EPPP Flashcards
A child diagnosed with a Specific Learning Disorder is most likely to also receive a diagnosis of:
ADHD
A 28-year-old male client presents with hallucinations and bizarre delusions. His parents report that his symptoms were not preceded by an unusual or stressful event and that he has had these symptoms for about six weeks. Your tentative diagnosis is:
Schizophreniform Disorder. The symptoms of Schizophreniform Disorder are similar to those of Schizophrenia, except that the duration of symptoms is between one and six months.
Common associated features of Schizophrenia include:
inappropriate affect, dysphoric mood, disturbed sleep pattern, and lack of interest in eating.
Common associated features of Schizophrenia include inappropriate affect (e.g., laughing for no apparent reason), dysphoric mood, disturbed sleep pattern, and lack of interest in eating. Some individuals have poor insight into their symptoms (anosognosia), and Substance Use Disorders are also common comorbid diagnoses.
For a diagnosis of Schizophrenia, the DSM-5 requires the presence of two or more active phase symptoms for at least one month, with at least one symptom being:
hallucinations, delusions, or disorganized speech.
Lewinsohn’s (1974) behavioral model attributes depression to a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement for adaptive behaviors, which causes:
extinction of those behaviors.
According to Lewinsohn’s behavioral theory, depression is the result of a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement for adaptive behaviors, which causes extinction of those behaviors as well as pessimism, low self-esteem, social isolation, and dysphoria that, in turn, are reinforced by the sympathy and concern of others.
Which of the following is true about the prevalence of Major Depressive Disorder in adolescents and adults?
The rate for females is one and one-half to three times the rate for males.
Prior to puberty, the rates of Major Depressive Disorder are about equal for males and females; but, beginning in adolescence, the rate for females becomes one and one-half to three times the rate for males.
According to the DSM-5, the 12-month prevalence rate for Bipolar I Disorder in the United States is _____ percent.
0.6
A 63-year-old college professor exhibits impairments in memory and other cognitive functions and a depressed mood. Which of the following would suggest that his symptoms are more likely due to “pseudodementia” than to a Major or Mild Neurocognitive Disorder?
The man exaggerates his cognitive deficits and seems overly concerned about them.
The term pseudodementia is sometimes used to describe Major Depressive Disorder when it involves apathy and prominent cognitive symptoms (e.g., memory loss, impaired concentration, distractibility). A distinguishing feature is that people with pseudodementia are likely to exaggerate their cognitive problems, while those with a Major or Mild Neurocognitive Disorder tend to deny or minimize them.
The treatment-of-choice for Agoraphobia is ordinarily
exposure with response prevention
For a diagnosis of Generalized Anxiety Disorder in children, anxiety and worry must involve _____ or more characteristic symptoms.
one
The research suggests that a person with Anorexia Nervosa restricts his or her food intake to alleviate restlessness, anxiety, and obsessive thinking, which may be caused by
higher-than-normal levels of serotonin
A hypnopompic hallucination is:
vivid dream that occurs just before waking up
Two weeks ago, Amy A., age 17, suddenly began experiencing weakness in both legs and a loss of balance, which causes her to fall when she tries to walk. Amy has not been able to go to school because of her symptoms, and she says she thinks they started after she had argued with her best friend. A thorough physical examination has not found a medical explanation for her symptoms, and the symptoms are not compatible with any known neurological or medical condition. The most likely diagnosis for Amy is:
Conversion Disorder
The incompatibility of Amy’s symptoms with any known medical or neurological conditions is more characteristic of Conversion Disorder than Somatic Symptom Disorder. Additionally, no information is provided in the question indicating that Amy is having excessive thoughts and feelings about the symptoms, which is required for the diagnosis of Somatic Symptom Disorder
A thiamine deficiency is associated with which of the following?
Alcohol-Induced Major Neurocognitive Disorder
Orgasmic reconditioning involves:
redirecting sexual arousal to more acceptable sources of stimulation.
Moffitt (1993) distinguishes between two types of:
Conduct Disorder.
Moffitt (1993) distinguishes between two types of Conduct Disorder that differ in terms of age of onset, symptom severity, and etiology: life-course-persistent type and adolescence-limited type.
The progression of Alzheimer’s disease can be described in terms of three stages. A person in the second (middle) stage of the disease is most likely to exhibit:
anterograde and retrograde amnesia, flat or labile mood, restlessness, and fluent aphasia.
Magical thinking, depression, ideas of reference, paranoia, discomfort in social situations, and inappropriate affect are most characteristic of which of the following disorders?
Schizotypal Personality Disorder
Schizotypal Personality Disorder involves pervasive social and interpersonal deficits and eccentricities in cognition, perception, and behavior.
Researchers have most consistently linked early memory impairment associated with Neurocognitive Disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease to a loss of neurons that secrete __________, especially in the hippocampus and certain areas of the cortex.
acetylcholine
A Freudian psychoanalyst is most likely to describe ___________ as explicitly connecting current behavior to unconscious processes.
interpretation
As described by Alfred Adler, a healthy style of life is characterized by:
confidence, optimism, and concern about the welfare of others.
Style of life is a key concept in Adler’s individual psychology. Adler distinguished between a healthy and an unhealthy style of life and proposed that social interest is the factor that distinguishes between the two. A person with a healthy style of life is concerned about the welfare of others.
In Freudian psychoanalysis, turning an undesirable impulse into its opposite is referred to as:
reaction formation.
For Carl Jung, transference involves:
projection of the personal and collective unconscious.
Margaret Mahler traced adult psychopathology to problems related to which of the following?
separation-individuation
As described by Jung, __________ are universal, generationally transmitted images that structure how people perceive their experiences.
archetypes
The goals of Gestalt therapy include helping the client recognize and satisfy needs and accept polarities that exist within his/her personality. A psychologist using a Gestalt approach would consider the key to achieving these goals to be which of the following?
Awareness
According to Gestalt theory, a well-functioning person is able to see the entirety of his or her immediate experience (i.e., the “gestalt”). According to Gestalt principles, awareness of thoughts, emotions, behaviors, etc. in the “here-and-now” is sufficient to cause desired changes.
A Gestalt therapist would interpret a client’s transference as:
the client’s fantasy.
George Kelly’s (1955) personal construct theory focuses on the role of “personal constructs,” which Kelly describes as:
bipolar dimensions of meaning.
Kelly’s theory focuses on how people construe (perceive, interpret, and predict) events, with construing involving the use of personal constructs. As defined by Kelly, personal constructs are mental templates that consist of a characteristic or other phenomenon and its perceived opposite (e.g., outgoing-shy, interesting-boring).
According to Carl Rogers, which of the following leads to disorganization of the self?
Incongruence between self and experience
The self is a central concept in Rogers’s person-centered therapy. Rogers proposed that the self becomes disorganized when the individual experiences incongruence between self and experience, which occurs when he/she is exposed to conditions of worth.
Glasser’s (1998) reality therapy identifies which of the following as the primary source of motivation?
