EPPP

Question 1

A child diagnosed with a Specific Learning Disorder is most likely to also receive a diagnosis of:

Answer 1

ADHD

Question 2

A 28-year-old male client presents with hallucinations and bizarre delusions. His parents report that his symptoms were not preceded by an unusual or stressful event and that he has had these symptoms for about six weeks. Your tentative diagnosis is:

Answer 2

Schizophreniform Disorder. The symptoms of Schizophreniform Disorder are similar to those of Schizophrenia, except that the duration of symptoms is between one and six months.

Question 3

Common associated features of Schizophrenia include:

Answer 3

inappropriate affect, dysphoric mood, disturbed sleep pattern, and lack of interest in eating.

Common associated features of Schizophrenia include inappropriate affect (e.g., laughing for no apparent reason), dysphoric mood, disturbed sleep pattern, and lack of interest in eating. Some individuals have poor insight into their symptoms (anosognosia), and Substance Use Disorders are also common comorbid diagnoses.

Question 4

For a diagnosis of Schizophrenia, the DSM-5 requires the presence of two or more active phase symptoms for at least one month, with at least one symptom being:

Answer 4

hallucinations, delusions, or disorganized speech.

Question 5

Lewinsohn’s (1974) behavioral model attributes depression to a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement for adaptive behaviors, which causes:

Answer 5

extinction of those behaviors.

According to Lewinsohn’s behavioral theory, depression is the result of a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement for adaptive behaviors, which causes extinction of those behaviors as well as pessimism, low self-esteem, social isolation, and dysphoria that, in turn, are reinforced by the sympathy and concern of others.

Question 6

Which of the following is true about the prevalence of Major Depressive Disorder in adolescents and adults?

Answer 6

The rate for females is one and one-half to three times the rate for males.

Prior to puberty, the rates of Major Depressive Disorder are about equal for males and females; but, beginning in adolescence, the rate for females becomes one and one-half to three times the rate for males.

Question 7

According to the DSM-5, the 12-month prevalence rate for Bipolar I Disorder in the United States is _____ percent.

Answer 7

0.6

Question 8

A 63-year-old college professor exhibits impairments in memory and other cognitive functions and a depressed mood. Which of the following would suggest that his symptoms are more likely due to “pseudodementia” than to a Major or Mild Neurocognitive Disorder?

Answer 8

The man exaggerates his cognitive deficits and seems overly concerned about them.

The term pseudodementia is sometimes used to describe Major Depressive Disorder when it involves apathy and prominent cognitive symptoms (e.g., memory loss, impaired concentration, distractibility). A distinguishing feature is that people with pseudodementia are likely to exaggerate their cognitive problems, while those with a Major or Mild Neurocognitive Disorder tend to deny or minimize them.

Question 9

The treatment-of-choice for Agoraphobia is ordinarily

Answer 9

exposure with response prevention

Question 10

For a diagnosis of Generalized Anxiety Disorder in children, anxiety and worry must involve _____ or more characteristic symptoms.

Answer 10

one

Question 11

The research suggests that a person with Anorexia Nervosa restricts his or her food intake to alleviate restlessness, anxiety, and obsessive thinking, which may be caused by

Answer 11

higher-than-normal levels of serotonin

Question 12

A hypnopompic hallucination is:

Answer 12

vivid dream that occurs just before waking up

Question 13

Two weeks ago, Amy A., age 17, suddenly began experiencing weakness in both legs and a loss of balance, which causes her to fall when she tries to walk. Amy has not been able to go to school because of her symptoms, and she says she thinks they started after she had argued with her best friend. A thorough physical examination has not found a medical explanation for her symptoms, and the symptoms are not compatible with any known neurological or medical condition. The most likely diagnosis for Amy is:

Answer 13

Conversion Disorder

The incompatibility of Amy’s symptoms with any known medical or neurological conditions is more characteristic of Conversion Disorder than Somatic Symptom Disorder. Additionally, no information is provided in the question indicating that Amy is having excessive thoughts and feelings about the symptoms, which is required for the diagnosis of Somatic Symptom Disorder

Question 14

A thiamine deficiency is associated with which of the following?

Answer 14

Alcohol-Induced Major Neurocognitive Disorder

Question 15

Orgasmic reconditioning involves:

Answer 15

redirecting sexual arousal to more acceptable sources of stimulation.

Question 16

Moffitt (1993) distinguishes between two types of:

Answer 16

Conduct Disorder.

Moffitt (1993) distinguishes between two types of Conduct Disorder that differ in terms of age of onset, symptom severity, and etiology: life-course-persistent type and adolescence-limited type.

Question 17

The progression of Alzheimer’s disease can be described in terms of three stages. A person in the second (middle) stage of the disease is most likely to exhibit:

Answer 17

anterograde and retrograde amnesia, flat or labile mood, restlessness, and fluent aphasia.

Question 18

Magical thinking, depression, ideas of reference, paranoia, discomfort in social situations, and inappropriate affect are most characteristic of which of the following disorders?

Answer 18

Schizotypal Personality Disorder

Schizotypal Personality Disorder involves pervasive social and interpersonal deficits and eccentricities in cognition, perception, and behavior.

Question 19

Researchers have most consistently linked early memory impairment associated with Neurocognitive Disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease to a loss of neurons that secrete __________, especially in the hippocampus and certain areas of the cortex.

Answer 19

acetylcholine

Question 20

A Freudian psychoanalyst is most likely to describe ___________ as explicitly connecting current behavior to unconscious processes.

Answer 20

interpretation

Question 21

As described by Alfred Adler, a healthy style of life is characterized by:

Answer 21

confidence, optimism, and concern about the welfare of others.

Style of life is a key concept in Adler’s individual psychology. Adler distinguished between a healthy and an unhealthy style of life and proposed that social interest is the factor that distinguishes between the two. A person with a healthy style of life is concerned about the welfare of others.

Question 22

In Freudian psychoanalysis, turning an undesirable impulse into its opposite is referred to as:

Answer 22

reaction formation.

Question 23

For Carl Jung, transference involves:

Answer 23

projection of the personal and collective unconscious.

Question 24

Margaret Mahler traced adult psychopathology to problems related to which of the following?

Answer 24

separation-individuation

Question 25

As described by Jung, __________ are universal, generationally transmitted images that structure how people perceive their experiences.

Answer 25

archetypes

Question 26

The goals of Gestalt therapy include helping the client recognize and satisfy needs and accept polarities that exist within his/her personality. A psychologist using a Gestalt approach would consider the key to achieving these goals to be which of the following?

Answer 26

Awareness According to Gestalt theory, a well-functioning person is able to see the entirety of his or her immediate experience (i.e., the "gestalt"). According to Gestalt principles, awareness of thoughts, emotions, behaviors, etc. in the "here-and-now" is sufficient to cause desired changes.

Question 27

A Gestalt therapist would interpret a client's transference as:

Answer 27

the client's fantasy.

Question 28

George Kelly's (1955) personal construct theory focuses on the role of "personal constructs," which Kelly describes as:

Answer 28

bipolar dimensions of meaning. Kelly's theory focuses on how people construe (perceive, interpret, and predict) events, with construing involving the use of personal constructs. As defined by Kelly, personal constructs are mental templates that consist of a characteristic or other phenomenon and its perceived opposite (e.g., outgoing-shy, interesting-boring).

Question 29

According to Carl Rogers, which of the following leads to disorganization of the self?

Answer 29

Incongruence between self and experience The self is a central concept in Rogers's person-centered therapy. Rogers proposed that the self becomes disorganized when the individual experiences incongruence between self and experience, which occurs when he/she is exposed to conditions of worth.

Question 30

Glasser's (1998) reality therapy identifies which of the following as the primary source of motivation?

Answer 30

Basic innate needs Reality therapy is based on the premise that everything a person does is for the purpose of satisfying his/her needs. Glasser distinguished between five basic innate needs—survival, love and belonging, power, freedom, and fun. A person's ability to satisfy these needs in a responsible way determines whether he/she develops a success identity or a failure identity.

Question 31

Carl Rogers proposed that a person may attempt to relieve anxiety by relying on which of the following?

Answer 31

Distortion or denial Rogers proposed that incongruence between self and experience produces unpleasant physical sensations that are subjectively experienced as anxiety. According to Rogers, a person may attempt to alleviate anxiety by distorting or denying experiences that produced the incongruence that caused the anxiety.

Question 32

Unresolved grief, interpersonal role disputes, role transitions, and interpersonal deficits are the primary targets of:

Answer 32

interpersonal therapy.

Question 33

The techniques of consciousness raising, social liberation, dramatic relief, self-reevaluation, and reinforcement management are most associated with which of the following?

Answer 33

Transtheoretical model

Question 34

During an argument, a husband and wife keep trying to outdo one another in terms of insults. This is one of the possible outcomes of:

Answer 34

symmetrical communication.

Question 35

As defined by Murray Bowen, an "emotional triangle" serves which of the following functions?

Answer 35

It reduces anxiety and tension between family members. Bowen considered an emotional triangle to be a basic building block in a family's emotional system. According to Bowen, when a two-person system such as a husband-wife or parent-child experiences instability or stress, it may form an emotional triangle by recruiting a third person into the system in order to increase stability and reduce tension and anxiety.

Question 36

Bowen considered an emotional triangle to be a basic building block in a family's emotional system. According to Bowen, when a two-person system such as a husband-wife or parent-child experiences instability or stress, it may form an emotional triangle by recruiting a third person into the system in order to increase stability and reduce tension and anxiety.

Answer 36

Blending with the family by adopting its language, behaviors, and style

Question 37

Paradoxical interventions are often utilized by strategic family therapists for the purpose of:

Answer 37

relieving symptoms Strategic family therapists use a variety of techniques including paradoxical interventions which are intended to provide symptom relief by ultimately helping the client see the symptom in an alternative way.

