Measures of Ability, Aptitude, and Interests

Question 1

Ability, aptitude, and interests tests are used in ____, ____, and other settings for a variety of purposes including assisting with ¬____ and ____ ____ ____ and identifying ____ and ____ ____.

Answer 1

Educational; Organizational; Educational and Vocational Placement Decisions; Instructional and Training Needs

Question 2

____ ____ ____ are used in educational settings to assess current status and predict future academic achievement. Several measures of cognitive ability that are used for this purpose at the elementary and high school level were described in the previous section; other approaches and specific instruments are described below.

Answer 2

Academic Ability Tests

Question 3

____ ____ are directly linked to what examinees have learned in the classroom or other controlled setting and include ____-____ ____ and ____-____ ____.

Answer 3

Instructional Assessments; Curriculum-Based Measurement and Performance-Based Assessment

Question 4

____-____ ____ (___) involves periodic assessment of school-aged children with brief standardized and validated measures of basic academic skills that reflect the current school curriculum for the purposes of evaluating instructional effectiveness and making instructional decisions.

Answer 4

Curriculum-Based Measurement (CBM)

Question 5

The ____ ____ ____ of ____ ____ ____ (___) is a set of one-minute measures (“probes”) that are used to regularly monitor the development of early literacy and reading skills. When a student scores below what is expected, they are provided with ____ ____ ____.

Answer 5

Diagnostic Dynamic Indicators of Basic Literacy Skills (BIBELS); Appropriate Remedial Instruction

Question 6

The term ____-____ ____ (___) is sometimes used interchangeably with curriculum-based measurement, but some authors distinguish between them in terms of their characteristics and/or purposes (although these vary from author to author). Some authors use the term ____-____ ____ to refer only to teacher-made tests and other informal (nonstandardized) measures.

Answer 6

Curriculum-Based Assessment (CBA); Curriculum-Based Assessment

Question 7

____-____ ____ (___) is considered the “centerpiece” of Goals 2000, which was proposed by the Clinton administration. It is also known as ____ ____ and involves “observing and judging a pupil’s skill in actually carrying out a physical activity (e.g., giving a speech) or producing a product (e.g., building a birdhouse).”

Answer 7

Performance-Based Assessment (PBA); Authentic Assessment

Question 8

Proponents of PBA argue that it provides an ____ ____ of ____ and, consequently, is useful for assessing students from ____ and ____ ____ ____. A limitation of PBA is that it might reflect, to some degree, ____ ____ and ____ rather than what was learned in the ____ ____.

Answer 8

Egalitarian Method of Evaluation; Culturally and Linguistically Diverse Groups; Prior Knowledge and Experience; Current Class

Question 9

____ for ____ ____ ____: ____ ____ are a heterogeneous group of disorders that involve substantial impairments in listening, speaking, reading, writing, mathematical skills, or reasoning abilities. Although they may ___-____ with visual, hearing, or motor deficits, an emotional disturbance, intellectual disability, or adverse environmental factors, they cannot be entirely explained by those factors.

Answer 9

Tests for Identifying Learning Disabilities; Learning Disabilities; Co-Occur

Question 10

Measures used to assess people with learning disabilities are designed to assist in ____ ____ and determination of ____ for ____ ____ and to ascertain the nature or pattern of ____ to facilitate the identification of ____ ____.

Answer 10

Clinical Diagnosis; Eligibility for Special Education; Impairment; Appropriate Interventions

Question 11

The ____ ____ of ____ ____, ____ ____ (___-_) is appropriate for individuals ages 5:0 to 12:11. It was designed to evaluate a child’s strengths and weaknesses in terms of ____ ____, assist in the diagnosis of ____ and problems related to ____ ____, and track a child’s ____. The development of the test was based on ____ ____ ____, which distinguishes between channels of communication, psycholinguistic processes, and levels of organization, as well as on recent ____ ____ ____.

Answer 11

Illinois Test of Psycholinguistic Abilities, Third Edition (ITPA-3); Linguistic Abilities; Dyslexia; Phonological Coding; Progress; Osgood’s Communication Model; Information Processing Models

Question 12

The test includes 11 subtests that provide three __________________________________ and eight ________________.