Basic innate needs
Reality therapy is based on the premise that everything a person does is for the purpose of satisfying his/her needs. Glasser distinguished between five basic innate needs—survival, love and belonging, power, freedom, and fun. A person’s ability to satisfy these needs in a responsible way determines whether he/she develops a success identity or a failure identity.
Carl Rogers proposed that a person may attempt to relieve anxiety by relying on which of the following?
Distortion or denial
Rogers proposed that incongruence between self and experience produces unpleasant physical sensations that are subjectively experienced as anxiety. According to Rogers, a person may attempt to alleviate anxiety by distorting or denying experiences that produced the incongruence that caused the anxiety.
Unresolved grief, interpersonal role disputes, role transitions, and interpersonal deficits are the primary targets of:
interpersonal therapy.
The techniques of consciousness raising, social liberation, dramatic relief, self-reevaluation, and reinforcement management are most associated with which of the following?
Transtheoretical model
During an argument, a husband and wife keep trying to outdo one another in terms of insults. This is one of the possible outcomes of:
symmetrical communication.
As defined by Murray Bowen, an “emotional triangle” serves which of the following functions?
It reduces anxiety and tension between family members.
Bowen considered an emotional triangle to be a basic building block in a family’s emotional system. According to Bowen, when a two-person system such as a husband-wife or parent-child experiences instability or stress, it may form an emotional triangle by recruiting a third person into the system in order to increase stability and reduce tension and anxiety.
Bowen considered an emotional triangle to be a basic building block in a family’s emotional system. According to Bowen, when a two-person system such as a husband-wife or parent-child experiences instability or stress, it may form an emotional triangle by recruiting a third person into the system in order to increase stability and reduce tension and anxiety.
Blending with the family by adopting its language, behaviors, and style
Paradoxical interventions are often utilized by strategic family therapists for the purpose of:
relieving symptoms
Strategic family therapists use a variety of techniques including paradoxical interventions which are intended to provide symptom relief by ultimately helping the client see the symptom in an alternative way.
A family therapist has been seeing a mother, father, and their two children in therapy for three months. Two days after a therapy session, the father calls the therapist to talk about a conflict he is having with his wife and tries to get the therapist to side with him. The next day, the wife calls the therapist and tries to get him to see things from her point of view. From the perspective of structural family therapy, this situation can be considered an example of:
triangulation.
_____________ is based on the premise that illness is due to a blockage of vital life energy.
Acupuncture
In feminist therapy, if a client says she feels that the therapist is in a position of power over her, the therapist is most likely to address this concern by:
acknowledging the inherent power differential.
A concern for feminist therapists is the power differential that is inherent in the therapist-client relationship. A feminist therapist’s first reaction to concerns about the power differential is to acknowledge it and then to work toward minimizing it.
In comparison to repressed memories recalled without hypnosis, under hypnosis, you would be most likely to recall:
more inaccurate memories than accurate memories.
Research suggests that using hypnosis to help individuals recall repressed memories can have negative consequences. The studies have found that hypnosis does not seem to enhance the accuracy of memories but may produce more pseudomemories than accurate memories.
Self-in-relation theory is an approach to feminist object relations theory and differs from traditional object relations theory in:
its explanation of gender differences in terms of same-gender versus opposite-gender influences in the mother-child relationship.
Self-in-relation theorists (e.g., Okun, 1990) extend traditional object relations theory by emphasizing the differences in socialization that occur because of the same-gender versus opposite-gender relationship between mother and child. According to this view, the mother’s socialization practices differ, depending on the gender of her child. Specifically, girls are taught to stay connected (attached) to the mother, while boys are taught to separate. Feminist therapists have discussed how this difference contributes to gender differences in a variety of domains (e.g., achievement, moral development).
As described by Gerald Caplan, “theme interference” is:
a type of transference.
Caplan described theme interference as a type of transference that occurs when a past unresolved conflict related to a particular type of client or situation interferes with a consultant’s ability to remain objective in a current situation.
The Health Belief Model (Becker, 1974) emphasizes the individual’s:
readiness to take action.
Becker’s (1974) Health Belief Model identifies several factors that influence a person’s health-related behaviors. The individual’s readiness to take a particular action is one of the factors identified by the Health Belief Model and is affected by the person’s perceived susceptibility to an illness and perceived severity of that illness.
A prevention program involves identifying children who exhibit early signs of emotional disturbance so they can be provided with special assistance from teacher’s aides and other paraprofessionals. This is an example of:
secondary prevention.
Secondary preventions entail the early identification of at-risk individuals who have not yet developed a full-blown disturbance and providing them with an appropriate intervention.
Which of the following is an example of consultee-centered case consultation?
Helping a teacher recognize the early signs of drug abuse in high school students
In consultee-centered case consultation, the focus is on the skills, knowledge, and objectivity of the consultee, and the goal is to improve the consultee’s functioning so that he/she can work more effectively with members of a target group or population in the future.
A program designed to improve the interpersonal skills of residents of a retirement community would be classified as a “primary prevention” when it is offered:
to all residents who want to participate.
Primary preventions are designed to intervene before a problem occurs and are offered to all members of a group or population. When a program is offered to all members of a group or population rather than to specific individuals (e.g., to all residents of a retirement community), it is a primary prevention.
Sue and Sue (2003) describe “worldview” as consisting of two dimensions—locus of control and locus of responsibility. Within this framework, the culture of the White middle class in the United States is best described as reflecting an:
internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility.
Sue and Sue’s model distinguishes between four types of worldview that reflect a different combination of levels of locus of control and locus of responsibility. The dominant culture in the United States (i.e., the culture of the White middle class) exemplifies the IC-IR philosophy through its emphasis on individualism, independence, and self-reliance.
______________________ may occur when members of a cultural minority have negative interactions with members of the dominant culture.
Acculturative stress
According to Berry’s (2006) transactional theory, when members of cultural minority groups interact with members of the dominant culture (e.g., White American culture), psychological maladjustment may emerge in part as a function of how much acculturative stress the individual experiences when interacting with the dominant culture.
___________ refers to negative attitudes that are based on sexual orientation, whether the target identifies as homosexual, bisexual, or heterosexual.
Sexual prejudice
As defined by Herek (2004), sexual prejudice refers to negative attitudes that are based on perceived sexual orientation, regardless of the target’s actual identified sexual orientation.
A Chinese-American client tells you that he doesn’t identify with either Chinese or White culture. In terms of Berry et al.’s (1987) model of acculturation, this client is best described as:
marginalized.
According to Berry, a person is marginalized when he/she does not accept the characteristics of either culture (his/her own culture or the dominant culture).
According to Cross’s Black Racial Identity Development Model, an African American individual in the emersion substage of the immersion-emersion stage will exhibit which of the following?
Rejection of all aspects of White culture
The most recent version of Cross’s model (Cross and Vandiver, 2001) distinguishes between four stages of racial identity development: pre-encounter, encounter, immersion-emersion, and internalization. Race and racial identity have high salience during the immersion-emersion stage. A person in the immersion substage idealizes Blacks and Black culture and feels a great deal of rage toward Whites. A person in the emersion substage has less intense feelings but continues to reject all aspects of the White culture and begins to internalize a Black identity.