Question 38

A family therapist has been seeing a mother, father, and their two children in therapy for three months. Two days after a therapy session, the father calls the therapist to talk about a conflict he is having with his wife and tries to get the therapist to side with him. The next day, the wife calls the therapist and tries to get him to see things from her point of view. From the perspective of structural family therapy, this situation can be considered an example of:

Answer 38

triangulation.

Question 39

_____________ is based on the premise that illness is due to a blockage of vital life energy.

Answer 39

Acupuncture

Question 40

In feminist therapy, if a client says she feels that the therapist is in a position of power over her, the therapist is most likely to address this concern by:

Answer 40

acknowledging the inherent power differential. A concern for feminist therapists is the power differential that is inherent in the therapist-client relationship. A feminist therapist's first reaction to concerns about the power differential is to acknowledge it and then to work toward minimizing it.

Question 41

In comparison to repressed memories recalled without hypnosis, under hypnosis, you would be most likely to recall:

Answer 41

more inaccurate memories than accurate memories. Research suggests that using hypnosis to help individuals recall repressed memories can have negative consequences. The studies have found that hypnosis does not seem to enhance the accuracy of memories but may produce more pseudomemories than accurate memories.

Question 42

Self-in-relation theory is an approach to feminist object relations theory and differs from traditional object relations theory in:

Answer 42

its explanation of gender differences in terms of same-gender versus opposite-gender influences in the mother-child relationship. Self-in-relation theorists (e.g., Okun, 1990) extend traditional object relations theory by emphasizing the differences in socialization that occur because of the same-gender versus opposite-gender relationship between mother and child. According to this view, the mother's socialization practices differ, depending on the gender of her child. Specifically, girls are taught to stay connected (attached) to the mother, while boys are taught to separate. Feminist therapists have discussed how this difference contributes to gender differences in a variety of domains (e.g., achievement, moral development).

Question 43

As described by Gerald Caplan, "theme interference" is:

Answer 43

a type of transference. Caplan described theme interference as a type of transference that occurs when a past unresolved conflict related to a particular type of client or situation interferes with a consultant's ability to remain objective in a current situation.

Question 44

The Health Belief Model (Becker, 1974) emphasizes the individual's:

Answer 44

readiness to take action. Becker's (1974) Health Belief Model identifies several factors that influence a person's health-related behaviors. The individual's readiness to take a particular action is one of the factors identified by the Health Belief Model and is affected by the person's perceived susceptibility to an illness and perceived severity of that illness.

Question 45

A prevention program involves identifying children who exhibit early signs of emotional disturbance so they can be provided with special assistance from teacher's aides and other paraprofessionals. This is an example of:

Answer 45

secondary prevention. Secondary preventions entail the early identification of at-risk individuals who have not yet developed a full-blown disturbance and providing them with an appropriate intervention.

Question 46

Which of the following is an example of consultee-centered case consultation?

Answer 46

Helping a teacher recognize the early signs of drug abuse in high school students In consultee-centered case consultation, the focus is on the skills, knowledge, and objectivity of the consultee, and the goal is to improve the consultee's functioning so that he/she can work more effectively with members of a target group or population in the future.

Question 47

A program designed to improve the interpersonal skills of residents of a retirement community would be classified as a "primary prevention" when it is offered:

Answer 47

to all residents who want to participate. Primary preventions are designed to intervene before a problem occurs and are offered to all members of a group or population. When a program is offered to all members of a group or population rather than to specific individuals (e.g., to all residents of a retirement community), it is a primary prevention.

Question 48

Sue and Sue (2003) describe "worldview" as consisting of two dimensions—locus of control and locus of responsibility. Within this framework, the culture of the White middle class in the United States is best described as reflecting an:

Answer 48

internal locus of control and internal locus of responsibility. Sue and Sue's model distinguishes between four types of worldview that reflect a different combination of levels of locus of control and locus of responsibility. The dominant culture in the United States (i.e., the culture of the White middle class) exemplifies the IC-IR philosophy through its emphasis on individualism, independence, and self-reliance.

Question 49

______________________ may occur when members of a cultural minority have negative interactions with members of the dominant culture.

Answer 49

Acculturative stress According to Berry's (2006) transactional theory, when members of cultural minority groups interact with members of the dominant culture (e.g., White American culture), psychological maladjustment may emerge in part as a function of how much acculturative stress the individual experiences when interacting with the dominant culture.

Question 50

___________ refers to negative attitudes that are based on sexual orientation, whether the target identifies as homosexual, bisexual, or heterosexual.

Answer 50

Sexual prejudice As defined by Herek (2004), sexual prejudice refers to negative attitudes that are based on perceived sexual orientation, regardless of the target's actual identified sexual orientation.

Question 51

A Chinese-American client tells you that he doesn't identify with either Chinese or White culture. In terms of Berry et al.'s (1987) model of acculturation, this client is best described as:

Answer 51

marginalized. According to Berry, a person is marginalized when he/she does not accept the characteristics of either culture (his/her own culture or the dominant culture).

Question 52

According to Cross's Black Racial Identity Development Model, an African American individual in the emersion substage of the immersion-emersion stage will exhibit which of the following?

Answer 52

Rejection of all aspects of White culture The most recent version of Cross's model (Cross and Vandiver, 2001) distinguishes between four stages of racial identity development: pre-encounter, encounter, immersion-emersion, and internalization. Race and racial identity have high salience during the immersion-emersion stage. A person in the immersion substage idealizes Blacks and Black culture and feels a great deal of rage toward Whites. A person in the emersion substage has less intense feelings but continues to reject all aspects of the White culture and begins to internalize a Black identity.

Question 53

Research has supported Helms's (1995) prediction that White therapists whose attitudes and beliefs are consistent with the ________ status are most effective when working with clients from racial/ethnic minority groups.

Answer 53

autonomy

Question 54

___________ refers to methods used to encourage healthy behaviors.

Answer 54

Health promotion Health promotion refers to methods that promote and encourage healthy behaviors, including advertisement and online education.

Question 55

Dr. Everett, a licensed psychologist, has recently started a practice in a small town. He learns from a mutual friend that Dr. Cohen (also a psychologist) has been revealing confidential information about some of her clients to members of the community. Dr. Everett should __________.

Answer 55

consult with a colleague about the situation. Ethical guidelines require psychologists to take some action in situations in which a fellow professional is believed to have acted unethically. However, a psychologist can choose from several alternatives when doing so. Of the answers given, this is the best one. If Dr. Everett felt comfortable with discussing the issue with Dr. Cohen, that would probably be the best course of action. Since this is not given as an alternative, consulting with a colleague is the best answer.

Question 56

The term "privilege" is:

Answer 56

a legal term referring to the protection of confidential information in legal proceedings.

Question 57

Sandy S. is considering filing a claim of sexual harassment against her boss, Bertrand B., because he frequently comments on her physical appearance by telling her how "great she looks" and often tells her that, "if I weren't your boss, I'd be chasing after you." Sandy decides to tell Bertrand that she finds his comments offensive and, when she does so, he apologizes and says he'll stop if that's what she wants. This situation:

Answer 57

does not represent a legal claim for sexual harassment as long as Bertrand actually stops making offensive comments.

Question 58

You have made an arrangement with another psychologist to exchange a nominal payment of $25.00 for referrals to each other. In terms of the requirements of the APA's Ethics Code, this is:

Answer 58

unethical if the payment of $25.00 is based on the referral only.

Question 59

A graduate student designed and conducted a research project for her dissertation and subsequently wrote a journal article describing the study and its results. The original idea for the study was derived from the work of the student's faculty advisor who also provided the facilities for the student's research and provided the student with some guidance while she conducted her study. The faculty advisor wants to be listed as first author on the article. In this situation:

Answer 59

the student should be listed as the first author and the advisor as the second author.

Question 60

Which of the following best describes the requirements of the APA's Ethics Code with regard to the use of animals in research?

Answer 60

Animals may be used as research subjects when they will be subjected to pain or stress but only when an alternative procedure is not available and the goal of the study is justified by its prospective value.

Question 61

You have just completed a research study but have not yet published its results. A colleague of yours who is familiar with your study requests the data you have collected. Which of the following best describes the requirements of the APA's Ethics Code with regard to this situation?

Answer 61

You are not required to comply with the colleague's request since the results of the study have not yet been published.

Question 62

Dr. Paula Pang is hired to perform a court-ordered evaluation of a defendant in a criminal case. After describing the purpose of the evaluation to the defendant, he says that he is not willing to cooperate. According to the APA's Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology, Dr. Pang should:

Answer 62

postpone the evaluation and inform the defendant that he should discuss this matter with his attorney.

Question 63

When hired as an expert witness by the attorney for a plaintiff in a criminal case, a psychologist:

Answer 63

should ordinarily avoid providing his/her services on the basis of contingent fees.

Question 64

You recently evaluated the defendant in a murder trial at the request of her attorney. The purpose of the evaluation was to support the defendant's claim that she was insane at the time she committed the crime. The case received a great deal of public attention and you would now like to write a book about it and include information about the results of your evaluation. According to the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology:

Answer 64

you may do so as long as the information you include in your book is in the public record or, if not, as long as you have obtained the consent of the defendant.

Question 65

To compare the impact of two or more interventions on patients' duration and quality of life, you would conduct which of the following types of cost analysis?

Answer 65

Cost-utility A cost-utility analysis is conducted to compare the effects of two or more treatments on duration and quality of life.

Question 66

Research by Lamb and Catanzaro (1998) on sexual misconduct by psychotherapists found that:

Answer 66

therapists who had sex with their clients were more likely than those who did not to have been involved in nonsexual dual relationships with clients.

