Emotion, Stress, Sexual Development, Behavior, Sleep, and Dreaming

Question 1

Researchers interested in emotion have identified six basic emotions that are associated with the same facial expressions in a ____ of ____ and are believed to be innate and universal — _________________.

Answer 1

Variety of Cultures; fear, anger, happiness, disgust, surprise, and sadness

Question 2

The various ____ of ____ differ in terms of their emphasis on the role of peripheral and central factors.

Answer 2

Theories of Emotion

Question 3

____ -____ ____ stresses the importance of peripheral factors and proposes that emotions represent perceptions of bodily reactions to sensory stimuli. In other words, “you are afraid because your knees are shaking, and your heart is pounding.”

Answer 3

James-Lange Theory

Question 4

Support for James-Lange theory comes from studies of quadriplegics and paraplegics who receive ____ ____ ____ from their bodies and often report feeling less ____ ____ after their injuries.

Answer 4

Limited Neural Information; Intense Emotions

Question 5

____ -____ ____ places greater emphasis on the brain mechanisms that mediate emotion. It proposes that emotional and bodily reactions to stimuli occur ____ as a result of ____ ____ of the ____ and the ____ ____ ____.

Answer 5

Cannon-Bard Theory; Simultaneously; Thalamic Stimulation; Cortex; Peripheral Nervous System

Question 6

Cannon-Bard theory is supported by research showing that bodily reactions are fairly similar for all ____, which suggests that the nature of emotional experience does not just reflect differences in ____ ____.

Answer 6

Emotions; Bodily Arousal

Question 7

Schachter and Singer’s ____ -____ ____ (1962) describes subjective emotional experience as the consequence of a combination of physiological arousal and cognitive interpretation of that arousal and the environmental context in which it occurs.

Answer 7

Two-Factor Theory

Question 8

In Schachter and Singer’s famous “____ ____ “ (see the Social Psychology chapter), research participants interpreted their unexplained arousal in terms of the behavior exhibited by a confederate who waited with them for an experiment to begin.

Answer 8

Epinephrine Study

Question 9

Lazarus’s (1991) ____ -____ ____ attempts to reconcile physiological universals with individual differences by proposing that emotions are universal but that there are differences in how emotion-arousing events are interpreted or appraised.

Answer 9

Cognitive-Appraisal Theory

Question 10

Specifically, Lazarus’s ____ ____ predicts that: “(if a person appraises his or her relationship to the environment in a particular way [e.g., as irrevocable loss], then a specific emotion [e.g., sadness] which is tied to the appraisal pattern always follows.”

Answer 10

Psychobiological Principle

Question 11

The implication of Lazarus’s psychobiological principle is that, when two people make the ____ ____ ____, they will experience the ____ ____, regardless of the nature of the ____ ____ ____; and, conversely, when two people make ____ ____ of the ____ ____, they will experience ____ ____. Lazarus’s theory distinguishes between three types of cognitive appraisal.

Answer 11

Same Cognitive Appraisal; Same Emotion; Actual Environmental Event(s); Different Appraisals; Same Event; Different Emotions

Question 12

____ ____ refers to a person’s evaluation of a situation as irrelevant, positive-benign, or stressful regarding his or her own well-being. When a person concludes that the situation is ____, he or she also identifies it as involving harm-loss, threat, or challenge.

Answer 12

Primary Appraisal; Stressful

Question 13

According to Lazarus, the outcome of primary appraisal depends on the ____ ____, ____, and ____. For example, an event might be considered dangerous or demeaning by one individual but benign by another as a result of differences in their prior experiences with that event.

Answer 13

Individual’s Beliefs, Values, and Expectations

Question 14

____ ____ refers to the person’s evaluation of the resources he or she has to cope with a situation that has been identified as stressful (e.g., social support, material resources, level of energy).

Answer 14

Secondary Appraisal

Question 15

Finally, ____ occurs when the person monitors the situation and, as necessary, modifies his or her primary and/or secondary appraisals.