Research has supported Helms’s (1995) prediction that White therapists whose attitudes and beliefs are consistent with the ________ status are most effective when working with clients from racial/ethnic minority groups.
autonomy
___________ refers to methods used to encourage healthy behaviors.
Health promotion
Health promotion refers to methods that promote and encourage healthy behaviors, including advertisement and online education.
Dr. Everett, a licensed psychologist, has recently started a practice in a small town. He learns from a mutual friend that Dr. Cohen (also a psychologist) has been revealing confidential information about some of her clients to members of the community. Dr. Everett should __________.
consult with a colleague about the situation.
Ethical guidelines require psychologists to take some action in situations in which a fellow professional is believed to have acted unethically. However, a psychologist can choose from several alternatives when doing so. Of the answers given, this is the best one. If Dr. Everett felt comfortable with discussing the issue with Dr. Cohen, that would probably be the best course of action. Since this is not given as an alternative, consulting with a colleague is the best answer.
The term “privilege” is:
a legal term referring to the protection of confidential information in legal proceedings.
Sandy S. is considering filing a claim of sexual harassment against her boss, Bertrand B., because he frequently comments on her physical appearance by telling her how “great she looks” and often tells her that, “if I weren’t your boss, I’d be chasing after you.” Sandy decides to tell Bertrand that she finds his comments offensive and, when she does so, he apologizes and says he’ll stop if that’s what she wants. This situation:
does not represent a legal claim for sexual harassment as long as Bertrand actually stops making offensive comments.
You have made an arrangement with another psychologist to exchange a nominal payment of $25.00 for referrals to each other. In terms of the requirements of the APA’s Ethics Code, this is:
unethical if the payment of $25.00 is based on the referral only.
A graduate student designed and conducted a research project for her dissertation and subsequently wrote a journal article describing the study and its results. The original idea for the study was derived from the work of the student’s faculty advisor who also provided the facilities for the student’s research and provided the student with some guidance while she conducted her study. The faculty advisor wants to be listed as first author on the article. In this situation:
the student should be listed as the first author and the advisor as the second author.
Which of the following best describes the requirements of the APA’s Ethics Code with regard to the use of animals in research?
Animals may be used as research subjects when they will be subjected to pain or stress but only when an alternative procedure is not available and the goal of the study is justified by its prospective value.
You have just completed a research study but have not yet published its results. A colleague of yours who is familiar with your study requests the data you have collected. Which of the following best describes the requirements of the APA’s Ethics Code with regard to this situation?
You are not required to comply with the colleague’s request since the results of the study have not yet been published.
Dr. Paula Pang is hired to perform a court-ordered evaluation of a defendant in a criminal case. After describing the purpose of the evaluation to the defendant, he says that he is not willing to cooperate. According to the APA’s Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology, Dr. Pang should:
postpone the evaluation and inform the defendant that he should discuss this matter with his attorney.
When hired as an expert witness by the attorney for a plaintiff in a criminal case, a psychologist:
should ordinarily avoid providing his/her services on the basis of contingent fees.
You recently evaluated the defendant in a murder trial at the request of her attorney. The purpose of the evaluation was to support the defendant’s claim that she was insane at the time she committed the crime. The case received a great deal of public attention and you would now like to write a book about it and include information about the results of your evaluation. According to the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology:
you may do so as long as the information you include in your book is in the public record or, if not, as long as you have obtained the consent of the defendant.
To compare the impact of two or more interventions on patients’ duration and quality of life, you would conduct which of the following types of cost analysis?
Cost-utility
A cost-utility analysis is conducted to compare the effects of two or more treatments on duration and quality of life.
Research by Lamb and Catanzaro (1998) on sexual misconduct by psychotherapists found that:
therapists who had sex with their clients were more likely than those who did not to have been involved in nonsexual dual relationships with clients.
In the context of performance assessment, “critical incidents” are best described as:
behaviors that clearly contribute to successful and unsuccessful job performance.
Critical incidents are descriptions of specific job behaviors that define successful and unsuccessful job performance. When used in performance appraisal instruments, critical incidents are the “anchors” in a graphic rating scale or the statements included in a checklist.
Frame-of-reference training is used to:
improve the ability of raters to assign accurate performance ratings to employees.
Frame-of-reference (FOR) training is a type of rater training that is used to increase rater accuracy by helping raters recognize what constitutes effective and ineffective job performance.
When using the Critical Incident Technique, critical incidents are ordinarily identified by:
the supervisor who observes an employee while he/she works.
The Critical Incident Technique (CIT) is a method of performance appraisal. As originally described, the CIT involves having the supervisor observe an employee and record specific behaviors associated with effective and ineffective job performance. These behaviors (critical incidents) are then compiled into a checklist that is used to evaluate the performance of employees performing the same job.
“Criterion contamination” is a concern when:
the measure of performance is subjectively scored.
Subjectively scored criterion measures are susceptible to biases, including criterion contamination. Criterion contamination occurs when a rater’s knowledge of a person’s performance biases how he/she rates the person on the criterion. When criterion contamination occurs, the criterion may not be providing accurate information.
Which of the following techniques would be most useful for combining test scores when superior performance on one test can compensate for poor performance on another test?
Multiple regression
Multiple regression is a compensatory technique for combining test scores. When using this technique, a low score on one test can be offset (compensated for) by a high score on another test.
Of the “Big Five” personality traits, which has been found to be most predictive of job performance across different jobs and job settings?
Conscientiousness
Meta-analyses conducted in the past 10 to 20 years suggest that, across jobs and organizations, the best predictor of job performance is:
general mental ability tests.
The personnel director where you work is reluctant to use the selection test you’ve developed because its validity coefficient is only .35. Your best argument for using this test is that:
the selection ratio is 1:50
A predictor’s incremental validity (decision-making accuracy) is affected by its validity coefficient, the selection ratio, and the base rate. A predictor with a low validity coefficient can improve decision-making accuracy when the selection ratio is low (e.g., 1:50) and the base rate is moderate (around .50).
One disadvantage of empirically-derived Biographical Information Blanks (BIBs) is that they may contain items that:
lack face validity.
Biographical Information Blanks (BIBs) are a type of empirically-derived form that consists of multiple-choice items that address biographical information that has been linked to job performance. A disadvantage of BIBs and other empirically-derived forms is that their items often lack face validity—i.e., even though they address information that has been linked to job performance, they may not “look like” they are clearly linked to performance. As a result, applicants may feel that the form is asking for irrelevant information and that their privacy is being invaded.
In an organization, a formative evaluation is conducted:
during the development of a training program to identify ways to improve it.
In the evaluation literature, a distinction is made between formative and summative evaluation. As its name suggests, a formative evaluation is conducted while a training program or other intervention is being “formed” (developed) and is used to determine if it needs to be modified in order to meet its goals.
A psychologist relying on Bandura’s social cognitive theory would most likely recommend which of the following training approaches?
Behavioral modeling
Bandura proposed that people learn by watching others and, consequently, would agree that behavioral modeling is a useful training strategy.
As an organizational psychologist, you would conduct a needs analysis in order to:
determine if employee training would resolve a company’s production problems.