Question 67

In the context of performance assessment, "critical incidents" are best described as:

Answer 67

behaviors that clearly contribute to successful and unsuccessful job performance. Critical incidents are descriptions of specific job behaviors that define successful and unsuccessful job performance. When used in performance appraisal instruments, critical incidents are the "anchors" in a graphic rating scale or the statements included in a checklist.

Question 68

Frame-of-reference training is used to:

Answer 68

improve the ability of raters to assign accurate performance ratings to employees. Frame-of-reference (FOR) training is a type of rater training that is used to increase rater accuracy by helping raters recognize what constitutes effective and ineffective job performance.

Question 69

When using the Critical Incident Technique, critical incidents are ordinarily identified by:

Answer 69

the supervisor who observes an employee while he/she works. The Critical Incident Technique (CIT) is a method of performance appraisal. As originally described, the CIT involves having the supervisor observe an employee and record specific behaviors associated with effective and ineffective job performance. These behaviors (critical incidents) are then compiled into a checklist that is used to evaluate the performance of employees performing the same job.

Question 70

"Criterion contamination" is a concern when:

Answer 70

the measure of performance is subjectively scored. Subjectively scored criterion measures are susceptible to biases, including criterion contamination. Criterion contamination occurs when a rater's knowledge of a person's performance biases how he/she rates the person on the criterion. When criterion contamination occurs, the criterion may not be providing accurate information.

Question 71

Which of the following techniques would be most useful for combining test scores when superior performance on one test can compensate for poor performance on another test?

Answer 71

Multiple regression Multiple regression is a compensatory technique for combining test scores. When using this technique, a low score on one test can be offset (compensated for) by a high score on another test.

Question 72

Of the "Big Five" personality traits, which has been found to be most predictive of job performance across different jobs and job settings?

Answer 72

Conscientiousness

Question 73

Meta-analyses conducted in the past 10 to 20 years suggest that, across jobs and organizations, the best predictor of job performance is:

Answer 73

general mental ability tests.

Question 74

The personnel director where you work is reluctant to use the selection test you've developed because its validity coefficient is only .35. Your best argument for using this test is that:

Answer 74

the selection ratio is 1:50 A predictor's incremental validity (decision-making accuracy) is affected by its validity coefficient, the selection ratio, and the base rate. A predictor with a low validity coefficient can improve decision-making accuracy when the selection ratio is low (e.g., 1:50) and the base rate is moderate (around .50).

Question 75

One disadvantage of empirically-derived Biographical Information Blanks (BIBs) is that they may contain items that:

Answer 75

lack face validity. Biographical Information Blanks (BIBs) are a type of empirically-derived form that consists of multiple-choice items that address biographical information that has been linked to job performance. A disadvantage of BIBs and other empirically-derived forms is that their items often lack face validity—i.e., even though they address information that has been linked to job performance, they may not "look like" they are clearly linked to performance. As a result, applicants may feel that the form is asking for irrelevant information and that their privacy is being invaded.

Question 76

In an organization, a formative evaluation is conducted:

Answer 76

during the development of a training program to identify ways to improve it. In the evaluation literature, a distinction is made between formative and summative evaluation. As its name suggests, a formative evaluation is conducted while a training program or other intervention is being "formed" (developed) and is used to determine if it needs to be modified in order to meet its goals.

Question 77

A psychologist relying on Bandura's social cognitive theory would most likely recommend which of the following training approaches?

Answer 77

Behavioral modeling Bandura proposed that people learn by watching others and, consequently, would agree that behavioral modeling is a useful training strategy.

Question 78

As an organizational psychologist, you would conduct a needs analysis in order to:

Answer 78

determine if employee training would resolve a company's production problems. An initial goal of needs analysis is to determine whether or not production problems are actually due to deficiencies on the part of workers and, therefore, whether or not training would be an effective solution to those problems.

Question 79

Vestibule training is useful:

Answer 79

when errors that might occur during on-the-job training would be too costly or dangerous. Vestibule training is an off-the-job technique that uses a physical simulation of the job environment and equipment and is useful when on-the-job training would be too costly or dangerous.

Question 80

An organizational psychologist will most likely apply the concept of "identical elements" originally proposed by Thorndike and Woodworth (1901) to which of the following?

Answer 80

Employee training According to Thorndike and Woodworth (1901), transfer of training is maximized when there are identical elements (similarities) in the learning and performance settings. Research on Thorndike and Woodworth's theory has supported the importance of providing identical elements for transfer of training.

Question 81

According to Holland's RIASEC model, which personality type is best suited as an accountant?

Answer 81

Conventional

Question 82

According to Dawis and Lofquist's (1984) Theory of Work Adjustment, job satisfaction depends most on which of the following?

Answer 82

The degree to which the characteristics of the job correspond to the worker's needs and values Dawis and Lofquist's (1984) Theory of Work Adjustment is a person-environment fit theory of career development that provides a model for conceptualizing the interactions between a worker and his/her job. According to this theory, a worker's satisfaction is one of the factors that contribute to job tenure and other job outcomes, and it depends on the degree to which the job fulfills or matches the worker's needs and values.

Question 83

According to Donald Super, job satisfaction, stability, and success depend on the extent to which a job matches the individual's:

Answer 83

self-concept. Super identified the self-concept as being the result of inherited aptitudes, physical makeup, and social learning experiences. He proposed that job satisfaction, stability, and success depend on the extent to which the job matches the individual's self-concept.

Question 84

Tiedeman and O'Hara's approach to career development:

Answer 84

views career development as an aspect of ego identity development. Tiedeman and O'Hara's theory is one of the career development theories that you're likely to encounter on a licensing exam. Tiedeman and O'Hara link career identity development to Erikson's stages of ego identity (personality) development.

Question 85

According to Holland, the optimal situation is for the job environment to match the person's:

Answer 85

personality.

Question 86

From the perspective of Herzberg's two-factor theory, the relationship between pay and motivation is best described by which of the following?

Answer 86

Pay does not act as a motivator. Herzberg's two-factor theory proposes that all people have two basic needs - hygiene needs and motivator needs. Herzberg's two-factor theory identifies pay as a hygiene factor. Like other hygiene factors, pay leads to dissatisfaction when it is perceived to be inadequate but produces a state of neutrality when it is adequate. To increase motivation (and satisfaction), motivator factors must be provided by the job.

Question 87

For an advocate of expectancy theory, "instrumentality" refers to:

Answer 87

the relationship between performance and outcomes. Expectancy theory links worker motivation to three factors—expectancy, instrumentality, and valence. Instrumentality refers to the belief that successful performance will lead to positive outcomes (rewards).

Question 88

Locke's goal-setting theory makes which of the following predictions about production goals?

Answer 88

Moderately difficult goals produce higher levels of performance than very difficult goals.

Question 89

A manager with a "Theory X" management philosophy would be most likely to say that her role as a manager:

Answer 89

is to direct and control employees in order to achieve organizational goals. For the exam, you want to be familiar with the distinction between McGregor's Theory X and Theory Y managers. As defined by McGregor, a Theory X manager believes that employees don't like to work and must be closely supervised and provided with incentives for good performance.

Question 90

Many of the employees working on the assembly line at a large auto manufacturing plant have very low levels of job motivation and satisfaction. Their new supervisor, who is familiar with Herzberg's work, is most likely to recommend that:

Answer 90

all employees be given more individual responsibility and autonomy.

Question 91

A colleague tells you that she is designing a study to determine the correlates of job satisfaction. Based on your knowledge of the existing research on this issue, you tell her that job satisfaction has the strongest correlation with:

Answer 91

turnover.

Question 92

Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership model proposes that the most effective leadership style:

Answer 92

depends on the maturity of the worker. Hersey and Blanchard's (1974) situational leadership model identifies four different leadership styles and proposes that the optimal one depends on certain characteristics of the worker. According to this model, the most effective leader is one who matches his/her leadership style to the worker's job maturity, which is determined by the worker's motivation and ability.

Question 93

A transformational leader is most likely to use which of the following to motivate employees?

Answer 93

Framing Transformational leaders are able to recognize the need for change, create a vision that guides that change, and accomplish the change directly. Transformational leaders use framing to motivate employees, which involves describing an organization's goals and activities in ways that make them meaningful to employees.

Question 94

If you are using a decision tree to determine which leadership style to adopt (e.g., autocratic, consultative, or group), you are relying on the work of:

Answer 94

Vroom, Yetton, and Jago. The Vroom-Yetton-Jago (1988; 2017) model distinguishes between autocratic, consultative, and group decision-making leader styles and proposes that the best one depends on certain characteristics of the situation including time constraints, the importance of subordinate commitment to the decision, and the structure of the task. The model includes a decision-tree to help leaders choose the optimal style for their situation.

Question 95

To gain "idiosyncrasy credits," you would:

Answer 95

consistently conform to group norms. Idiosyncrasy credits allow a group members to occasionally deviate from group norms. Methods for accumulating idiosyncrasy credits include having a history of conforming to group norms, being the group leader, and making outstanding contributions to the group.

Question 96

According to Herbert Simon, decision-making in organizations is often affected by:

Answer 96

bounded rationality. Simon (1979) distinguished between two types of individual decision-making--rational-economic and bounded rationality. According to Simon, decision-makers are sometimes less than totally rational due to limitations related to abilities, time, and resources. He referred to this type of decision-making as bounded rationality.

Question 97

Social loafing is most likely to occur when:

Answer 97

the group is large and the task is additive. Social loafing occurs when a person exerts less effort as a group member than he/she would have exerted if working alone. Social loafing is most likely to occur when the group is large and the task is additive, probably because this situation allows the person to conceal his/her actual contribution to the group.

Question 98

Heterogeneity of team members is:

Answer 98

associated with greater creativity and better decision-making.