Answer 15

Re-Appraisal

Question 16

____ ____: Papez (1937) was among the first researchers to propose the of a ____ ____ that mediates the experience and expression of ____. ____ ____ included the hippocampus, mammillary bodies, anterior nuclei of the thalamus, and cingulate gyrus.

Answer 16

Brain Mechanisms; Neural Circuit; Emotion; Papez’s Circuit

Question 17

Researchers refined and extended Papez’s proposal and identified several other ____ of the ____ that play an important role in emotion, including certain areas of the ____ ____, the ____, and the ____.

Answer 17

Areas of the Brain; Cerebral Cortex, the Amygdala, and the Hypothalamus

Question 18

The left and right hemispheres of the ____ ____ play somewhat different roles in the regulation of emotion: Areas in the ____ (____) ____ govern happiness and other positive emotions; and left hemisphere damage (especially damage to the left frontal lobe) produces ____ ____ such as severe depression, anxiety, aggression, and paranoia.

Answer 18

Cerebral Cortex; Left (Dominant) Hemisphere; Catastrophic Reactions

Question 19

Areas in the ____ (____ -____) ____ mediate sadness, fear, and other negative emotions, and damage to this hemisphere (especially when it involves the right parietal or temporal lobe) results in indifference, apathy, emotional lability, and/or undue cheerfulness and joking.

Answer 19

Right (Non-Dominant) Hemisphere

Question 20

In most people, the right hemisphere is the dominant hemisphere for the ____ and ____ of ____. When expressing emotion with their facial muscles, people generally show more intense emotions on the ____ ____ of the face (which is controlled by the ____ ____).

Answer 20

Recognition and Expression of Emotion; Left Side; Right Hemisphere

Question 21

The ____ plays a key role in attaching emotion to memory, and it evaluates incoming sensory information, determines its emotional importance, and mediates the emotional response to that information.

Answer 21

Amygdala

Question 22

The amygdala is responsible for the immediate feeling of ____ we experience when faced with a dangerous or threatening situation. Electrical stimulation of the amygdala can produce a ____ and/or ____ ____, while lesions can result in a ____ of ____ to situations that would ordinarily elicit ____ ____.

Answer 22

Fear; Fear; Rage Response; Lack of Response; Strong Emotions

Question 23

Through its influence on the ANS and pituitary gland, the ____ is involved in the translation of emotions into physical responses (e.g., physical Signs of fear and excitement). Hypothalamic involvement in emotion has been confirmed by studies showing that damage to certain areas of this structure produces a ____ ____, while damage to other areas causes ____ ____.

Answer 23

Hypothalamus; Rage Response; Uncontrollable Laughter

Question 24

Selye (1956) investigated physiological reactions to ____ and concluded that people respond to all types of stressful situations in the ____ ____. This response, which Selye named the ____ ____ ____ (___), is mediated primarily by the ____ and ____ ____ and involves three stages.

Answer 24

Stress; Same Manner; General Adaption Syndrome (GAS); Adrenal and Pituitary Glands

Question 25

____ ____: In response to stress, the hypothalamus activates the adrenal medulla to increase its release of epinephrine (adrenaline). As a result, the body’s glucose level rises and heart and respiration rates accelerate, thereby increasing the body’s energy level.

Answer 25

Alarm Reaction

Question 26

____: If the stress persists, breathing and heart rates return to normal levels, but the hypothalamus signals the pituitary gland to release adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). ACTH then activates the adrenal cortex to release the stress hormone cortisol, which maintains high blood glucose levels and increases the metabolism of fats and proteins.

Answer 26

Resistance

Question 27

____: With prolonged stress, the pituitary gland and adrenal cortex lose their ability to maintain elevated hormone levels, and physiological processes begin to break down. Fatigue, depression, and illness (e.g., ulcers, essential hypertension) or, in extreme cases, death, may occur.