An initial goal of needs analysis is to determine whether or not production problems are actually due to deficiencies on the part of workers and, therefore, whether or not training would be an effective solution to those problems.
Vestibule training is useful:
when errors that might occur during on-the-job training would be too costly or dangerous.
Vestibule training is an off-the-job technique that uses a physical simulation of the job environment and equipment and is useful when on-the-job training would be too costly or dangerous.
An organizational psychologist will most likely apply the concept of “identical elements” originally proposed by Thorndike and Woodworth (1901) to which of the following?
Employee training
According to Thorndike and Woodworth (1901), transfer of training is maximized when there are identical elements (similarities) in the learning and performance settings. Research on Thorndike and Woodworth’s theory has supported the importance of providing identical elements for transfer of training.
According to Holland’s RIASEC model, which personality type is best suited as an accountant?
Conventional
According to Dawis and Lofquist’s (1984) Theory of Work Adjustment, job satisfaction depends most on which of the following?
The degree to which the characteristics of the job correspond to the worker’s needs and values
Dawis and Lofquist’s (1984) Theory of Work Adjustment is a person-environment fit theory of career development that provides a model for conceptualizing the interactions between a worker and his/her job. According to this theory, a worker’s satisfaction is one of the factors that contribute to job tenure and other job outcomes, and it depends on the degree to which the job fulfills or matches the worker’s needs and values.
According to Donald Super, job satisfaction, stability, and success depend on the extent to which a job matches the individual’s:
self-concept.
Super identified the self-concept as being the result of inherited aptitudes, physical makeup, and social learning experiences. He proposed that job satisfaction, stability, and success depend on the extent to which the job matches the individual’s self-concept.
Tiedeman and O’Hara’s approach to career development:
views career development as an aspect of ego identity development.
Tiedeman and O’Hara’s theory is one of the career development theories that you’re likely to encounter on a licensing exam. Tiedeman and O’Hara link career identity development to Erikson’s stages of ego identity (personality) development.
According to Holland, the optimal situation is for the job environment to match the person’s:
personality.
From the perspective of Herzberg’s two-factor theory, the relationship between pay and motivation is best described by which of the following?
Pay does not act as a motivator.
Herzberg’s two-factor theory proposes that all people have two basic needs - hygiene needs and motivator needs. Herzberg’s two-factor theory identifies pay as a hygiene factor. Like other hygiene factors, pay leads to dissatisfaction when it is perceived to be inadequate but produces a state of neutrality when it is adequate. To increase motivation (and satisfaction), motivator factors must be provided by the job.
For an advocate of expectancy theory, “instrumentality” refers to:
the relationship between performance and outcomes.
Expectancy theory links worker motivation to three factors—expectancy, instrumentality, and valence. Instrumentality refers to the belief that successful performance will lead to positive outcomes (rewards).
Locke’s goal-setting theory makes which of the following predictions about production goals?
Moderately difficult goals produce higher levels of performance than very difficult goals.
A manager with a “Theory X” management philosophy would be most likely to say that her role as a manager:
is to direct and control employees in order to achieve organizational goals.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the distinction between McGregor’s Theory X and Theory Y managers. As defined by McGregor, a Theory X manager believes that employees don’t like to work and must be closely supervised and provided with incentives for good performance.
Many of the employees working on the assembly line at a large auto manufacturing plant have very low levels of job motivation and satisfaction. Their new supervisor, who is familiar with Herzberg’s work, is most likely to recommend that:
all employees be given more individual responsibility and autonomy.
A colleague tells you that she is designing a study to determine the correlates of job satisfaction. Based on your knowledge of the existing research on this issue, you tell her that job satisfaction has the strongest correlation with:
turnover.
Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership model proposes that the most effective leadership style:
depends on the maturity of the worker.
Hersey and Blanchard’s (1974) situational leadership model identifies four different leadership styles and proposes that the optimal one depends on certain characteristics of the worker. According to this model, the most effective leader is one who matches his/her leadership style to the worker’s job maturity, which is determined by the worker’s motivation and ability.
A transformational leader is most likely to use which of the following to motivate employees?
Framing
Transformational leaders are able to recognize the need for change, create a vision that guides that change, and accomplish the change directly. Transformational leaders use framing to motivate employees, which involves describing an organization’s goals and activities in ways that make them meaningful to employees.
If you are using a decision tree to determine which leadership style to adopt (e.g., autocratic, consultative, or group), you are relying on the work of:
Vroom, Yetton, and Jago.
The Vroom-Yetton-Jago (1988; 2017) model distinguishes between autocratic, consultative, and group decision-making leader styles and proposes that the best one depends on certain characteristics of the situation including time constraints, the importance of subordinate commitment to the decision, and the structure of the task. The model includes a decision-tree to help leaders choose the optimal style for their situation.
To gain “idiosyncrasy credits,” you would:
consistently conform to group norms.
Idiosyncrasy credits allow a group members to occasionally deviate from group norms. Methods for accumulating idiosyncrasy credits include having a history of conforming to group norms, being the group leader, and making outstanding contributions to the group.
According to Herbert Simon, decision-making in organizations is often affected by:
bounded rationality.
Simon (1979) distinguished between two types of individual decision-making–rational-economic and bounded rationality. According to Simon, decision-makers are sometimes less than totally rational due to limitations related to abilities, time, and resources. He referred to this type of decision-making as bounded rationality.
Social loafing is most likely to occur when:
the group is large and the task is additive.
Social loafing occurs when a person exerts less effort as a group member than he/she would have exerted if working alone. Social loafing is most likely to occur when the group is large and the task is additive, probably because this situation allows the person to conceal his/her actual contribution to the group.
Heterogeneity of team members is:
associated with greater creativity and better decision-making.
__________ assessments are used when organizational development is desired, and _________ assessments collect individual data.
Self; personnel
Self-assessments are utilized to direct organizational development, and are most effective when stakeholders are involved. Personnel assessments collect individual data, which may include records, biographical data, test results, and work samples.
A process consultant is most likely to focus on which of the following?
Communication, decision-making, and conflict resolution
Process consultation is a type of organizational development intervention that focuses on helping members of a work group understand the processes (behaviors) that are undermining their interactions with one another. Process consultants observe group members in action and help them identify and rectify problems related to communication patterns, decision-making, and conflict resolution.
A process consultant initially:
observes workers as they interact.
Having employees meet in groups to discuss alternative ways of accomplishing change is an example of which of the following strategies?
Normative-reeducative
As its name implies, the normative-reeducative strategy is based on the assumption that peer pressure and sociocultural norms are potent forces of change.
According to Schein (1992), organizational culture can be described in terms of three levels. The deepest level consists of basic underlying assumptions that can serve as:
cognitive defense mechanisms.
In their meta-analysis of the research, Baltes et al. (1999) found that the compressed workweek is most associated with which of the following?
Improved employee attitudes
Which of the following individuals is at highest risk for a stress-related illness?
An assembly-line worker whose work is machine-paced
Research has found that some jobs are consistently associated with higher levels of stress than other jobs. The research has found that a lack of control over the pace of one’s work is one of the greatest contributors to job-related stress.