Question 99

__________ assessments are used when organizational development is desired, and _________ assessments collect individual data.

Answer 99

Self; personnel Self-assessments are utilized to direct organizational development, and are most effective when stakeholders are involved. Personnel assessments collect individual data, which may include records, biographical data, test results, and work samples.

Question 100

A process consultant is most likely to focus on which of the following?

Answer 100

Communication, decision-making, and conflict resolution Process consultation is a type of organizational development intervention that focuses on helping members of a work group understand the processes (behaviors) that are undermining their interactions with one another. Process consultants observe group members in action and help them identify and rectify problems related to communication patterns, decision-making, and conflict resolution.

Question 101

A process consultant initially:

Answer 101

observes workers as they interact.

Question 102

Having employees meet in groups to discuss alternative ways of accomplishing change is an example of which of the following strategies?

Answer 102

Normative-reeducative As its name implies, the normative-reeducative strategy is based on the assumption that peer pressure and sociocultural norms are potent forces of change.

Question 103

According to Schein (1992), organizational culture can be described in terms of three levels. The deepest level consists of basic underlying assumptions that can serve as:

Answer 103

cognitive defense mechanisms.

Question 104

In their meta-analysis of the research, Baltes et al. (1999) found that the compressed workweek is most associated with which of the following?

Answer 104

Improved employee attitudes

Question 105

Which of the following individuals is at highest risk for a stress-related illness?

Answer 105

An assembly-line worker whose work is machine-paced Research has found that some jobs are consistently associated with higher levels of stress than other jobs. The research has found that a lack of control over the pace of one's work is one of the greatest contributors to job-related stress.

Question 106

A psychologist conducting research on the effects of the graveyard shift is most likely to find that adverse consequences are lowest among workers who:

Answer 106

voluntarily choose to work the graveyard shift. Companies that operate 24 hours a day ordinarily divide the day into three shifts—regular, swing, and graveyard. The research has found that the negative outcomes associated with the graveyard shift are usually alleviated when the worker has voluntarily chosen that shift. The freedom to choose is important: employees who choose to work the night shift report fewer physical and psychological problems than those who are assigned to that shift.

Question 107

Research by Duxbury and Higgins (1991) on work-family conflict found that:

Answer 107

men experience more conflicts due to work expectations, while women experience more conflicts due to family expectations.

Question 108

Dr. Daniel Daggett presents Stimulus A along with a loud noise so that, eventually, a participant in his study reacts with a startle reaction whenever Stimulus A is presented alone. Dr. Daggett then pairs Stimulus B with Stimulus A so that Stimulus B also elicits a startle reaction when presented alone. This procedure is an example of:

Answer 108

higher-order conditioning

Question 109

Rescorla and Wagner (1972) contend that "blocking" occurs because:

Answer 109

the second neutral stimulus does not provide new information about the US

Question 110

In one series of studies, Pavlov conditioned dogs to salivate in response to a black square but not in response to a light grey square. Subsequently, when the dogs were shown a medium grey square, they exhibited which of the following?

Answer 110

Experimental neurosis This question describes trials that require dogs to make difficult stimulus discriminations. Pavlov found that difficult stimulus discriminations produced experimental neurosis: uncharacteristic behaviors that included extreme restlessness, agitation, and unprovoked aggression.

Question 111

To reduce a client's cigarette smoking, the client is exposed to several treatment sessions in which stale cigarette smoke is blown into his face soon after he begins to smoke a cigarette and this continues until he stops smoking. The smoke begins to make the client feel nauseous whenever it is blown into their face. Eventually, the client feels nauseous whenever he even thinks about smoking. In this situation, the stale cigarette smoke has acted as:

Answer 111

an unconditioned stimulus In this situation, two stimuli are being "paired" in order to change the response that is elicited by one of the stimuli. The stale cigarette smoke naturally elicits nausea, so it is the unconditioned stimulus.

Question 112

In vivo exposure with response prevention (flooding) and implosive therapy are both based on:

Answer 112

classical extinction Classical extinction is used to extinguish (eliminate) a conditioned response (CR) and involves presenting the conditioned stimulus (CS) without the unconditioned stimulus (US). Flooding and implosive therapy both involve exposing an individual to the CS without the US.

Question 113

Classical extinction occurs when:

Answer 113

the CS is repeatedly presented alone

Question 114

Studies using the dismantling strategy suggest that which of the following is most responsible for the therapeutic benefits of systematic desensitization?

Answer 114

Exposure to feared stimulus

Question 115

When using covert sensitization:

Answer 115

the CS and US are presented in imagination Covert sensitization is a type of aversive counterconditioning. When using covert sensitization, the conditioned stimulus (CS) and unconditioned stimulus (US) are presented in imagination rather than in vivo (reality).

Question 116

Which of the following treatments combines exposure to a feared stimulus with a psychodynamic interpretation of the fear?

Answer 116

Implosive therapy Implosive therapy combines classical extinction with psychodynamic interpretation. It is often used to treat phobias and to eliminate self-reinforcing behaviors.

Question 117

A mother finds that, when she yells at her son, the boy stops picking on his little sister for a brief period of time. Over time, the mother finds that she has to yell more and more frequently at the boy to get him to leave his sister alone. The boy is influencing his mother's behavior (yelling) through:

Answer 117

negative reinforcement The mother's yelling is increasing, which means that it is being reinforced. It is being reinforced by the removal of her son's undesirable behavior, which means that it is being negatively reinforced.

Question 118

A "scallop" in the cumulative recording is characteristic of which schedule of reinforcement?

Answer 118

Fixed interval On a fixed interval (FI) schedule, the subject stops responding once the reinforcement is delivered and then begins responding again toward the end of the interval. This produces a "scallop" in the cumulative recording.

Question 119

Escape conditioning becomes avoidance conditioning when:

Answer 119

a signal is provided that indicates that an aversive stimulus is about to be delivered

Question 120

In the context of stimulus control, a positive discriminative stimulus:

Answer 120

signals that a behavior will be reinforced

Question 121

A teacher uses verbal reprimands whenever students in his class misbehave in order to reduce their misbehavior. If the reprimands have the desired effect, they are acting as which of the following?

Answer 121

Positive punishment Verbal reprimands are used to reduce an undesirable behavior. They are a form of positive punishment because verbal reprimands involve the application of a stimulus following a behavior to reduce the behavior.

Question 122

According to the __________, the relative frequency of responding to an alternative corresponds to the frequency of reinforcement for responding to that alternative.

Answer 122

matching law The statement in the question defines the matching law (Herrnstein, 1970), which states that the frequency of responding to two or more alternatives (e.g., pressing two or more levers) matches the frequency of being reinforced for doing so. In other words, the frequency of responding matches the frequency of reinforcement.

Question 123

A mother has been giving her 3-year-old son a hug whenever he says "please" following a request. She decides to stop reinforcing her son in this way. Right after she stops hugging her son, she can expect that the frequency with which he says "please" will:

Answer 123

temporarily increase When reinforcement for a previously reinforced response is removed, there is often a temporary "extinction burst" (increase in response) before it begins to decrease.

Question 124

During the initial stages of a behavior change intervention, verbal or nonverbal prompts may be needed to evoke the desired behavior. However, after the behavior is established, the prompts should be gradually removed. The gradual removal of prompts is referred to as:

Answer 124

fading

Question 125

An operant technique in which all opportunities for positive reinforcement are made unavailable for a specified period of time following the performance of an undesirable behavior in order to reduce that behavior is known as:

Answer 125

time-out

Question 126

A chimpanzee pushes a button to turn on a tone. Once the tone sounds, the chimpanzee pulls a lever to turn on a green light. Once the green light is on, the chimpanzee slides a door open to obtain a treat. Which of the following techniques was used to teach this sequence of behaviors to the chimpanzee?

Answer 126

Chaining Chaining is used to establish a complex sequence of behaviors (i.e., a "behavioral chain") like the one described in this question.

Question 127

Differential reinforcement is best conceptualized as which of the following?

Answer 127

A combination of extinction and positive reinforcement Differential reinforcement combines positive reinforcement with extinction and involves reinforcing alternative behaviors while ignoring the target behavior. In other words, desirable behaviors are positively reinforced while the target behavior is extinguished.

Question 128

The technique known as "overcorrection" consists of

Answer 128

restitution, positive practice, and physical guidance Overcorrection is usually classified as a type of positive punishment and involves applying a penalty following an undesirable behavior in order to eliminate it. It involves having individuals correct the consequences of their behavior (restitution) and practice corrective behaviors (positive practice). It also involves physical guidance.

Question 129

In a token economy, the tokens are:

Answer 129

generalized secondary reinforcers

Question 130

A researcher designs a study to investigate college students' expectations regarding their ability to master a new skill, achieve a particular goal, or produce a particular outcome. Apparently, this researcher is interested in which of the following phenomena?

Answer 130

Self-efficacy Bandura used the term self-efficacy to refer to an individual's beliefs or expectations regarding his/her ability to perform specific behaviors. For example, a person has high self-efficacy beliefs when she believes that she has the knowledge or skills necessary to successfully complete a particular task. Of the phenomena listed in the answers, self-efficacy best describes the researcher's interest.

Question 131

Bandura's notion of reciprocal determinism is useful for explaining:

Answer 131

how the individual and his/her environment influence each other As defined by Bandura, reciprocal determinism refers to the interactions between a person's characteristics, the person's behavior, and the environment. Bandura rejected the behavioral view of the environment as a one-way determinant of behavior and proposed that there is a reciprocal (influential and interactive) relationship between the person's cognitive, affective, and other characteristics, the person's behavior, and the environment.

Question 132

Kohler's (1925) research with chimpanzees led to his description of which of the following?