Answer 27

Exhaustion

Question 28

A number of studies have confirmed that chronic stress lowers the body’s resistance to ____. In one study, participants were given nose drops containing a respiratory virus. Subsequently, contaminated participants reporting high levels of stress in their lives were ____ as ____ to develop cold symptoms as those reporting low levels of stress.

Answer 28

Disease; Twice as Likely

Question 29

Research in the field of psychoneuroimmunology has shown that the impact of prolonged stress on health is attributable, at least in part, to chronically ____ ____ of ____ (cortisol and other stress hormones). These hormones ____ the ____ ____ by decreasing the production of ____ (especially T cells) and ____, which are the body’s major defenses against ____, ____, and other ____.

Answer 29

Elevated Levels of Corticosteroids; Compromise the Immune System; Lymphocytes; Antibodies; Viruses, Bacteria, and other Antigens

Question 30

One of the earliest attempts to link emotion to illness was research on the ____ __ ____ ____. People exhibiting this pattern are highly ____ and ____ -____, have a sense of ____ ____, and tend to be ____, easily ____, and ____.

Answer 30

Type A Behavior Pattern; Competitive and Achievement-Oriented; Time Urgency; Hostile; Irritated; Impatient

Question 31

A number of studies have confirmed that, of the IYpe A characteristics, cynical or antagonistic hostility is most strongly associated with ____ ____, especially ____ ____ ____ in ____.

Answer 31

Health Problems; Coronary Heart Disease in Males

Question 32

The basic assumption underlying the James-Lange theory is _________; to know that Papez’s circuit was _______; and to identify ________ as the three stages of _____.

Answer 32

that emotions represent perceptions of bodily reactions to sensory stimuli; proposed as a neural mechanism for the experience and expression of emotion; alarm, resistance, and exhaustion; the general adaptation syndrome.

Question 33

According to (I) ____ theory, emotions reflect perceptions of bodily reactions (“I’m scared because my knees are shaking”), while (2) ____ theory proposes that emotion-provoking stimuli simultaneously produce a subjective emotional experience and bodily reactions.

Answer 33

(1) James-Lange; (2) Cannon-Bard

Question 34

Lazarus’s cognitive appraisal theory proposes there are differences in how emotion-arousing events are interpreted or appraised and distinguishes between three types of appraisal: Primary appraisal refers to a person’s evaluation of a (3) ____ as irrelevant, positive-benign, or stressful with regard to his or her own well-being; secondary appraisal refers to the person’s evaluation of the resources he or she has to cope with a situation that has been identified as stressful; and (4) ____ occurs when the person monitors the situation and, as necessary, modifies his or her primary and/or secondary appraisals.

Answer 34

(3) situation; (4) re-appraisal

Question 35

(5) ____ circuit was proposed in 1937 as a neural circuit that mediates the experience and expression of emotion. The (6) ____ hemisphere governs positive emotions and damage to this area results in (7) ____. In contrast, the (8) ____ hemisphere mediates negative emotions, and lesions produce (9) ____, emotional lability, and/or undue cheerfulness. Electrical stimulation of the amygdala can produce a (10) ____ and/or rage response, while damage to the hypothalamus can result in rage or uncontrollable (11) ____.

Answer 35

(5) Papez’s (6) left (dominant); (7) catastrophic reactions; (8) right; (9) indifference and apathy; (10) fear; (11) laughter

Question 36

Selye’s general adaptation syndrome describes the stress response as involving three stages: (12) ____, (13) ____, and exhaustion. This response is mediated primarily by the adrenal and (14) ____ glands. Prolonged stress increases the chance for illness by suppressing the immune system as a result of chronically elevated levels of (15) ____ and other stress hormones. Research on the Type A behavior pattern has found that (16) ____ is most strongly related to coronary heart disease.