A psychologist conducting research on the effects of the graveyard shift is most likely to find that adverse consequences are lowest among workers who:
voluntarily choose to work the graveyard shift.
Companies that operate 24 hours a day ordinarily divide the day into three shifts—regular, swing, and graveyard. The research has found that the negative outcomes associated with the graveyard shift are usually alleviated when the worker has voluntarily chosen that shift. The freedom to choose is important: employees who choose to work the night shift report fewer physical and psychological problems than those who are assigned to that shift.
Research by Duxbury and Higgins (1991) on work-family conflict found that:
men experience more conflicts due to work expectations, while women experience more conflicts due to family expectations.
Dr. Daniel Daggett presents Stimulus A along with a loud noise so that, eventually, a participant in his study reacts with a startle reaction whenever Stimulus A is presented alone. Dr. Daggett then pairs Stimulus B with Stimulus A so that Stimulus B also elicits a startle reaction when presented alone. This procedure is an example of:
higher-order conditioning
Rescorla and Wagner (1972) contend that “blocking” occurs because:
the second neutral stimulus does not provide new information about the US
In one series of studies, Pavlov conditioned dogs to salivate in response to a black square but not in response to a light grey square. Subsequently, when the dogs were shown a medium grey square, they exhibited which of the following?
Experimental neurosis
This question describes trials that require dogs to make difficult stimulus discriminations. Pavlov found that difficult stimulus discriminations produced experimental neurosis: uncharacteristic behaviors that included extreme restlessness, agitation, and unprovoked aggression.
To reduce a client’s cigarette smoking, the client is exposed to several treatment sessions in which stale cigarette smoke is blown into his face soon after he begins to smoke a cigarette and this continues until he stops smoking. The smoke begins to make the client feel nauseous whenever it is blown into their face. Eventually, the client feels nauseous whenever he even thinks about smoking. In this situation, the stale cigarette smoke has acted as:
an unconditioned stimulus
In this situation, two stimuli are being “paired” in order to change the response that is elicited by one of the stimuli. The stale cigarette smoke naturally elicits nausea, so it is the unconditioned stimulus.
In vivo exposure with response prevention (flooding) and implosive therapy are both based on:
classical extinction
Classical extinction is used to extinguish (eliminate) a conditioned response (CR) and involves presenting the conditioned stimulus (CS) without the unconditioned stimulus (US). Flooding and implosive therapy both involve exposing an individual to the CS without the US.
Classical extinction occurs when:
the CS is repeatedly presented alone
Studies using the dismantling strategy suggest that which of the following is most responsible for the therapeutic benefits of systematic desensitization?
Exposure to feared stimulus
When using covert sensitization:
the CS and US are presented in imagination
Covert sensitization is a type of aversive counterconditioning. When using covert sensitization, the conditioned stimulus (CS) and unconditioned stimulus (US) are presented in imagination rather than in vivo (reality).
Which of the following treatments combines exposure to a feared stimulus with a psychodynamic interpretation of the fear?
Implosive therapy
Implosive therapy combines classical extinction with psychodynamic interpretation. It is often used to treat phobias and to eliminate self-reinforcing behaviors.
A mother finds that, when she yells at her son, the boy stops picking on his little sister for a brief period of time. Over time, the mother finds that she has to yell more and more frequently at the boy to get him to leave his sister alone. The boy is influencing his mother’s behavior (yelling) through:
negative reinforcement
The mother’s yelling is increasing, which means that it is being reinforced. It is being reinforced by the removal of her son’s undesirable behavior, which means that it is being negatively reinforced.
A “scallop” in the cumulative recording is characteristic of which schedule of reinforcement?
Fixed interval
On a fixed interval (FI) schedule, the subject stops responding once the reinforcement is delivered and then begins responding again toward the end of the interval. This produces a “scallop” in the cumulative recording.
Escape conditioning becomes avoidance conditioning when:
a signal is provided that indicates that an aversive stimulus is about to be delivered
In the context of stimulus control, a positive discriminative stimulus:
signals that a behavior will be reinforced
A teacher uses verbal reprimands whenever students in his class misbehave in order to reduce their misbehavior. If the reprimands have the desired effect, they are acting as which of the following?
Positive punishment
Verbal reprimands are used to reduce an undesirable behavior. They are a form of positive punishment because verbal reprimands involve the application of a stimulus following a behavior to reduce the behavior.
According to the __________, the relative frequency of responding to an alternative corresponds to the frequency of reinforcement for responding to that alternative.
matching law
The statement in the question defines the matching law (Herrnstein, 1970), which states that the frequency of responding to two or more alternatives (e.g., pressing two or more levers) matches the frequency of being reinforced for doing so. In other words, the frequency of responding matches the frequency of reinforcement.
A mother has been giving her 3-year-old son a hug whenever he says “please” following a request. She decides to stop reinforcing her son in this way. Right after she stops hugging her son, she can expect that the frequency with which he says “please” will:
temporarily increase
When reinforcement for a previously reinforced response is removed, there is often a temporary “extinction burst” (increase in response) before it begins to decrease.
During the initial stages of a behavior change intervention, verbal or nonverbal prompts may be needed to evoke the desired behavior. However, after the behavior is established, the prompts should be gradually removed. The gradual removal of prompts is referred to as:
fading
An operant technique in which all opportunities for positive reinforcement are made unavailable for a specified period of time following the performance of an undesirable behavior in order to reduce that behavior is known as:
time-out
A chimpanzee pushes a button to turn on a tone. Once the tone sounds, the chimpanzee pulls a lever to turn on a green light. Once the green light is on, the chimpanzee slides a door open to obtain a treat. Which of the following techniques was used to teach this sequence of behaviors to the chimpanzee?
Chaining
Chaining is used to establish a complex sequence of behaviors (i.e., a “behavioral chain”) like the one described in this question.
Differential reinforcement is best conceptualized as which of the following?
A combination of extinction and positive reinforcement
Differential reinforcement combines positive reinforcement with extinction and involves reinforcing alternative behaviors while ignoring the target behavior. In other words, desirable behaviors are positively reinforced while the target behavior is extinguished.
The technique known as “overcorrection” consists of
restitution, positive practice, and physical guidance
Overcorrection is usually classified as a type of positive punishment and involves applying a penalty following an undesirable behavior in order to eliminate it. It involves having individuals correct the consequences of their behavior (restitution) and practice corrective behaviors (positive practice). It also involves physical guidance.
In a token economy, the tokens are:
generalized secondary reinforcers
A researcher designs a study to investigate college students’ expectations regarding their ability to master a new skill, achieve a particular goal, or produce a particular outcome. Apparently, this researcher is interested in which of the following phenomena?
Self-efficacy
Bandura used the term self-efficacy to refer to an individual’s beliefs or expectations regarding his/her ability to perform specific behaviors. For example, a person has high self-efficacy beliefs when she believes that she has the knowledge or skills necessary to successfully complete a particular task. Of the phenomena listed in the answers, self-efficacy best describes the researcher’s interest.