Answer 132

Insight learning Kohler proposed that learning can be the result of insight (an "aha" experience) that reflects an internal cognitive restructuring of the environment that allows the organism to achieve its goals.

Question 133

Tolman used the notion of "cognitive maps" as support for which of the following?

Answer 133

Latent learning Tolman's notion of cognitive maps was derived from his research in which rats were allowed to explore a maze without being reinforced for doing so. The results indicated that the animals had learned something about the maze; that is, they had formed cognitive maps. This led Tolman to conclude that learning can occur without apparent changes or improvements in behavior and referred to this as latent learning.

Question 134

Tolman's notion of cognitive maps was derived from his research in which rats were allowed to explore a maze without being reinforced for doing so. The results indicated that the animals had learned something about the maze; that is, they had formed cognitive maps. This led Tolman to conclude that learning can occur without apparent changes or improvements in behavior and referred to this as latent learning.

Answer 134

Participant modeling Bandura found that participant modeling (observing a model followed by guided participation) was the most effective method for eliminating phobic reactions.

Question 135

Rehm's self-control therapy focuses on which of the following?

Answer 135

Self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement

Question 136

The notion of "collaborative empiricism" is associated with:

Answer 136

Beck

Question 137

Cognitive preparation, skills acquisition, and application and follow-through are the three overlapping phases of which of the following strategies?

Answer 137

Stress inoculation Stress inoculation was designed to help people deal effectively with stress by enhancing their coping skills. It consists of the three phases listed in this question (cognitive preparation, skills acquisition, and application and follow-through).

Question 138

Biofeedback is more effective than relaxation training for which of the following?

Answer 138

Raynaud's disease

Question 139

Sensory memory:

Answer 139

holds a large amount of sensory data for a brief period

Question 140

Echoic is to iconic as:

Answer 140

auditory is to visual

Question 141

Craik and Lockhart's (1972) levels-of-processing model:

Answer 141

implies that elaborative rehearsal is more effective than maintenance rehearsal As its name suggests, the levels-of-processing model assumes that memory for information is affected by the depth of processing that information. The model distinguishes between three levels: structural, phonemic, and semantic. The deepest and most effective level is the semantic ("meaning") level, and elaborative rehearsal involves encoding information at the semantic level. Maintenance rehearsal involves the repetition of information with little or no processing; thus, elaborative rehearsal is more effective than maintenance rehearsal due the depth of encoding at the semantic level.

Question 142

A person with deficits in prospective memory will have trouble:

Answer 142

remembering a future meeting with a co-worker Prospective memory refers to the ability to remember to perform an action in the future. A person with deficits in prospective memory would have trouble remembering a future meeting or appointment.

Question 143

In high school, Stuart S. took Spanish for four years and, as a result, became a pretty good speaker of Spanish. During his first year of college, Stuart took French and, at the end of the year, he found that he had trouble remembering many Spanish words. This is best explained by which of the following?

Answer 143

Retroactive interference Retroactive interference occurs when something learned in the present interferes with the ability to recall something learned in the past.

Question 144

As conceptualized in Baddeley and Hitch's (1974) multi-component model of working memory, the ________ is responsible for directing attention to relevant sensory information.

Answer 144

central executive

Question 145

A research participant remembers a list of unrelated words by envisioning each item in a different location in her living room while memorizing and then recalling the list (e.g., one item on the TV, one under the coffee table, one on the chair). This is referred to as:

Answer 145

the method of loci The method of loci ("method of places") is a mnemonic device that makes use of visual imagery. This method involves visually associating items to be remembered with a series of places (loci) already in memory.

Question 146

Treisman and Gelade’s research (1980) provided information about:

Answer 146

feature-integration theory According to Treisman and Gelade’s (1980) feature-integration theory, the initial processing of visual information involves two stages: the initial preattentive stage and the attentive stage. According to Treisman and Gelade, once an object has been correctly integrated, it ordinarily continues to be perceived and stored in memory as a unitary object. However, over time, “the features may disintegrate and ‘free float’ once more, or perhaps recombine to form ‘illusory conjunctions’” (p. 99) as the result of memory decay or interference.

Question 147

Studies on the "serial position effect" have provided information on:

Answer 147

primacy and recency effects The serial position effect is the tendency to recall items at the beginning and end of a list better than items in the middle of a list. Enhanced recall of items at the beginning of the list is referred to as the primacy effect, while enhanced recall of items at the end of a list is called the recency effect.

Question 148

Rutter (1985) studied the risk and protective factors that are associated with child psychopathology. His research found that which of the following places a child at greatest risk for behavioral problems?

Answer 148

An accumulation of several risk factors Rutter argued that the greater the number of risk factors a baby is exposed to, the greater the risk for negative outcomes. He concluded that the following six family risk factors are particularly accurate predictors of child psychopathology: severe marital discord, low socioeconomic status, overcrowding or large family size, parental criminality, maternal psychopathology, and the placement of a child outside the home.

Question 149

____________ during prenatal development is associated with miscarriage, stillbirth, and low birth weight and may result in suppression of the immune system, intellectual disability, and other serious problems.

Answer 149

Malnutrition

Question 150

A developmental psychologist investigating the influence of Bronfenbrenner's mesosystem on child development will focus on:

Answer 150

the interaction of two or more systems in the child's life he mesosystem is a combination of two or more microsystems

Question 151

During a "critical period:"

Answer 151

certain biological or behavioral characteristics require appropriate exposure or stimulation in order to develop.

Question 152

The symptoms of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS):

Answer 152

are irreversible and persist into adulthood.

Question 153

Which of the following is useful for preventing the severe intellectual disability that can accompany phenylketonuria (PKU)?

Answer 153

Diet management A low-protein diet is the main treatment for phenylketonuria (PKU). This is because people who have PKU lack an enzyme to properly process the amino acid phenylalanine, a part of protein. Phenylalanine is present in all protein foods and in some nonprotein foods, such as soda and artificial sweeteners. The neural and intellectual effects are the result of these metabolic issues.

Question 154

As people age they:

Answer 154

experience an increase in reaction time

Question 155

The best conclusion that can be drawn from research on neurogenesis in the human brain is that:

Answer 155

it continues in a limited form throughout life. Neurogenesis is the process by which nervous system cells, the neurons, are produced by neural stem cells. This is a critical process in early brain development and appears to continue in some regions throughout life.

Question 156

Which of the following best describes the results of research on the consequences of early physical maturation for adolescents?

Answer 156

It may have positive social consequences for boys, but negative consequences for girls. For boys, there may be positive social effects, including increased popularity, although the overall result is mixed as there is a higher risk of negative self-image and substance use. Early maturation is associated with a number of negative consequences for girls, especially during the early adolescent years. Early-maturing girls tend to have a poor self-concept, be unpopular with peers, be dissatisfied with their physical development, have low academic achievement, be more likely to engage in sexually precocious behavior and drug and alcohol use, and be at increased risk for developing depression or an eating disorder.

Question 157

Most infants can be expected to take their first steps alone at about ____ months of age.

Answer 157

12 Most children walk with help at about 10-11 months and take their first independent steps at about 12 months.

Question 158

Results of the recent National Survey on Drug Use and Health found that adolescents are MOST likely to say they have used which of the following in the past month?

Answer 158

Alcohol

Question 159

The visual cues an infant uses to perceive depth arise in a predictable sequence. Which cue is the last to develop?

Answer 159

Pictorial The sequence of sensitivity to depth cues is: kinetic, binocular, and pictorial.

Question 160

According to Piaget, the source of motivation for cognitive development is:

Answer 160

intrinsic development Piaget's theory is based on the idea of an intrinsic development of stages of cognitive ability.

Question 161

As described by Vygotsky, __________ is a temporary aid provided by one person (the "teacher") to encourage, support, and assist a lesser-skilled person (the "learner") in acquiring a skill or solving a problem.

Answer 161

scaffolding Scaffolding is a process in which learners complete small, manageable steps in order to reach the goal. Working in collaboration with a skilled instructor or more knowledgeable peers helps students make connections between concepts.

Question 162

As defined by Piaget, assimilation involves:

Answer 162

incorporating new knowledge into existing schemas As defined by Piaget, assimilation occurs when we modify or change new information to fit into our schemas (what we already know).

Question 163

According to Piaget, centration, or the tendency to focus on only one aspect of a situation or object while ignoring all others, is characteristic of the _________ stage.

Answer 163

pre-operational In the pre-operational stage, centration occurs in which there is a focus on one element of a situation at the neglect of other, possibly relevant aspects.

Question 164

In response to your concerns about the potential consequences of his recent risk-taking behaviors, a 16-year-old says, "Don't worry, that can't happen to me." According to Elkind, this is a manifestation of which of the following?

Answer 164

Adolescent egocentricism

Question 165

Which of the following best describes changes in memory that are associated with age progression?

Answer 165

Reduced processing efficiency Declines in processing efficiency are characteristic of aging, starting in midlife.

Question 166

Studies have found that when older adults are asked to recall personal events from their lives, they often exhibit a "reminiscence bump." A recent explanation for this phenomenon is that it is due to which of the following?

Answer 166

The significant life changes that are most memorable. The reminiscence bump occurs because memory storage in autobiographical memory is not consistent through time. Rather, memory storage increases during times of changes in the self and in life goals, such as the changes in identity that occur during adolescence.

Question 167

The understanding that another person’s thoughts may be false (inaccurate) and that people may act on their false beliefs. usually occurs between the ages of:

Answer 167

4-5 Theory of mind (ToM) refers to “the ability to make inferences about another’s representational states and to predict behavior accordingly” (Lewis & Mitchell, 2014, p. 2). Four- and five-year old's understand that another person’s thoughts may be false (inaccurate) and that people may act on their false beliefs.