Answer 36

(12) alarm reaction; (13) resistance; (14) pituitary; (15) cortisol; (16) cynical or antagonistic hostility

Question 37

Hormone secretion during the prenatal period not only controls the development of the ____ ____ but also plays an important role in ____ ____ ____. The pituitary gland and the gonads (ovaries and testes) are the primary sources of the ____ ____.

Answer 37

Sex Organs; Later Sexual Behavior; Sex Hormones

Question 38

The pituitary gland produces the ____ ____; the ovaries secrete ____ and ____, and the testes secrete two types of ____, ____ and ____. (Estrogen and androgen are actually secreted by both sexes, but females produce more ____ and males produce more ____.)

Answer 38

Gonadotropic Hormones; Estrogen and Progesterone; Androgens, Testosterones and Androstenedione; Estrogen; Androgens

Question 39

____ ____ ____ ____ ____: Male and female mammals begin fetal development with ____ ____ (sex structures); and, in humans, differentiation of the gonads into male testes or female ovaries begins approximately ___ to ___ weeks after ____. While the initial differentiation of these structures depends primarily on the ____ ____, subsequent development is largely the result of ____ ____: For a genetic male fetus to develop male genitalia, the fetus must be stimulated by ____ during the critical period of development which, in humans, appears to be during the ____ ____ of pregnancy.

Answer 39

Sexual Differentiation During Fetal Development; Undifferentiated Gonads; Six to Eight; Conception; Sex Chromosomes; Hormonal Exposure; Androgen; Middle Third

Question 40

A lack of ____ leads to a ____ pattern of development in both genetic males and females. If there is a ____ ____ so that a genetic female is exposed to early ____, she will exhibit ____ ____, which is characterized by ____ ____ ____ and “____ “ behaviors (without an increased tendency for homosexuality).

Answer 40

Androgen; Female; Hormonal Mishap; Androgen; Adrenogenital Syndrome; Male Reproductive Organs and “Tomboyish”

Question 41

____ ____: The research has confirmed that the human brain is ____ ____, which means that there are sex-related differences in its ____ ____. For instance, studies using structural brain imaging techniques have found sex-related differences in the ____ of certain regions of the brain including the corpus callosum, hippocampus, and SCN.

Answer 41

Sexual Dimorphism; Sexually Dimorphic; Physical Appearance; Size

Question 42

A number of investigators contend that ____ ____ of brain structures is related to differential exposure to androgens during prenatal and early postnatal development and that these structural differences affect later ____ ____. As an example, Gorski ( 1998) proposes that male-female disparities in performance on visual-spatial and verbal tasks are due to the early effects of ____ on ____ ____ in specific regions of the ____.

Answer 42

Sexual Dimorphism; Brain Functioning; Hormones on Neural Development; Brain

Question 43

At ____, an increase in gonadal hormones influences the emergence of ____ ____ ____ and the development of the reproductive system. Although the mechanisms that trigger the development of the secondary sex characteristics are not well understood, it occurs when the hypothalamus secretes chemicals that ____ the ____ ____ ____, which then releases the ____ ____ that stimulate ____ and ____ ____ by the ____ or ____ and ____ production by the ____. This system is referred to as the ____ -____ -____ ____.

Answer 43

Puberty; Secondary Sex Characteristics; Stimulate the Anterior Pituitary Gland; Gonadotropic Hormones; Testosterone and Sperm Production; Testes or Ovulation and Estrogen; Ovaries; Hypothalamic-Pituitary-Gonadal Axis

Question 44

The onset of puberty is also affected by ____ ____ and ____ ____ such as nutrition, physical exercise, family size, and temperature. For example, in the United States and other industrialized countries, the onset of puberty in males and females is generally ____ than in other countries, apparently because of better ____ and ____ ____.

Answer 44

Genetic Factors and Environmental Circumstances; Earlier; Nutrition and Health Care

Question 45

In lower animals, sex hormones play an extremely important role in ____ ____ ____. However, as one ascends the ____ ____, the sex hormones become increasingly ____ ____ while learning and experience become more ____.