Bandura’s notion of reciprocal determinism is useful for explaining:
how the individual and his/her environment influence each other
As defined by Bandura, reciprocal determinism refers to the interactions between a person’s characteristics, the person’s behavior, and the environment. Bandura rejected the behavioral view of the environment as a one-way determinant of behavior and proposed that there is a reciprocal (influential and interactive) relationship between the person’s cognitive, affective, and other characteristics, the person’s behavior, and the environment.
Kohler’s (1925) research with chimpanzees led to his description of which of the following?
Insight learning
Kohler proposed that learning can be the result of insight (an “aha” experience) that reflects an internal cognitive restructuring of the environment that allows the organism to achieve its goals.
Tolman used the notion of “cognitive maps” as support for which of the following?
Latent learning
Tolman’s notion of cognitive maps was derived from his research in which rats were allowed to explore a maze without being reinforced for doing so. The results indicated that the animals had learned something about the maze; that is, they had formed cognitive maps. This led Tolman to conclude that learning can occur without apparent changes or improvements in behavior and referred to this as latent learning.
Tolman’s notion of cognitive maps was derived from his research in which rats were allowed to explore a maze without being reinforced for doing so. The results indicated that the animals had learned something about the maze; that is, they had formed cognitive maps. This led Tolman to conclude that learning can occur without apparent changes or improvements in behavior and referred to this as latent learning.
Participant modeling
Bandura found that participant modeling (observing a model followed by guided participation) was the most effective method for eliminating phobic reactions.
Rehm’s self-control therapy focuses on which of the following?
Self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement
The notion of “collaborative empiricism” is associated with:
Beck
Cognitive preparation, skills acquisition, and application and follow-through are the three overlapping phases of which of the following strategies?
Stress inoculation
Stress inoculation was designed to help people deal effectively with stress by enhancing their coping skills. It consists of the three phases listed in this question (cognitive preparation, skills acquisition, and application and follow-through).
Biofeedback is more effective than relaxation training for which of the following?
Raynaud’s disease
Sensory memory:
holds a large amount of sensory data for a brief period
Echoic is to iconic as:
auditory is to visual
Craik and Lockhart’s (1972) levels-of-processing model:
implies that elaborative rehearsal is more effective than maintenance rehearsal
As its name suggests, the levels-of-processing model assumes that memory for information is affected by the depth of processing that information. The model distinguishes between three levels: structural, phonemic, and semantic. The deepest and most effective level is the semantic (“meaning”) level, and elaborative rehearsal involves encoding information at the semantic level. Maintenance rehearsal involves the repetition of information with little or no processing; thus, elaborative rehearsal is more effective than maintenance rehearsal due the depth of encoding at the semantic level.
A person with deficits in prospective memory will have trouble:
remembering a future meeting with a co-worker
Prospective memory refers to the ability to remember to perform an action in the future. A person with deficits in prospective memory would have trouble remembering a future meeting or appointment.
In high school, Stuart S. took Spanish for four years and, as a result, became a pretty good speaker of Spanish. During his first year of college, Stuart took French and, at the end of the year, he found that he had trouble remembering many Spanish words. This is best explained by which of the following?
Retroactive interference
Retroactive interference occurs when something learned in the present interferes with the ability to recall something learned in the past.
As conceptualized in Baddeley and Hitch’s (1974) multi-component model of working memory, the ________ is responsible for directing attention to relevant sensory information.
central executive
A research participant remembers a list of unrelated words by envisioning each item in a different location in her living room while memorizing and then recalling the list (e.g., one item on the TV, one under the coffee table, one on the chair). This is referred to as:
the method of loci
The method of loci (“method of places”) is a mnemonic device that makes use of visual imagery. This method involves visually associating items to be remembered with a series of places (loci) already in memory.
Treisman and Gelade’s research (1980) provided information about:
feature-integration theory
According to Treisman and Gelade’s (1980) feature-integration theory, the initial processing of visual information involves two stages: the initial preattentive stage and the attentive stage. According to Treisman and Gelade, once an object has been correctly integrated, it ordinarily continues to be perceived and stored in memory as a unitary object. However, over time, “the features may disintegrate and ‘free float’ once more, or perhaps recombine to form ‘illusory conjunctions’” (p. 99) as the result of memory decay or interference.
Studies on the “serial position effect” have provided information on:
primacy and recency effects
The serial position effect is the tendency to recall items at the beginning and end of a list better than items in the middle of a list. Enhanced recall of items at the beginning of the list is referred to as the primacy effect, while enhanced recall of items at the end of a list is called the recency effect.
Rutter (1985) studied the risk and protective factors that are associated with child psychopathology. His research found that which of the following places a child at greatest risk for behavioral problems?
An accumulation of several risk factors
Rutter argued that the greater the number of risk factors a baby is exposed to, the greater the risk for negative outcomes. He concluded that the following six family risk factors are particularly accurate predictors of child psychopathology: severe marital discord, low socioeconomic status, overcrowding or large family size, parental criminality, maternal psychopathology, and the placement of a child outside the home.
____________ during prenatal development is associated with miscarriage, stillbirth, and low birth weight and may result in suppression of the immune system, intellectual disability, and other serious problems.
Malnutrition
A developmental psychologist investigating the influence of Bronfenbrenner’s mesosystem on child development will focus on:
the interaction of two or more systems in the child’s life
he mesosystem is a combination of two or more microsystems
During a “critical period:”
certain biological or behavioral characteristics require appropriate exposure or stimulation in order to develop.
The symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS):
are irreversible and persist into adulthood.
Which of the following is useful for preventing the severe intellectual disability that can accompany phenylketonuria (PKU)?
Diet management
A low-protein diet is the main treatment for phenylketonuria (PKU). This is because people who have PKU lack an enzyme to properly process the amino acid phenylalanine, a part of protein. Phenylalanine is present in all protein foods and in some nonprotein foods, such as soda and artificial sweeteners. The neural and intellectual effects are the result of these metabolic issues.
As people age they:
experience an increase in reaction time
The best conclusion that can be drawn from research on neurogenesis in the human brain is that:
it continues in a limited form throughout life.
Neurogenesis is the process by which nervous system cells, the neurons, are produced by neural stem cells. This is a critical process in early brain development and appears to continue in some regions throughout life.
Which of the following best describes the results of research on the consequences of early physical maturation for adolescents?
It may have positive social consequences for boys, but negative consequences for girls.
For boys, there may be positive social effects, including increased popularity, although the overall result is mixed as there is a higher risk of negative self-image and substance use. Early maturation is associated with a number of negative consequences for girls, especially during the early adolescent years. Early-maturing girls tend to have a poor self-concept, be unpopular with peers, be dissatisfied with their physical development, have low academic achievement, be more likely to engage in sexually precocious behavior and drug and alcohol use, and be at increased risk for developing depression or an eating disorder.
Most infants can be expected to take their first steps alone at about ____ months of age.
12
Most children walk with help at about 10-11 months and take their first independent steps at about 12 months.
Results of the recent National Survey on Drug Use and Health found that adolescents are MOST likely to say they have used which of the following in the past month?
Alcohol
The visual cues an infant uses to perceive depth arise in a predictable sequence. Which cue is the last to develop?
