Physical Health

96
Q

One health factor that is particularly important is ____ ____, which has an impact on ____ ____ ____ and other cognitive functions. Third, Schaie and Willis have proposed that, at least for some older adults, declines in cognitive ability are due to ____ and are, therefore, ____. Their hypothesis is supported by studies showing that age-related declines in intelligence — even those involving fluid intelligence — may be reversed with relatively simple ____ and ____.

A

Cardiovascular Functioning; Information Processing Speed; Disuse; Reversible; Training and Practice

97
Q

____ ____ to ____: Although males and females do not ____ significantly in terms of average performance on 10 tests, there are some gender-related differences in specific abilities.

A

Differences Related to Gender; Differ

98
Q

____ do better than ____ on some measures of verbal ability, especially during the school years, and are less likely than ____ to have a reading disability. In contrast, ____ outperform ____ on measures of certain spatial and math skills, with ____ ____ showing the largest gender gap. Although there is evidence that these differences may have a ____ ____, some investigators point out that ____ ____ also play a role.

A

Females; Males; Males; Males; Females; Spatial Skills; Biological Basis; Environmental Factors

99
Q

Spatial abilities are affected by opportunities to participate in model-building, carpentry, and video games that require mental rotation of visual images, and boys usually spend more time than girls engaged in these activities. Note, however, that gender differences in intellectual abilities tend to be ____ and that recent studies indicate that they have ____ in recent years.

A

Small; Declined

100
Q

____ ____ to ____ and ____: A number of investigators have reported differences in mean intelligence and academic achievement test scores different ____ /____ ____. One of the most consistent findings is that Whites tend to outperform African Americans by about one ____ ____ on the Stanford-Binet, Wechsler tests, and other standard 10 tests with a corresponding gap on ____ ____. There is evidence, however, that this gap has ____ somewhat since the 1970s.

A

Differences Related to Ethnicity and Race; Racial/Ethnic Groups; Standard Deviation; Achievement Tests; Narrowed

101
Q

Whether the mean IQ difference between Whites and African Americans is due primarily to ____ ____, ____ ____, or the effects of ____ ____ continues to be a topic of debate. Regarding the latter, some experts argue that measures of cognitive ability have been developed by and for White middle-class people and, consequently, are ____ against people belonging to other racial/ethnic or socioeconomic groups. Advocates of this position distinguish between two ____ of ____ ____.

A

Genetic Influences; Environmental Differences; Test Bias; Biased; Types of Test Bias

102
Q

____ ____ occurs when there is differential validity — i.e., when the validity coefficients for a predictor differ for different groups — and, as a consequence, the predictor is more accurate for one group than another. (This is referred to as slope bias because the regression lines for the groups have ____ ____ in the ____ depicting their predictor and criterion scores.)

A

Slope Bias; Different Slopes; Scatterplot

103
Q

____ ____ (or unfairness) occurs when the validity coefficients and criterion performance for different groups are the same, but their mean scores on the predictor differ. As a result, the predictor consistently over- or underpredicts performance on the ____ for members of one of the groups. (This is called intercept bias because, in the scatterplot, the regression lines for different groups cross the _-____ at ____ ____.)

A

Intercept Bias; Criterion; Y-Intercept at Different Points

104
Q

Spearman’s two-factor theory predicts that performance on any cognitive task depends on (1) ____ plus one or more specific abilities. Horn and Cattell distinguished between fluid and (2) ____ intelligence and concluded that (3) ____ intelligence is strongly affected by education and cultural experiences. Sternberg’s triarchic theory proposes that successful intelligence is composed of three abilities — analytical, creative, and (4) ____.

A

(1) g (general intelligence); (2) crystallized; (3) crystallized; (4) practical

105
Q

The impact of heredity on intelligence is demonstrated by studies showing that, the greater the (5) ____ similarity between people, the higher the correlation coefficient between their 10 test scores. For example, the correlation for identical twins reared together is about (6) ____, while the correlation for biological siblings reared together is (7) ____.

A

(5) genetic; (6) .85; (7) .45

106
Q

The influence of the environment on intelligence is demonstrated by research on the (8) ____ effect which found (with some recent exceptions) a steady increase in IQ test scores in the U.S. and other industrialized countries.

A

(8) Flynn

107
Q

With regard to the stability of intelligence over the lifespan, Horn proposed that crystallized intelligence increased until about age (9) ____ while fluid intelligence peaks in late adolescence and thereafter declines.

A

(9) 60

108
Q

Research investigating the stability of intelligence over the lifespan has produced contradictory results, in part because of the different research methodologies used. Early age-related declines are most likely to be found when a (10) ____ design is used because this design is very susceptible to (11) ____ effects.

A

(10) cross-sectional; (11) cohort (intergenerational)

109
Q

Schaie and his colleagues used a (12) ____ design and found that, of the six mental abilities they assessed, only (13) ____ showed significant declines prior to age 60.

A

(12) cross-sequential; (13) perceptual speed

110
Q

Several experts argue that cognitive ability tests are biased against members of certain groups. They distinguish between (16) ____ bias, which occurs when there is differential validity, and intercept bias, which occurs when mean scores on the (17) ____ differ for different groups.

A

(16) slope; (17) predictor