Answer 12

Global Composite scores (General Language, Spoken Language, Written Language); Specific Composite scores

Question 13

The ____-____ ____ ____, ____ _ (___) was designed for individuals ages 5:0 to 94:11 as a rapid screening device for assessing the reading, spelling, and math skills needed for effective communication and learning. It consists of ____ ____ (Sentence Comprehension, Word Reading, Spelling, and Math Computation) and is used to assist in the diagnosis of ____ ____, identify appropriate ____ ____, and monitor ____ ____ over time.

Answer 13

Wide-Range Achievement Test, Revision 4 (WRAT4); Four Subtests; Leaning Disabilities; Instructional Strategies; Academic Progress

Question 14

The ____ ____ ____ ____, ____ ____ (___-_) is for individuals ages through 50:11 and assesses the eight areas of achievement identified by ___ ____ as important for identifying ____ ____. The score report generated by Scoring Assistant software provides specific goals and objectives that correspond to the examinee’s ____ ____ and are designed to assist with identifying ____ ____ ____ (___) ____ and ____ ____.

Answer 14

Wechsler Individual Achievement Test, Third Edition (WIAT-III); IDEA Legislation; Learning Disabilities; Problem Areas; Individualized Education Program (IEP) Goals and Intervention Strategies

Question 15

____ ____: The ____ ____ ____ and ____ ____ ____ are two of the most commonly used admission tests for undergraduate and graduate school, respectively.

Answer 15

Admission Tests; Scholastic Assessment Test and Graduate Record Exam

Question 16

The ____ ____ ____ (___) consists of two parts: The ___ ____ ____ (also known as SAT-I) is used to predict the college success of high school seniors to facilitate admissions and scholarship decisions. It consists of three sections: ____ ____, ____, and ____. Scores for each section range from 200 to 800, with a score of __ indicating that the examinee answered about one-half of the questions correctly.

Answer 16

Scholastic Assessment Test (SAT); SAT Reasoning Test; Critical Reading, Mathematica, and Writing; 500

Question 17

The ___ ____ ____ (also known as SAT-Il) assess an examinee’s knowledge in five areas —_______________________________.

Answer 17

SAT Subject Tests; English, History and Social Studies, Mathematics, Science, and Languages

Question 18

The results of research on the validity of the SAT Reasoning Test provided on the College Board’s Web site indicate that, of the test’s three sections, ___ ____ is the best predictor of first-year college GPA and that the best combination of predictors of first-year college GPA is ___ ____ plus ____ ____ ___.

Answer 18

SAT Writing; SAT Scores; High School GPA

Question 19

Research on earlier versions of the SAT and similar tests found that they are somewhat ____ ____ for predicting the college GPA of examinees who obtain test scores in the middle-range than of examinees who obtain ____ ____ ____ and that SAT scores are related to ____ ____ and ____. There is also evidence that coaching for the SAT produces an ____ ____ of 25 to 35 points and is most likely to benefit students “whose skills are ____ or ____.”

Answer 19

Less Accurate; More Extreme Scores; Socioeconomic Status and Ethnicity; Average Increase; Rusty or Nonexistent

Question 20

The ____ ____ ____ (___) measures general scholastic abilities and is used in conjunction with grades, letters of recommendation, and other measures of academic achievement to evaluate an individual’s readiness for graduate-level work.

Answer 20

Graduate Record Exam (GRE)

Question 21

The GRE General Test provides scores on ____ ____, ____ ____, and ____ ____, and ___ ____ ____ are available for eight disciplines — biochemistry/cell and molecular biology, biology, chemistry, computer science, literature, mathematics, physics, and psychology.

Answer 21

Analytical Writing, Verbal Reasoning, and Quantitative Reasoning, and GRE Subject Tests

Question 22

The terms ____ and ____ are sometimes used interchangeably. However, ____ ____ have been traditionally defined as measures of innate capacity or potential for learning a specific skill, whereas ____ ____ have been considered measures of knowledge or behavior acquired in a classroom or other controlled setting.