Pictorial
The sequence of sensitivity to depth cues is: kinetic, binocular, and pictorial.
According to Piaget, the source of motivation for cognitive development is:
intrinsic development
Piaget’s theory is based on the idea of an intrinsic development of stages of cognitive ability.
As described by Vygotsky, __________ is a temporary aid provided by one person (the “teacher”) to encourage, support, and assist a lesser-skilled person (the “learner”) in acquiring a skill or solving a problem.
scaffolding
Scaffolding is a process in which learners complete small, manageable steps in order to reach the goal. Working in collaboration with a skilled instructor or more knowledgeable peers helps students make connections between concepts.
As defined by Piaget, assimilation involves:
incorporating new knowledge into existing schemas
As defined by Piaget, assimilation occurs when we modify or change new information to fit into our schemas (what we already know).
According to Piaget, centration, or the tendency to focus on only one aspect of a situation or object while ignoring all others, is characteristic of the _________ stage.
pre-operational
In the pre-operational stage, centration occurs in which there is a focus on one element of a situation at the neglect of other, possibly relevant aspects.
In response to your concerns about the potential consequences of his recent risk-taking behaviors, a 16-year-old says, “Don’t worry, that can’t happen to me.” According to Elkind, this is a manifestation of which of the following?
Adolescent egocentricism
Which of the following best describes changes in memory that are associated with age progression?
Reduced processing efficiency
Declines in processing efficiency are characteristic of aging, starting in midlife.
Studies have found that when older adults are asked to recall personal events from their lives, they often exhibit a “reminiscence bump.” A recent explanation for this phenomenon is that it is due to which of the following?
The significant life changes that are most memorable.
The reminiscence bump occurs because memory storage in autobiographical memory is not consistent through time. Rather, memory storage increases during times of changes in the self and in life goals, such as the changes in identity that occur during adolescence.
The understanding that another person’s thoughts may be false (inaccurate) and that people may act on their false beliefs. usually occurs between the ages of:
4-5
Theory of mind (ToM) refers to “the ability to make inferences about another’s representational states and to predict behavior accordingly” (Lewis & Mitchell, 2014, p. 2). Four- and five-year old’s understand that another person’s thoughts may be false (inaccurate) and that people may act on their false beliefs.
Researchers have found that newborns exhibit three types of cries – the hungry (basic) cry, the angry cry, and the pain cry. They have also found that, by _____ months of age, most infants begin to emit a “fussy” or irregular cry.
2
For most children, babbling narrows to the sounds of the child’s native language between _____ months of age.
9-14
Which of the following is an example of a morpheme:
un
Research on bilingualism suggests that it:
does not have negative effects on overall language ability.
Although some specific differences between bilingual and monolingual children have been found, they appear to be generally equivalent in terms of total vocabulary and fluency of language skills.
A young child’s ability to narrow the possible meaning of new words is known as which of the following?
syntactic bootstrapping
According to Gletman (1990), syntactic bootstrapping refers to a child’s use of grammatical contextual knowledge to learn the meaning of new words. This process is what helps children narrow the possible meaning of words.
Carol Gilligan (1991) considers adolescence to be a particularly critical period for girls because it involves a conflict between:
self and culture
Gilligan considers adolescence to be a critical period for females as they feel external pressure to fit cultural stereotypes, causing them to suppress their expressions of identity.
Kohlberg’s cognitive-developmental theory identifies which of the following as the initial stage of gender-role acquisition?
Gender identity
Gender identity is the first of Kohlberg’s stages of gender acquisition, which occurs at about age 2.
Thomas and Chess (1977) proposed that maladjustment in children is traceable to:
temperament
Thomas and Chess proposed 3 basic clusters of temperament. The Easy Child is generally in a positive mood, quickly establishing regular routines in infancy and adapts easily to new experiences. The Difficult Child tends to react negatively and cry frequently, engaging in irregular daily routines and is slow to accept new experiences. The Slow to Warm Up Child has a low activity level, is somewhat negative, shows low adaptability and displays a low intensity of mood.
According to Erikson, a desirable outcome of the final stage of psychosocial development is which of the following?
Coming to terms with one’s life.
Ego integrity versus despair is the final of Erikson’s stages. In this stage, people reflect back on the life they have lived and come away with either a sense of fulfillment from a life well lived or a sense of regret and despair over a life misspent. Erikson’s stages are: Trust vs. Mistrust, Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt, Initiative vs. Guilt, Industry vs. Inferiority, Identity vs. Confusion, Intimacy vs. Isolation, Generativity vs. Stagnation, and Ego Integrity vs. Despair.
A 9-year-old is irritable, aggressive, dependent, low in achievement orientation and self-esteem, and has a limited sense of responsibility. Based on this information, you can conclude that his parents are:
authoritarian
As described by Marcia (1987), an adolescent experiencing “foreclosure” will be most likely to say which of the following about her career goals?
I’m going to follow my mother into her business.
The foreclosure status is when a commitment is made without exploring alternatives. Often these commitments are based on parental ideas and beliefs that are accepted without question. Marcia stressed that once an identity crisis has been experienced, returning to the foreclosure status was no longer a possibility.
According to Kubler-Ross (1969), a person’s initial reaction to learning that he or she has a life-threatening illness is most likely to be which of the following?
Denial
The five stages of grief model (or the Kubler-Ross model) postulates that those experiencing grief go through a series of five emotions: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.
It is not until the age of ___ that most children understand that when the “bad guy” is shot on television, he has not truly died in real life.
10
By age 10, most children have developed an understanding of death.
A baby with insecure/avoidant attachment:
shows little distress when separated from his/her mother and turns away from her when she returns.
In Ainsworth’s “strange situation,” insecure/avoidant children are uninterested in exploration, show little distress when separated from their mothers, and avoid her when she returns.
At approximately ____ months of age, babies begin to show outward signs of jealousy, empathy, and embarrassment.
18
f you are developing an intervention to reduce aggressiveness in children and you are basing it on the work of G. R. Patterson and his colleagues (1992), a primary component of the intervention will be:
training parents in effective child management skills
Patterson was interested in the relationship between parents and children, and how this related to aggressive behavior. Training parents in behavioral management skills would be a central focus of such an intervention.
A child in Piaget’s autonomous stage of moral development will base his judgment of whether an act is “right” or “wrong” primarily on:
intentions
Piaget proposed a sequence of moral development involving three stages: premoral, moral realism, and moral relativism. During the autonomous stage, moral relativism is the basis of judgment. Children in this stage view rules as arbitrary and as being alterable when the people who are governed by them agree to change them. When judging an act, they focus more on the intention of the actor than on the act’s consequences.
During Kohlberg’s postconventional stage, moral judgments are based on:
either consensus or universal principles
In Kohlberg’s post-conventional stage, decisions are based either on democratically determined or by universal rules of morality.
Harlow’s research with rhesus monkeys concluded that a baby’s attachment to his or her mother is due, in part, to _______________.
contact comfort
hich of the following statements about adolescent adjustment in divorced families is true?
Variables associated with adolescent post-divorce adjustment include both dyadic and broader social factors.