Question 168

Researchers have found that newborns exhibit three types of cries -- the hungry (basic) cry, the angry cry, and the pain cry. They have also found that, by _____ months of age, most infants begin to emit a "fussy" or irregular cry.

Answer 168

2

Question 169

For most children, babbling narrows to the sounds of the child's native language between _____ months of age.

Answer 169

9-14

Question 170

Which of the following is an example of a morpheme:

Answer 170

un

Question 171

Research on bilingualism suggests that it:

Answer 171

does not have negative effects on overall language ability. Although some specific differences between bilingual and monolingual children have been found, they appear to be generally equivalent in terms of total vocabulary and fluency of language skills.

Question 172

A young child’s ability to narrow the possible meaning of new words is known as which of the following?

Answer 172

syntactic bootstrapping According to Gletman (1990), syntactic bootstrapping refers to a child’s use of grammatical contextual knowledge to learn the meaning of new words. This process is what helps children narrow the possible meaning of words.

Question 173

Carol Gilligan (1991) considers adolescence to be a particularly critical period for girls because it involves a conflict between:

Answer 173

self and culture Gilligan considers adolescence to be a critical period for females as they feel external pressure to fit cultural stereotypes, causing them to suppress their expressions of identity.

Question 174

Kohlberg's cognitive-developmental theory identifies which of the following as the initial stage of gender-role acquisition?

Answer 174

Gender identity Gender identity is the first of Kohlberg's stages of gender acquisition, which occurs at about age 2.

Question 175

Thomas and Chess (1977) proposed that maladjustment in children is traceable to:

Answer 175

temperament Thomas and Chess proposed 3 basic clusters of temperament. The Easy Child is generally in a positive mood, quickly establishing regular routines in infancy and adapts easily to new experiences. The Difficult Child tends to react negatively and cry frequently, engaging in irregular daily routines and is slow to accept new experiences. The Slow to Warm Up Child has a low activity level, is somewhat negative, shows low adaptability and displays a low intensity of mood.

Question 176

According to Erikson, a desirable outcome of the final stage of psychosocial development is which of the following?

Answer 176

Coming to terms with one's life. Ego integrity versus despair is the final of Erikson's stages. In this stage, people reflect back on the life they have lived and come away with either a sense of fulfillment from a life well lived or a sense of regret and despair over a life misspent. Erikson's stages are: Trust vs. Mistrust, Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt, Initiative vs. Guilt, Industry vs. Inferiority, Identity vs. Confusion, Intimacy vs. Isolation, Generativity vs. Stagnation, and Ego Integrity vs. Despair.

Question 177

A 9-year-old is irritable, aggressive, dependent, low in achievement orientation and self-esteem, and has a limited sense of responsibility. Based on this information, you can conclude that his parents are:

Answer 177

authoritarian

Question 178

As described by Marcia (1987), an adolescent experiencing "foreclosure" will be most likely to say which of the following about her career goals?

Answer 178

I'm going to follow my mother into her business. The foreclosure status is when a commitment is made without exploring alternatives. Often these commitments are based on parental ideas and beliefs that are accepted without question. Marcia stressed that once an identity crisis has been experienced, returning to the foreclosure status was no longer a possibility.

Question 179

According to Kubler-Ross (1969), a person's initial reaction to learning that he or she has a life-threatening illness is most likely to be which of the following?

Answer 179

Denial The five stages of grief model (or the Kubler-Ross model) postulates that those experiencing grief go through a series of five emotions: denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance.

Question 180

It is not until the age of ___ that most children understand that when the "bad guy" is shot on television, he has not truly died in real life.

Answer 180

10 By age 10, most children have developed an understanding of death.

Question 181

A baby with insecure/avoidant attachment:

Answer 181

shows little distress when separated from his/her mother and turns away from her when she returns. In Ainsworth's "strange situation," insecure/avoidant children are uninterested in exploration, show little distress when separated from their mothers, and avoid her when she returns.

Question 182

At approximately ____ months of age, babies begin to show outward signs of jealousy, empathy, and embarrassment.

Answer 182

18

Question 183

f you are developing an intervention to reduce aggressiveness in children and you are basing it on the work of G. R. Patterson and his colleagues (1992), a primary component of the intervention will be:

Answer 183

training parents in effective child management skills Patterson was interested in the relationship between parents and children, and how this related to aggressive behavior. Training parents in behavioral management skills would be a central focus of such an intervention.

Question 184

A child in Piaget's autonomous stage of moral development will base his judgment of whether an act is "right" or "wrong" primarily on:

Answer 184

intentions Piaget proposed a sequence of moral development involving three stages: premoral, moral realism, and moral relativism. During the autonomous stage, moral relativism is the basis of judgment. Children in this stage view rules as arbitrary and as being alterable when the people who are governed by them agree to change them. When judging an act, they focus more on the intention of the actor than on the act's consequences.

Question 185

During Kohlberg's postconventional stage, moral judgments are based on:

Answer 185

either consensus or universal principles In Kohlberg's post-conventional stage, decisions are based either on democratically determined or by universal rules of morality.

Question 186

Harlow's research with rhesus monkeys concluded that a baby’s attachment to his or her mother is due, in part, to _______________.

Answer 186

contact comfort

Question 187

hich of the following statements about adolescent adjustment in divorced families is true?

Answer 187

Variables associated with adolescent post-divorce adjustment include both dyadic and broader social factors.

Question 188

Tyrone and Tyree are 6-year-old twins. They attended daycare from the time they were two years old. In comparison to children who have not received care outside the home, you would expect Tyrone and Tyree to:

Answer 188

be more advanced in language development and aggressive behavior.

Question 189

Which of the following is most likely to be an accurate description of the relationship between two sisters, ages 12 and 14?

Answer 189

Close and conflictual The research indicates that sibling relationships often involve contradictions, but the combination of closeness and conflict seems to be particularly characteristic of siblings during preadolescence and may be especially intense for those of the same gender who are close in age.

Question 190

According to Carstensen's (1993) socioemotional selectivity theory, most older adults prefer social relationships:

Answer 190

that are limited in number but have a high degree of closeness. Carstensen's theory suggests that as time is perceived as more limited, relations tend to be fewer, deeper, and less varied.

Question 191

Intense narcoleptic "sleep attacks" are often accompanied by:

Answer 191

cataplexy Narcolepsy involves frequent intense periods of irresistible sleep. Narcolepsy sleep attacks may include cataplexy, which is a sudden loss of muscle tone.

Question 192

Symptoms of Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder may be comorbid with other mental health disorders. However, this diagnosis cannot coexist with:

Answer 192

Oppositional Defiant Disorder, Intermittent Explosive Disorder, or Bipolar Disorder

Question 193

Dysphoria, vivid and frightening dreams, insomnia or hypersomnia, fatigue, psychomotor agitation or retardation, and increased appetite are most suggestive of __________ Withdrawal.

Answer 193

Stimulant

Question 194

It is often difficult to distinguish between delirium, dementia (major neurocognitive disorder), and depression in older adults. However, the presence of which of the following suggests that delirium is the appropriate diagnosis?

Answer 194

A disturbance in attention and awareness

Question 195

The primary advantage of the DSM's use of polythetic criteria sets is that this approach:

Answer 195

reflects the heterogeneity of symptoms characteristic of many diagnoses

Question 196

One of the earliest signs of Alzheimer's disease is:

Answer 196

impaired recent memory Alzheimer's disease involves a relatively predictable progression of symptoms, with impairment of recent memory (anterograde amnesia) often being one of the first signs reported by relatives or clinical observers of patients with this diagnosis.

Question 197

Which of the following is likely to be the most effective treatment for a client with Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD)?

Answer 197

Psychoeducation, relaxation training, and cognitive therapy

Question 198

The assessment of patients with Alzheimer's disease is an ongoing process due to its degenerative nature and the consequent need to alter the treatment plan. During the fourth or fifth year of the disease, an assessment is most likely to reveal:

Answer 198

impairments in recent and remote memory, delusions, fluent aphasia, and restlessness

Question 199

Alan A., age 10, and his parents are referred to you by Alan's pediatrician. Based on your interview with Alan's parents, you determine that the boy's behavior at home is consistent with a diagnosis of Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). To confirm this diagnosis, you would most likely:

Answer 199

contact Alan's teacher to discuss the nature of his behavior at school The diagnosis of ADHD requires the presence of symptoms of inattention and/or hyperactivity-impulsivity in at least two settings. Talking to Alan's teacher would determine if he exhibits signs of this disorder at school.

Question 200

A diagnosis of Vascular Neurocognitive Disorder requires:

Answer 200

evidence of cerebrovascular disease

Question 201

Abnormal melatonin levels have been linked to which of the following?

Answer 201

Seasonal Affective Disorder

Question 202

When developing a treatment plan for an 11-year-old with Conduct Disorder, you will most likely include which of the following interventions?

Answer 202

Parent management training

Question 203

Which of the following paraphilias is characterized by intense sexually arousing fantasies, sexual urges, or behaviors that involve touching or rubbing against a nonconsenting person?

Answer 203

Frotteuristic Disorder

Question 204

The primary feature that distinguishes Acute Stress Disorder from Posttraumatic Stress Disorder is:

Answer 204

the shorter duration of symptoms in the former disorder

Question 205

Longitudinal studies have found that the symptoms of Borderline Personality Disorder tend to be most severe during the:

Answer 205

early adult years

Question 206

Tobacco Withdrawal is characterized by which of the following symptoms?

Answer 206

Depressed mood, insomnia, and increased appetite

Question 207

Which of the following would be most useful for monitoring the progression of Alzheimer's disease?