Answer 22

Aptitude and Achievement; Aptitude Tests; Achievement Tests

Question 23

The distinction between aptitude and achievement tests is not always clear, however, since performance on aptitude tests is not only related to ____ ____ but is also affected by ____ ____. Moreover, performance on achievement tests is influenced by learning under ____-____ ____, and scores on these tests are sometimes used to predict future learning. However, despite this overlap, tests continue to be categorized as ____ or ____ ____.

Answer 23

Inherent Abilities; Previous Learning; Non-Uniform Conditions; Future Learning; Aptitude or Achievement Tests

Question 24

____ ____ ____ ____ contain a number of tests or subtests that each measure a different aptitude. These tests are used most often for ____ and ____ ____ of high school and college students and in ____ and ____ ____ provided by ____ ____ ____ and the ____ ____.

Answer 24

Multiple Aptitude Test Batteries; Educational and Vocational Counseling; Selection and Placement Programs; State Employment Agencies; Armed Services

Question 25

A shortcoming of many multiple aptitude batteries is that they lack adequate ____ ____. In other words, the subtests included in the batteries do not have different levels of validity for different criterion groups or categories. For example, ____ ____ ____ are highly correlated with grades in most academic courses.

Answer 25

Differential Validity; Verbal Reasoning Tests

Question 26

The ____ ____ ____ (___) include five tests that assess specific job-related abilities and three tests that evaluate broad intellectual abilities. The tests were designed for use with students in grades 7 through 12 to assist in ____ and ____ ____ but are also administered to adults for the purposes of ____ ____ and ____ ____.

Answer 26

Differential Aptitude Tests (DAT); Educational and Career Counseling; Vocational Counseling and Employment Selection

Question 27

The ____ ____ ____ ____ (___) was developed by the United States Employment Service to assess aptitudes relevant to a range of occupations for the purpose of vocational counseling and job placement for high school seniors and adults. The current version assesses ____ ____ (e.g., verbal, numerical, clerical) with eight ____-____-____ ____ and four ____ ____. The tests included in the GATB are ____ ____ and may not be appropriate for people who are unable to ____ ____.

Answer 27

General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB); Nine Aptitudes; Paper-and-Pencil Tests; Performance Tests; Highly Speeded; Work Quickly

Question 28

____ ____ of ____ ____: Although tests of ____ ____ are often used to predict job performance, their predictive validity tends to be low, with the typical validity coefficient being in the .20s. A close examination of the studies suggests that the magnitude of the validity coefficients for these tests ____, depending on the ____, the ____, and the ____ ____. Moderate to high coefficients are more likely to be obtained when the criterion is a measure of training program performance than when it is a measure of on-the-job success.

Answer 28

Occupational Tests of Specific Aptitudes; Specific Aptitudes; Varies; Criterion; Situation; Individuals Tested

Question 29

____ ____: Tests of ____ ____ are usually apparatus tests designed to assess speed, coordination, and other motor responses. These tests generally have low ____ ____ due, in part, to their susceptibility to ____ ____ and their high degree of ____. Regarding the latter, factor analyses have shown that there is no underlying “____ ____ ____ “ and that the different psychomotor skills are relatively ____. Examples of psychomotor tests include the ____ ____ and the ____ ____ ____ ____ ____.

Answer 29

Psychomotor Tests; Psychomotor Skills; Validity Coefficients; Practice Effects; Specificity; General Psychomotor Factor; Independent; Purdue Pegboard; Crawford Small Parts Dexterity Test

Question 30

____ ____ ____: Measures of ____ ____ assess a broad range of functions including manual dexterity, perceptual and spatial skills, mechanical reasoning, and mechanical information. Like psychomotor skills, different aspects of mechanical aptitude are relatively ____.

Answer 30

Mechanical Aptitude Tests; Mechanical Aptitude; Independent

Question 31

There are some consistent ____ ____ in mechanical aptitude: ____ generally excel on measures of manual dexterity and perceptual discrimination, while ____ exhibit superiority on measures of mechanical reasoning and information. Measures of mechanical aptitude include the ____ ____ ____ ____ and the ____ ____ ____ ____.

Answer 31

Gender Differences; Females; Males; Minnesota Paper Form Board and the Bennett Mechanical Comprehension Test

Question 32

Research investigating the validity of ____ ____ has found that these measures are good predictors of occupational choice, satisfaction, and persistence but are less valid than intelligence tests for predicting academic and occupational success. There is also evidence that measures of interests are better predictors when they are combined with measures of ____-____, ____-____, and ____.