Tyrone and Tyree are 6-year-old twins. They attended daycare from the time they were two years old. In comparison to children who have not received care outside the home, you would expect Tyrone and Tyree to:
be more advanced in language development and aggressive behavior.
Which of the following is most likely to be an accurate description of the relationship between two sisters, ages 12 and 14?
Close and conflictual
The research indicates that sibling relationships often involve contradictions, but the combination of closeness and conflict seems to be particularly characteristic of siblings during preadolescence and may be especially intense for those of the same gender who are close in age.
According to Carstensen’s (1993) socioemotional selectivity theory, most older adults prefer social relationships:
that are limited in number but have a high degree of closeness.
Carstensen’s theory suggests that as time is perceived as more limited, relations tend to be fewer, deeper, and less varied.
Intense narcoleptic “sleep attacks” are often accompanied by:
cataplexy
Narcolepsy involves frequent intense periods of irresistible sleep. Narcolepsy sleep attacks may include cataplexy, which is a sudden loss of muscle tone.
Symptoms of Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder may be comorbid with other mental health disorders. However, this diagnosis cannot coexist with:
Oppositional Defiant Disorder, Intermittent Explosive Disorder, or Bipolar Disorder
Dysphoria, vivid and frightening dreams, insomnia or hypersomnia, fatigue, psychomotor agitation or retardation, and increased appetite are most suggestive of __________ Withdrawal.
Stimulant
It is often difficult to distinguish between delirium, dementia (major neurocognitive disorder), and depression in older adults. However, the presence of which of the following suggests that delirium is the appropriate diagnosis?
A disturbance in attention and awareness
The primary advantage of the DSM’s use of polythetic criteria sets is that this approach:
reflects the heterogeneity of symptoms characteristic of many diagnoses
One of the earliest signs of Alzheimer’s disease is:
impaired recent memory
Alzheimer’s disease involves a relatively predictable progression of symptoms, with impairment of recent memory (anterograde amnesia) often being one of the first signs reported by relatives or clinical observers of patients with this diagnosis.
Which of the following is likely to be the most effective treatment for a client with Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)?
Psychoeducation, relaxation training, and cognitive therapy
The assessment of patients with Alzheimer’s disease is an ongoing process due to its degenerative nature and the consequent need to alter the treatment plan. During the fourth or fifth year of the disease, an assessment is most likely to reveal:
impairments in recent and remote memory, delusions, fluent aphasia, and restlessness
Alan A., age 10, and his parents are referred to you by Alan’s pediatrician. Based on your interview with Alan’s parents, you determine that the boy’s behavior at home is consistent with a diagnosis of Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). To confirm this diagnosis, you would most likely:
contact Alan’s teacher to discuss the nature of his behavior at school
The diagnosis of ADHD requires the presence of symptoms of inattention and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity in at least two settings. Talking to Alan’s teacher would determine if he exhibits signs of this disorder at school.
A diagnosis of Vascular Neurocognitive Disorder requires:
evidence of cerebrovascular disease
Abnormal melatonin levels have been linked to which of the following?
Seasonal Affective Disorder
When developing a treatment plan for an 11-year-old with Conduct Disorder, you will most likely include which of the following interventions?
Parent management training
Which of the following paraphilias is characterized by intense sexually arousing fantasies, sexual urges, or behaviors that involve touching or rubbing against a nonconsenting person?
Frotteuristic Disorder
The primary feature that distinguishes Acute Stress Disorder from Posttraumatic Stress Disorder is:
the shorter duration of symptoms in the former disorder
Longitudinal studies have found that the symptoms of Borderline Personality Disorder tend to be most severe during the:
early adult years
Tobacco Withdrawal is characterized by which of the following symptoms?
Depressed mood, insomnia, and increased appetite
Which of the following would be most useful for monitoring the progression of Alzheimer’s disease?
Cognitive tests
Sleep terror episodes:
result in a panicky scream
Electroconvulsive shock therapy (ECT):
is considered useful for treating depression that involves suicidal preoccupation
Brittany S., age 34, is often very irritable with family members and friends, has trouble controlling her anger, gets drunk at least twice a week, has a history of frequent job changes and brief sexual affairs, and often complains that she is bored. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis is _____ Personality Disorder.
Borderline
Brittany’s symptoms are most consistent with the diagnostic criteria for Borderline Personality Disorder, which is characterized by instability in self-image, interpersonal relationships, and affect. Additional symptoms may include irritability and/or intense anger and marked impulsivity in at least two areas, such as substance abuse and sexual behaviors.
Which of the following drugs is most likely to be prescribed to alleviate the symptoms of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder?
A drug that blocks serotonin reuptake
Korsakoff syndrome has been attributed to which of the following?
Thiamine deficiency
Alterations in perception are most associated with which of the following disorders?
Panic Disorder
Perceptual distortions (depersonalization and derealization) are potential symptoms of a panic attack.
If a client exhibits psychotic symptoms, it is important to keep in mind that Schizophreniform Disorder is a more appropriate diagnosis than Schizophrenia when:
the duration of symptoms is less than six months
The most effective treatment for Tobacco Use Disorders in terms of both short- and long-term effects combines:
nicotine replacement therapy with behavioral interventions
Edward M., age 36, says he rarely experiences strong emotions, describes himself as a “loner,” and states that he does not care what other people think of him. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis for Edward is _________ Personality Disorder.
Schizoid
A Latinx client who is diagnosed with Major Depressive Disorder is most likely to say that his symptoms include which of the following?
Headaches, sleep problems, and nervousness
Culture may influence the experience and manifestation of depression and other mental disorders. “Nervios” is a common idiom of distress for Latinos and may be indicative of depression or another diagnosis. It is manifested primarily in terms of somatic complaints such as headaches, sleep problems, and nervousness.
Amy B. has recently received a diagnosis of Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder. Her symptoms most likely include:
being overly concerned about adhering to rules and schedules
Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder is characterized by a persistent preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control. The symptoms described in this answer are consistent with a diagnosis of Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder.
The diagnosis of Adjustment Disorder requires the development of symptoms within ___ month(s) of the onset of the stressor.
three
To investigate diagnostic overshadowing, a researcher will design a study that assesses:
whether a therapist’s knowledge that a client has a Mood Disorder reduces the likelihood that the therapist will consider or recognize that the client also has another disorder
Which of the following seems to be the key element in treating Agoraphobia?
In vivo exposure
In vivo exposure with response prevention is the treatment of choice for Agoraphobia.
The presence of which of the following symptoms would suggest a diagnosis of Conduct Disorder rather than a diagnosis of Oppositional Defiant Disorder?
Frequent lying and running away from home
According to research, which of the following is the strongest predictor of Intellectual Disability, with an unknown etiology?
Low birth weight
The severity level (mild, moderate, severe, or extreme) for a DSM-5 diagnosis of Bulimia Nervosa is based on which of the following?
Average number of weekly episodes of inappropriate compensatory behavior
A DSM-5 diagnosis of Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder requires an onset of symptoms prior to ___ years of age.
10
In recent years, the highest suicide rate among all age groups in the United States has been found in:
Native Americans/Alaskan Natives