Answer 207

Cognitive tests

Question 208

Sleep terror episodes:

Answer 208

result in a panicky scream

Question 209

Electroconvulsive shock therapy (ECT):

Answer 209

is considered useful for treating depression that involves suicidal preoccupation

Question 210

Brittany S., age 34, is often very irritable with family members and friends, has trouble controlling her anger, gets drunk at least twice a week, has a history of frequent job changes and brief sexual affairs, and often complains that she is bored. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis is _____ Personality Disorder.

Answer 210

Borderline Brittany's symptoms are most consistent with the diagnostic criteria for Borderline Personality Disorder, which is characterized by instability in self-image, interpersonal relationships, and affect. Additional symptoms may include irritability and/or intense anger and marked impulsivity in at least two areas, such as substance abuse and sexual behaviors.

Question 211

Which of the following drugs is most likely to be prescribed to alleviate the symptoms of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder?

Answer 211

A drug that blocks serotonin reuptake

Question 212

Korsakoff syndrome has been attributed to which of the following?

Answer 212

Thiamine deficiency

Question 213

Alterations in perception are most associated with which of the following disorders?

Answer 213

Panic Disorder Perceptual distortions (depersonalization and derealization) are potential symptoms of a panic attack.

Question 214

If a client exhibits psychotic symptoms, it is important to keep in mind that Schizophreniform Disorder is a more appropriate diagnosis than Schizophrenia when:

Answer 214

the duration of symptoms is less than six months

Question 215

The most effective treatment for Tobacco Use Disorders in terms of both short- and long-term effects combines:

Answer 215

nicotine replacement therapy with behavioral interventions

Question 216

Edward M., age 36, says he rarely experiences strong emotions, describes himself as a "loner," and states that he does not care what other people think of him. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis for Edward is _________ Personality Disorder.

Answer 216

Schizoid

Question 217

A Latinx client who is diagnosed with Major Depressive Disorder is most likely to say that his symptoms include which of the following?

Answer 217

Headaches, sleep problems, and nervousness Culture may influence the experience and manifestation of depression and other mental disorders. "Nervios" is a common idiom of distress for Latinos and may be indicative of depression or another diagnosis. It is manifested primarily in terms of somatic complaints such as headaches, sleep problems, and nervousness.

Question 218

Amy B. has recently received a diagnosis of Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder. Her symptoms most likely include:

Answer 218

being overly concerned about adhering to rules and schedules Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder is characterized by a persistent preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and control. The symptoms described in this answer are consistent with a diagnosis of Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder.

Question 219

The diagnosis of Adjustment Disorder requires the development of symptoms within ___ month(s) of the onset of the stressor.

Answer 219

three

Question 220

To investigate diagnostic overshadowing, a researcher will design a study that assesses:

Answer 220

whether a therapist's knowledge that a client has a Mood Disorder reduces the likelihood that the therapist will consider or recognize that the client also has another disorder

Question 221

Which of the following seems to be the key element in treating Agoraphobia?

Answer 221

In vivo exposure In vivo exposure with response prevention is the treatment of choice for Agoraphobia.

Question 222

The presence of which of the following symptoms would suggest a diagnosis of Conduct Disorder rather than a diagnosis of Oppositional Defiant Disorder?

Answer 222

Frequent lying and running away from home

Question 223

According to research, which of the following is the strongest predictor of Intellectual Disability, with an unknown etiology?

Answer 223

Low birth weight

Question 224

The severity level (mild, moderate, severe, or extreme) for a DSM-5 diagnosis of Bulimia Nervosa is based on which of the following?

Answer 224

Average number of weekly episodes of inappropriate compensatory behavior

Question 225

A DSM-5 diagnosis of Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder requires an onset of symptoms prior to ___ years of age.

Answer 225

10

Question 226

In recent years, the highest suicide rate among all age groups in the United States has been found in:

Answer 226

Native Americans/Alaskan Natives

Question 227

During her first session with Dr. Hank Hess, Stephanie B. tells him that she experiences severe anxiety whenever she is in an elevator because she's afraid she won't be able to escape or get help if she develops a panic attack. Which of the following would help confirm a DSM-5 diagnosis of Agoraphobia for Stephanie?

Answer 227

She tells Dr. Hess that she also experiences severe anxiety when using public transportation, which has limited her visits to friends and family members. The DSM-5 diagnosis of Agoraphobia requires that the individual experience marked fear or anxiety in at least two of the following situations: using public transportation, being in open spaces, being in enclosed spaces, standing in line or being part of a crowd, and being outside the home alone. Additionally, the individual must fear or avoid these situations due to a concern that escape might be difficult or help will be unavailable in the event one develops panic-like, incapacitating, or embarrassing symptoms.

Question 228

The most frequent co-diagnosis for children with a learning disorder is ADHD, with approximately _____% of children with a learning disorder also receiving the latter diagnosis.

Answer 228

20 to 30

Question 229

Based on recent research results, the most effective intervention for Generalized Anxiety Disorder is:

Answer 229

Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy

Question 230

An electrolyte imbalance is a possible complication of Bulimia Nervosa. The danger of this complication lies in the fact that it can lead to:

Answer 230

cardiac arrhythmia and arrest

Question 231

In her discussion of African American middle-class families, Boyd-Franklin (1989) noted that, in terms of family roles, these families tended to be:

Answer 231

egalitarian

Question 232

A psychotherapist is most likely to say that which of the following is the greatest source of stress in his or her work?

Answer 232

The lack of therapeutic success

Question 233

According to Helms, racism is a central part of being White in America, and her White Racial Identity Development Model proposes that identity development involves two phases:

Answer 233

abandoning racism and developing a nonracist White identity.

Question 234

What family therapy prioritizes the first session of therapy and has four stages: the social stage, the problem stage, the interaction stage, and the goal-setting stage?

Answer 234

Strategic Family Therapy Strategic family therapy, developed by Jay Haley, considers the first session of therapy to be an important determinant of the course of therapy, and the first session involves four stages. In the social stage, the therapist observes the interactions of family members and encourages the involvement of all members. In the problem stage, the therapist gathers information about what brought the family to therapy. In the interaction stage, the therapist observes the family members discussing the identified problem. In the goal-setting stage, the therapist and family members agree on a contract that defines the goals for therapy.

Question 235

A man, who smokes two packs a day, says he has decided to stop smoking the day after his birthday, which is two weeks away. According to Prochaska and DiClemente (1992), this man is in which of the following stages of the change process?

Answer 235

Preparation

Question 236

According to past research, matching a therapy client to his/her therapist in terms of race:

Answer 236

is a more accurate predictor of treatment length than treatment outcome

Question 237

When considering concurrent individual and group therapy for a client it is important to keep in mind that:

Answer 237

individual therapy may decrease participation and involvement in group therapy

Question 238

As defined by Sue and Zane, gift giving might involve all of the following except:

Answer 238

waiving a late fee

Question 239

Sue and Zane (1987) note that gift giving is a common ritual in Asian cultures and propose that it has:

Answer 239

beneficial therapeutic effects

Question 240

A family therapist instructs a family member to continue performing the target behavior and to do so in an exaggerated way. This technique is referred to as:

Answer 240

prescribing In this situation, the therapist is prescribing the symptom. Prescribing involves instructing the client to maintain and/or exaggerate the target symptom

Question 241

A therapist is most likely to say that which of the following is the most stressful type of client behavior?

Answer 241

Suicidal statements

Question 242

The primary targets of interpersonal therapy include:

Answer 242

role disputes, role transitions, unresolved grief, and interpersonal deficits

Question 243

The Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model proposed by Atkinson, Morten, and Sue (1993) is based on the assumption that the stages of identity development reflect changes in:

Answer 243

one's attitudes toward members of minority and dominant cultures Each stage of the Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model is characterized by a different set of attitudes toward members of one's own minority group, members of other minority groups, and members of the dominant group.

Question 244

Berry (1987) would assert that a member of a racial/cultural minority group who adopts the values, attitudes, and customs of his/her own minority culture but rejects those of the dominant (majority) is:

Answer 244

separated

Question 245

A 14-year old boy engages in "acting-out" behaviors whenever his parents begin talking about separating, and his actions temporarily disrupt their discussion and plans. From the perspective of family therapy, the boy's behavior is best described as:

Answer 245

an attempt to restore homeostasis

Question 246

During the course of group therapy, some members begin to express anger toward a female member because they feel she is "hiding behind a facade" rather than revealing her true self. Other members say she should be left alone. According to Irvin Yalom, this type of conflict:

Answer 246

should be expressed and then processed to clarify its meaning to members Yalom views conflict as a normal part of group therapy and considers it to be a useful therapeutic tool if handled correctly. According to Yalom, the therapeutic use of conflict in group therapy involves two stages: experience (affective expression) and understanding of that experience.

Question 247

Ledley, Foa, & Huppert (2005) consulted with David Clark to develop a comprehensive CBT treatment manual for which of the following disorders?

Answer 247

Social phobia

Question 248

According to Carl Rogers, which of the following factors would not be necessary and sufficient for therapeutic change to occur?

Answer 248

According to Rogers, the therapist's role is to provide the client with three facilitative conditions including empathy, genuineness, and unconditional positive regard. He proposed that these conditions enable the client to return to his/her natural tendency for self-actualization.

Question 249

A therapist instructs a client who suffers from insomnia to polish his hardwood floors for at least two hours whenever he wakes up during the night. Apparently this therapist is familiar with the work of:

Answer 249

Milton Erickson The task described in the question is an example of an "ordeal". For the exam, you should have paradoxical techniques and ordeals associated with Milton Erickson and Jay Haley

Question 250

A "teleological" approach is most closely associated with which theorist?

Answer 250

Adler A teleological approach views behavior and personality as being "pulled" by a subjective future rather than being "pushed" by an objective past (e.g., by heredity or environmental events). A distinguishing characteristic of Adler's approach is its teleological explanation for behavior. Adler believed that behavior is determined by future goals.