Answer 32

Interest Inventories; Self-Confidence, Self-Efficacy, and Personality

Question 33

Longitudinal studies assessing the stability of vocational interests suggests that they do not begin to crystallize until ____ or ____, although the general direction of a person’s interests may be apparent ____ ____.

Answer 33

Adolescence or Later; Much Earlier

Question 34

Several versions of the Strong tests are currently available including the 1994 version and an updated version of the ____ ____ ____ (___), the ____ ____, and the ____ ____ ____ ____. Development of the SII utilized two different approaches: The test’s General Occupational Theme and Basic Interest scales were derived on the basis of the ____ ____ ____, while development of the Occupational scales was based on an ____ ____ ____ ____. The latter approach involved comparing the responses of males and females in various occupations with the responses of males and females in a ____ ____ ____.

Answer 34

Strong Interest Inventory (Sll), the Strong Profile, and the Strong Career Test Online; Logical Content Method; Empirical Criterion Keying Strategy; General Reference Sample

Question 35

Items that distinguished between occupational groups and “people in general” were included in the appropriate ____ ____. For the updated version of the SIL the general reference sample was replaced by a new “____ ____ ____ “ (___) that included an equal number of women and men from the U.S. workforce and was representative of the population in terms of ____/____.

Answer 35

Occupational Scale; General Representative Sample (GRS); Race/Ethnicity

Question 36

The current version of the SII yields scores on the following scales: _________________________.

Answer 36

General Occupational Themes; Basic Interest Scales; Occupational Scales; Personal Styples Scales; Administrative Indices

Question 37

____ ____ ____ (___): The ___ ____ provides information on Holland’s six occupational themes — realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional.

Answer 37

General Occupational Themes (GOT); GOT Scale

Question 38

____ ____ ____ (___): Scores are provided on 30 BISS that are related to the GOTs and include Athletics, Performing Arts, Research, Healthcare Services, Teaching and Education, and Entrepreneurship.

Answer 38

Basic Interest Scales (BIS)

Question 39

____ ____ (___): These scales indicate the degree to which the examinee’s interests are similar to those of satisfied workers of the same gender in 122 diverse occupations including Accountant, Corporate Trainer, Software Developer, Psychologist, Chef, and Translator.

Answer 39

Occupational Scales (OS)

Question 40

____ ____ ____ (___): Scores are provided on five ___ — Work Style, Learning Environment, Leadership Style, Risk Taking, and Team Orientation.

Answer 40

Personal Styles Scales (PSS); PSSs

Question 41

____ ____: The ____ ____ provide information on the types and consistency of responses made by an examinee.

Answer 41

Administrative Indices; Administrative Indices

Question 42

____ ____: The ____ ____ ____-____ (___-_) was the original version of the Kuder tests and provided information on an examinee’s interests in ten broad vocational interest areas (e.g., outdoor, mechanical, computational, scientific).

Answer 42

Kuder Tests; Kuder Preference Record-Vocational (KPR-V)

Question 43

The KPR-V was a ____ ____ ____ in which items were selected for inclusion in one of the test’s scales on the basis of their high correlations with other items in the scale and low correlations with scores on other scales. It utilized a ____-____ ____ that required examinees to respond to each item by indicating which of three statements they ____ and ____ ____. This format helped control acquiescence and other response styles and produced ____ ____ that indicated the ____ ____ and ____ of ____ within the examinee.

Answer 43

Homogeneously Keyed Inventory; Forced-Choice Format; Most and Least Preferred; Ipsative Scores; Relative Strengths and Weaknesses of Interests

Question 44

A more recent version, the ____ ____ ____ ____ (___), is for high school juniors and seniors, college students, and adults. It was developed on the basis of ____ ____ ____ but, unlike the SII, did not include a ____ ____ ____. Instead, items selected for inclusion in the test were those that distinguished between different ____ ____.

Answer 44

Kuder Occupational Interest Survey (KOIS); Empirical Criterion Keying; General Reference Group; Occupational Groups

Question 45

The KOIS provides scores on four scales: _________________________.