Answer 45

Adult Sexual Behavior; Phylogenetic Scale; Less Important; Important

Question 46

In female rats, sexual responsivity is closely tied to the ____ ____, but in female humans, the effects of hormones are ____ ____. While some females do report peaks of ____ ____ just prior to or after menstruation and in the middle of the cycle, there does not seem to be a ____ ____ between estrogen or progesterone and ____ ____, and menopause and ovariectomy ordinarily have little or no effect on the ____ ____.

Answer 46

Hormonal Cycle; Less Apparent; Sexual Arousal; Predictable Relationship; Sexual Interest; Sex Drive

Question 47

When women experience a loss of ____ ____ following menopause or removal of their sex organs, ____ is more effective than estrogen for restoring ____ ____ and ____. In human males, the effects of ____ ____ vary somewhat from individual to individual.

Answer 47

Sexual Desire; Androgen; Sexual Arousal and Orgasm; Androgen Deficits

Question 48

Overall, there does appear be a link between circulating ____ ____ and ____ ____ and ____, at least until a ____ ____ of ____ is ____; but, beyond the ____ ____, there doesn’t seem to be a ____ ____.

Answer 48

Testosterone Levels and Sexual Interest and Appetite; Minimum Threshold of Testosterone is Reached; Minimum Level; Strong Relationship

Question 49

The association between androgens and erectile functioning, however, is ____ ____ (Bancroft, 1989). Note that the anti-impotence drug ____ (sildenafil) does not affect androgen levels but, instead, promotes erection by acting directly on ____ ____.

Answer 49

Less Consistent; Viagra; Penile Tissue

Question 50

Most women experience ____ (cessation of menstruation) in their late __ or early __. The ____ ____ ____ that accompanies menopause usually produces a variety of ____ and ____ symptoms: “hot flashes,” fatigue, mood swings, and nausea in addition to characteristic physical changes that include a loss of bone mass, reduced elasticity of the skin, and vaginal dryness, which can lead to discomfort during intercourse.

Answer 50

Menopause; 40s; 50s; Decreased Estrogen Level; Emotional and Physical

Question 51

____ ____ ____ (___) is used to reduce the negative effects associated with ____, with some forms of HRT altering ____ ____ ____ and others altering both ____ and ____ ____.

Answer 51

Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT); Menopause; Estrogen Levels Only; Estrogen and Progesterone Levels

Question 52

Although HRT is ____ for eliminating hot flashes, mood swings, and vaginal dryness and reduces the risk for ____ ____, there is no clear evidence that it improves the ____ ____. In addition, the routine use of HRT is considered questionable by some experts due to research linking some forms of HRT to an increased risk for ____ ____, ____, and ____ ____.

Answer 52

Effective; Bone Loss; Sex Drive; Blood Clots, Stroke, and Breast Cancer

Question 53

____ is currently conceptualized as an active process controlled by several sleep-inducing mechanisms. While the function of sleep is still unclear, most explanations focus on its impact on ____ ____ and ____.

Answer 53

Sleep; Energy Conservation and Restoration

Question 54

____ ____: Sleep is divided into ____ ____ on the basis of EEG (electroencephalogram) pattern, which reveals ____ ____ ____ ____ that are characteristic of different ____ and ____ ____: ____ ____: Alert, fully awake state; ____ ____: Awake, rested, relaxed state; ____ ____: Deep relaxation, light sleep; ____ ____: Deep sleep.

Answer 54

Sleep Stages; Five Stages; Four Distinct Wave Patterns; Awake and Sleep States; Beta Waves; Alpha Waves; Theta Waves; Delta Waves

Question 55

Sleep stages 1 through 4 are collectively referred to as ____ (____ -____) ____. Immediately before falling asleep, the person is in a state of drowsiness that is predominated by ____ ____. Then, as the person falls asleep, ____ _ sleep begins. During this transition stage, alpha waves are replaced by ____ ____, which are greater in ____ and slower in ____ than alpha waves.