Answer 45

Occupational Scales; College Major Scales; Vocational Interest Estimates; Dependability Indices

Question 46

____ ____: Scores on 109 ____ ____ (65 male and 44 female) are reported in terms of ____ ____ that indicate the strength of the relationship between the examinee’s interests and those of satisfied workers in different occupations. A coefficient of less than 45 indicates a ____ of ____. The Occupational Scales of the KOIS are ____ in terms of occupation types than those included in the Sll.

Answer 46

Occupational Scales; Occupational Scales; Lambda Coefficients; Dissimilarity of Interests; Broader

Question 47

____ ____ ____: Scores are provided for 40 ____ ____ (22 for males and 18 for females).

Answer 47

College Major Scales; College Majors

Question 48

____ ____ ____ (___): The ___ provide an overview of an examinee’s interests in ten broad areas that are similar to ____ occupational themes.

Answer 48

Vocational Interest Estimates (VIE’s); VIE’s; Holland’s

Question 49

____ ____: The ____ ____ are used to check the validity of an examinee’s responses.

Answer 49

Dependability Indices; Dependability Indices

Question 50

The most recent addition to the Kuder tests is the ____ ____ ____, which is an online program that consists of three components: ____ ____ for elementary students, ____ ____ for secondary students, and ____ ____ for postsecondary students and adults.

Answer 50

Career Planning System; Kuder Galaxy; Kuder Navigator; Kuder Journey

Question 51

Kuder Journey includes the ____ ____ ____ with Person Match, the ____ ____ ____, and ____ ____ ____ ____. It is tailored to the individual user in terms of their ____ ____ (student, first-time job seeker, career changer, veteran or active member of the military, person with a disability, or retired person) and includes tools to help the examinee with their ____ ____.

Answer 51

Kuder Career Search; Kuder Skills Assessment; Super’s Work Values Inventory; Current Status; Job Search

Question 52

The ____-____ ____ (___) is based on ____ theory of career choice which emphasizes the importance of matching a person’s preferences to the characteristics of the job. It yields scores on ____ ____ ____ ____, which are conceptualized in terms of a ____. The closer the themes are positioned to one another in the hexagon, the more ____ they are considered to be.

Answer 52

Self-Directed Search (SDS); Holland’s; Holland’s Six Occupational Themes; Hexagon; Related

Question 53

Starting from the upper left of the hexagon and moving clockwise, the preferred activities and occupations associated with the six themes (“____ “) are: _____________________________.

Answer 53

RIASEC; Realistic; Investigative; Artistic; Social; Enterprising; Conventional

Question 54

____ (_): ____ are technical, physical, mechanical, and outdoor activities. ____ include engineer, mechanic, construction worker, electrician, farmer, police officer, and pilot.

Answer 54

Realistic (R); Preferences; Occupations

Question 55

____ (_): ____ are scientific, mathematical, analytical, and scholarly activities. ____ include biologist, veterinarian. mathematician, university professor, and medical technician.

Answer 55

Investigative (I); Preferences; Occupations

Question 56

____ (_): ____ are music, art, writing, drama, and other creative activities. ____ include artist, actor, musician, writer, interior designer, and industrial designer.

Answer 56

Artistic (A); Preferences; Occupations

Question 57

____ (_): ____ are activities that involve working with and helping others. ____ include teacher, psychologist, social worker, nurse, minister, and personnel manager.

Answer 57

Social (S); Preferences; Occupations

Question 58

____ (_): ____ are activities that involve competition, management, sales, and public speaking. ____ include sales manager, realtor, stockbroker, financial planner, and buyer.

Answer 58

Enterprising (E); Preferences; Occupations

Question 59

____ (_): ____ are structured, unambiguous activities that involve organizing data, attending to detail, and following through on others’ instructions. ____ include accountant, administrative assistant, actuary, technical writer, paralegal, and banker.

Answer 59

Conventional (C); Preferences; Occupations

Question 60

The most recent revision of the SDS (Form R: 4th Edition) is appropriate for ____-____ and ____ ____ and ____ and is available in ____ and ____ ____. It provides occupational and educational codebooks that allow an examinee to compare their ____-____ ____ ____ (three highest scores) to profiles that correspond to over 1,300 ____, 750 ____ ____ of ____, and over 700 ____ ____.

Answer 60

High-School and College Students and Adults; Print and Internet Versions; Three-Letter Summary Code; Occupations; Postsecondary Fields of Study; Leisure Activities

Question 61

The SDS also provides scores on several factors that Holland believed affect a person’s ____ for ____ ____-____ and are important to consider when providing ____ ____ to an examinee: ____ is calculated from the degree of consistency between the examinee’s expressed interests (as indicated by the occupations identified by the examinee in the Daydreams Section of the SDS) and the examinee’s Summary Code.

Answer 61

Readiness for Career Decision-Making; Career Counseling; Congruence

Question 62

____ refers to the degree to which the examinee’s expressed interests belong to the same RIASEC categories. ____ is the similarity of the examinee’s two strongest measured interests (the first two letters of their Summary Code).

Answer 62

Coherence; Consistency

Question 63

____ is the degree of distinctiveness of the examinee’s measured interests — i.e., an examinee is highly differentiated when he/she obtains a high score on one theme but low scores on all others. Finally, ____ refers to the frequency with which the examinee’s Summary Code occurred in different normative groups.

Answer 63

Differentiation; Commonness

Question 64

When an examinee has ____ ____, the career counselor can explore why the client has such varied interests and what impact that might have on his/her career choice, or when an examinee has ____ ____, the counselor may want to determine what the client knows about the occupations he/she identified as aspirations.

Answer 64

Low Coherence; Low Congruence

Question 65

Curriculum-based measurement is used to assess basic (1) ____ presented in the current curriculum in order to facilitate decisions related to instructional effectiveness. (2) ____-based assessment involves evaluating a student’s ability to carry out a physical activity or produce a product. Measures used to identify learning disabilities include the ITPA-3, which provides information on a child’s (3) ____and the (4) ____ which is a rapid screening device for assessing reading, spelling, and math skills.

Answer 65

(l) academic skills; (2) Performance; (3) linguistic abilities; (4) WRAT4

Question 66

The SAT Reasoning Test is used to predict the college success of high school seniors and consists of three sections: Critical Reading, Mathematical, and (5) ____. The studies have found that the SAT is somewhat less accurate as a predictor for examinees who obtain scores in the (6) of the score distribution. Traditionally, aptitude tests have been described as measures of (7) ____ while achievement tests are considered measures of knowledge acquired in a controlled setting. Multiple aptitude tests often lack adequate (8) ____ validity.

Answer 66

(5) Writing; (6) middle-range; (7) innate learning capacity; (8) differential

Question 67

The (9) ____ was designed for students in grades 7 through 12 to assist in educational and career counseling, while the GATB is used with high school seniors and adults for vocational counseling and job placement. Measures of specific aptitudes are usually better at predicting (10) ____ performance than on-the-job success. Psychomotor tests tend to have low validity due to their susceptibility to practice effects and high (11) ____.

Answer 67

(9) DAT (Differential Aptitude Test); (10) training program; (11) specificity

Question 68

Research investigating the validity of interest inventories suggests that they are less valid than intelligence tests for predicting job success but are good predictors of job choice, (12) ____ and persistence. The Occupational Scales of the Strong Interest Inventory were developed on the basis of (13) ____, which involved comparing the responses of males and females in different occupational groups to those of men and women in a general representative sample.

Answer 68

(12) satisfaction; (13) empirical criterion keying

Question 69

Development of the KOIS also used this method but involved considering only the responses of people in (14) ____. The Self-Directed Search (SDS) yields scores on six (15) ____ that are conceptualized in terms of a hexagon.

Answer 69

(14) different occupations; (15) occupational themes

Question 70

Starting at the upper left of the hexagon and moving clockwise, the six categories are Realistic, Investigative, (16) ____, Social, Enterprising, and (17) ____. Holland believed that several factors are important when interpreting an examinee’s scores on the SDS, including (18) ____, which refers to the similarity of the examinee’s two strongest measured interests, and (19) ____, which refers to the degree of distinctiveness of an examinee’s measured interests.

Answer 70

(16) Artistic; (17) Conventional; (18) consistency; (19) differentiation