Answer 55

NREM (non-REM) Sleep; Alpha Waves; Stage 1; Theta Waves; Amplitude; Frequency

Question 56

During ____ _ sleep, ____ ____ predominate but are interrupted by bursts of ____ ____ (rapid, rhythmic brain-wave activity) and _ ____ (a large negative wave followed by a smaller positive one). Large, slow ____ ____ appear during ____ _; and in ____ _ (the “____ ____ “ ____), ____ ____ dominate the EEG record.

Answer 56

Stage 2 Sleep; Theta Waves; Sleep Spindles; K Complexes; Delta Waves; Stage 3; Stage 4; Deep Sleep Stage; Delta Waves

Question 57

Because of the predominance of ____ ____ ____, ____ _ and _ are also referred to as “____ -w____ ave ____.” As sleepers progress through the ____ ____ ____ ____, they become increasingly more difficult to ____.

Answer 57

Slow Delta Waves; Stages 3 and 4; Slow-Wave Sleep; Four NREM Sleep Stages; Awaken

Question 58

The fifth sleep stage is characterized by the presence of ____ ____ ____ and, consequently, is known as ____ ____. Not all dreams occur during this sleep stage, but the most ____ and ____ ____ are associated with “____.” People normally ____ their dreams if awakened during this stage, but, if awakened even a ____ ____ ____ REM sleep has ____, most people are ____ that they were just dreaming.

Answer 58

Rapid Eye Movements; REM Sleep; Vivid and Elaborate Dreams; REMing; Remember; Few Minutes After; Stopped; Unaware

Question 59

During REM sleep, the EEG pattern is similar to the pattern found in stages I and 2, and the sleeper’s physiological responses resemble those of ____ ____: The sleeper’s heart rate and respiration rates are ____ and ____, and he or she may exhibit signs of ____ ____.

Answer 59

Awake Individuals; Fast and Irregular; Sexual Arousal

Question 60

Despite an active EEG pattern and aroused sympathetic nervous system, REM sleepers are in a ____ ____ of ____. They are very difficult to ____ and their muscles are in a state of ____ ____. Because of this combination of physiological activity and deep sleep, REM sleep is also referred to as ____ or ____ ____.

Answer 60

Deep State of Sleep; Arouse; Flaccid Paralysis; Active or Paradoxical Sleep

Question 61

Throughout a sleep period, the sleeper passes through all five sleep stages about every _ to _ minutes. Most stage 3 and stage 4 sleep occur during the ____ ____ of the ____ ____, but REM periods increase in length as the ____ ____.

Answer 61

90 to 100; Early Part; Sleep Period; Length; Night Progresses

Question 62

____ ____ ____ the ____: Sleep patterns vary with ____. During the first few months of life, infants begin a sleep period with ____ ____ which then gradually changes to ____ ____. In addition, the newborn’s NREM sleep is predominated by ____ -____ ____ and the four stages of NREM sleep are not distinguishable until about ____ ____ of ____.

Answer 62

Sleep Patterns Over the Lifespan; Age; REM Sleep; NREM Sleep; Slow-Wave Activity; Six Month of Age

Question 63

The sequence of REM and NREM sleep begins to reverse by about ____ ____ of ____, and total sleep time, stage 4 sleep, and REM sleep all ____ from childhood to adulthood. REM sleep, for example, represents about _% of a newborn’s total sleep period but drops to _% at six months and takes up only about _% of an adult’s sleep period.

Answer 63

Three Month of Age; Decrease; 50%; 30%; 20%

Question 64

Contrary to what is commonly believed, older adults do not require ____ ____ than younger adults. However, older adults have more trouble falling asleep, awaken ____ ____ during the night, and experience an ____ ____ ____ (___), which refers to a shift in the timing of sleep that involves going to ____ and ____ ____ ____.

Answer 64

Less Sleep; Falling Asleep; More Often; Advanced Sleep Phase (ASP); Bed and Waking Up Earlier

Question 65

Short-term ____ ____ (less than 48 hours) appears to have only mild detrimental effects, while the impact of longer periods of deprivation varies from person to person and ranges from mood changes and forgetfulness to disorientation and hallucinations.

Answer 65

Sleep Deprivation

Question 66

There is evidence that ____ ____ ____ produces decrements in performance on ____ ____, especially tasks that depend on ____ of ____ or ____ ____ or that require ____ ____ or complex ____ ____. For example, the cognitive processes necessary for safe driving are especially sensitive to ____ ____, and there is evidence that sleepiness-related auto accidents have severe injury and fatality rates similar to those associated with ____ -____ ____.

Answer 66

Chronic Sleep Restriction; Cognitive Tasks; Speed of Responding or Working Memory; Sustained Attention; Information Processing; Inadequate Sleep; Alcohol-Related Accidents

Question 67

REM deprivation is ordinarily not associated with ____ ____, although people deprived of REM sleep often show some impairment in the ability to retain ____ ____ ____. In addition, the sleeper subsequently compensates for his or her loss by an “____ ____ “ — i.e., by subsequently spending more time in ____ ____.

Answer 67

Significant Abnormalities; Newly Learned Information; REM Rebound; REM Sleep

Question 68

Memorizing the letters ___ will help you recall the ____ ____ ____ ____ and the ____ ____ are ____ ____ since this order is consistent with the transition from an ____ ____ ____ (____) to an ____ ____ ____ (____) to ____ ____ (____) to ____ ____ (____).

Answer 68

BATD; Four Brain Wave Patterns; States they are Associated With; Alert Awake State (beta) to an Awake Rested State (alpha) to Light Sleep (theta) to Deep Sleep (delta)

Question 69

During fetal development, differentiation of the gonads initially depends on the (1) ____ but later is largely the result of hormonal exposure. For a genetic male to develop male genitalia, the fetus must be stimulated during the critical period by (2) ____. Research using braining ima4ng techniques has confirmed that the brain is sexually (3) ____ — i.e., that there are sex-related differences in several brain structures including the corpus callosum, hippocampus, and SCN.

Answer 69

(1) sex chromosomes; (2) androgen; (3) dimorphic

Question 70

At puberty, an increase in sex hormones influences the emergence of the (4) ____ sex characteristics. This process is mediated by the (5) ____ axis. As one ascends the (6) ____, the sex hormones become increasingly less important as determinants of adult sexual behavior. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) affects estrogen levels or a combination of estrogen and (7) ____ levels and is effective for alleviating (8) ____, mood swings, and vaginal dryness.

Answer 70

(4) secondary; (5) hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal; (6) phylogenetic scale; (7) progesterone; (8) hot flashes

Question 71

Sleep is divided into five stages. During stage l, (9) ____ waves are replaced by theta waves, and in stage 2, theta waves predominate but are interrupted by bursts of (10) ____ and K complexes. Stages 3 and 4 are characterized by large, slow (11) ____ waves. The fifth stage is marked by the presence of (12) ____. Because the sleeper is both in a deep state of sleep and physiologically active, this stage is also referred to as active or (13) ____ sleep.

Answer 71

(9) alpha; (10) sleep spindles; (11) delta; (12) rapid eye movements; (13) paradoxical

Question 72

Sleepers typically pass through all five stages every (14) ____ minutes, but the pattern of sleep varies with age: In newborns, REM sleep precedes NREM sleep and takes up (15) ____ percent of the total sleep time, while, in adults, it accounts for only about (16) ____ percent of the sleep period. Sleep deprivation is not consistently linked with any specific abnormalities, but REM sleep deprivation is usually followed by an REM (17) ____.

Answer 72

(14) 90 to 100; (15) 50; (16) 20; (17) rebound