Question 251

Madelyn strongly dislikes her older sister, Maxine, but goes out of her way to be nice to Maxine whenever they get together for family gatherings. From a psychoanalytic perspective, Madelyn is exhibiting which of the following defense mechanisms?

Answer 251

Reaction formation Reaction formation involves acting in a manner opposite to one's inclinations; i.e., defending against a disturbing impulse by actively expressing its opposite.

Question 252

As defined by Jung, "individuation" refers to:

Answer 252

the integration of conscious and unconscious aspects of the psyche Individuation is a key concept in Jung's personality theory. Jung described individuation as a lifelong process that consists of integrating or harmonizing components of the conscious and unconscious.

Question 253

A practitioner of existential therapy is most likely to say that "existential anxiety" is:

Answer 253

a normal reaction to the constant threat of death

Question 254

According to Wrenn (1962), therapists are "culturally encapsulated" when they:

Answer 254

disregard cultural differences and are unaware of their own cultural biases

Question 255

For Carl Rogers, incongruence between self and experience:

Answer 255

can lead to denial or distortion of the self or experience According to Rogers, for an individual to achieve self-actualization, his/her sense of self must remain unified, organized, and whole. Rogers believed that the self can become disorganized when there is incongruence between the self and experience. This occurs when the individual experiences conditions of worth (e.g., is given attention or affection only when he/she acts in certain ways.).

Question 256

According to Irvin Yalom, during the first stage of a therapy group, you can expect members to:

Answer 256

turn primarily to the therapist for answers to their questions

Question 257

According to Carl Rogers, a therapist is "congruent" when the therapist:

Answer 257

is authentic and nondefensive Congruence involves being genuine, authentic, and nondefensive.

Question 258

From the perspective of Jay Haley's strategic family therapy, "symptoms" are primarily _____ phenomena.

Answer 258

interpersonal Haley's strategic family therapy was influenced by the communication/interaction school of family therapy and focuses on communication and other interactions between family members. For strategic family therapists, a symptom is an interpersonal phenomenon that represents an attempt to control a relationship.

Question 259

Which of the following sequences best describes the psychoanalytic therapeutic process?

Answer 259

Clarification, confrontation, interpretation, working through

Question 260

As described by Edward T. Hall (1969), __________ communication relies heavily on nonverbal cues and group identification.

Answer 260

high-context High-context communication is anchored in the situation and relies heavily on nonverbal cues and group identification and understanding.

Question 261

An African-American therapy client in the conformity stage of Atkinson, Morten, and Sue's (1993) Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model will most likely:

Answer 261

prefer a Caucasian therapist The Racial/Cultural Identity Development Model consists of five stages: conformity, dissonance, resistance and immersion, introspection, and integrative awareness. During the initial conformity stage, African Americans have positive attitudes toward Caucasian cultural values and negative attitudes toward their own culture. African American clients in the conformity stage are likely to prefer a Caucasian therapist.

Question 262

A 14-year old boy is arrested for the third time for shoplifting. His mother seems unconcerned and says "he's just going through a phase." His father decides to go fishing on the day of the boy's court hearing, and his older sister says she can't attend his court hearing because she has too much homework. From the perspective of structural family therapy, this family is best described as:

Answer 262

disengaged The family members described in this question do not seem to be involved in or concerned about the lives of other members. From the perspective of Minuchin's structural family therapy, relationships in this family are characterized by a high degree of disengagement.

Question 263

For Gestalt therapists, maladaptive behavior:

Answer 263

reflects a "growth disorder" Like other humanistic therapists, Gestalt therapists view the individual as having an innate tendency for positive growth. For Gestalt therapists, neurotic behavior reflects interference with natural growth and a resulting lack of integration.

Question 264

A structural family therapist notices that, whenever Mr. Buehler talks, Mrs. Buehler and Alphonse, their 11-year-old son, contradict what he says and criticize him. The therapist would most likely describe the behavior of the mother and son as:

Answer 264

a stable coalition Structural family therapists distinguish between three rigid triads - detouring, stable coalition, and triangulation. Minuchin used the term stable coalition to describe a relationship between two family members that involves the joining of those members against a third member, which is what is occurring in the situation described in this question.

Question 265

In therapy, a Native American family is likely to respond most positively to interventions that:

Answer 265

reflect a spiritual, holistic orientation to life It is always important to take a therapy client's culture into account when deriving a diagnosis and developing a treatment plan. According to past research, Native American clients are likely to have a spiritual, holistic orientation to life that emphasizes harmony with nature.

Question 266

Carl Jung's archetypes are best conceptualized as:

Answer 266

universal primordial images or patterns Jung considered the archetypes to be an important contributor to personality development. Archetypes are primordial images that are part of the collective unconscious, are passed down from one generation to the next, and cause people to experience certain phenomena in a universal way.

Question 267

Several types of questions are used by family therapists. The type of question that is designed to explore the interconnectedness of family members and the recurrent patterns in their relationships is referred to as:

Answer 267

circular Circular questions are based on an assumption of circular causality and are used to explore recurrent family patterns.

Question 268

George Kelly is associated with which of the following?

Answer 268

Personal construct therapy

Question 269

Gregory Herek proposed that word homophobia be replaced with:

Answer 269

sexual stigma, heterosexism, and sexual prejudice

Question 270

A strategic family therapist is most likely to use which of the following therapeutic techniques in dealing with a husband and wife who complain that they are constantly arguing with each other?

Answer 270

Tell the couple to argue for at least two hours each evening Strategic family therapy is most associated with Jay Haley, who was strongly influenced by the communication school of family therapy and by the work of Milton Erickson. Haley relies heavily on paradoxical techniques (like the one described in this response), which are also employed by communication family therapists and Milton Erickson.

Question 271

Margaret Mahler, who is associated with object relations theory, views separation-individuation as involving:

Answer 271

development of a permanent sense of self and a permanent mental representation of the other Separation-individuation is a key concept in Mahler's object relations theory. It takes place during the third and final stage in the development of object relations. Mahler viewed separation-individuation as the result of a separation between the self and other that occurs when the individual develops "emotional object constancy".

Question 272

An __________ intervention focuses on changing environmental conditions so that they better accommodate the characteristics of the individual.

Answer 272

alloplastic An alloplastic intervention alters environmental conditions that contribute to or cause personal distress.

Question 273

Martin and Hetrick (1988) found that the primary presenting problem for gay and lesbian teens presenting to a social service agency was:

Answer 273

social and emotional isolation Gay and lesbian adolescents face similar problems as their heterosexual peers. However, their identity development is also complicated by stigmatization. Isolation is frequently cited as a primary problem for gay and lesbian adolescents, and one study found it to be the single-most frequent presenting problem

Question 274

Among African Americans and other racial minority groups, high-context communication is manifested in:

Answer 274

the use of a few words to communicate a message that may require many words for an Anglo American High-context communication is grounded in the situation, depends on group understanding, relies heavily on nonverbal cues, helps unify a culture, and is slow to change. In contrast, low-context communication relies primarily on the explicit, verbal part of a message. While Anglo Americans often rely on verbal messages (low-context communication), African Americans and a number of other racial minority groups make greater use of nonverbal cues. African Americans, for example, tend to rely more on body language than Anglo Americans.

Question 275

Prochaska, Norcross, and DiClemente's (1994) transtheoretical model distinguishes between 10 different change processes and proposes that the most effective combination of processes depends on a client's stage of change. For example, they recommend consciousness raising, dramatic relief, and environmental re-evaluation as useful strategies for helping clients transition into the __________ stage.

Answer 275

contemplation

Question 276

A family therapist whose techniques are derived from the work of Murray Bowen would most likely view the Schizophrenia of a family member as the result of:

Answer 276

a multigenerational transmission process According to Bowen, Schizophrenia and other severe mental disorders require several generations to develop.

Question 277

Memory loss associated with Alzheimer's dementia has been most consistently linked to abnormal levels of which of the following neurotransmitters?

Answer 277

Acetylcholine Acetylcholine (ACh) has been implicated in memory loss associated with Alzheimer's dementia. More specifically, degeneration of cholinergic (ACh) cells in the entorhinal cortex and other areas that communicate directly with the hippocampus has been linked to this disorder.

Question 278

Regional cerebral blood flow serves as an index of neural activity when using which of the following techniques?

Answer 278

PET

Question 279

Which of the following neurotransmitters plays a roll in the formation of long-term memories?

Answer 279

Glutamate

Question 280

Hydrocephalus involves which of the following structures?

Answer 280

Cerebral ventricles Hydrocephalus ("water head") is caused by a build-up of cerebrospinal fluid in the cerebral ventricles in the brain.

Question 281

Spinal cord injury at the sacral level will cause:

Answer 281

Loss of functioning in the hips and legs

Question 282

After a particularly stressful day at work, Dan does some yoga, eats a healthy meal, and laughs while playing a game with his family. Which aspect of the nervous system is at work in his body during this time?

Answer 282

Parasympathetic The parasympathetic system is a subdivision of the autonomic nervous system. It is involved in conservation of energy and is active during times of rest and relaxation.

Question 283

Which part of the body carries information to and from sense receptors, motor nerves, and skeletal muscles?

Answer 283

Somatic nervous system

Question 284

Lesions to the right (non-dominant) hemisphere would most likely produce:

Answer 284

Indifference or euphoria

Question 285

A split-brain patient is staring straight ahead when the word "headband" is flashed directly in front of her. The woman will most likely verbally report seeing which of the following?

Answer 285

Band Because her corpus callosum has been severed, the woman will only be able to verbally state what was directly perceived by her left hemisphere, which is what was in the right visual field (i.e. the word "band").

Question 286

Damage to what area of the brain may lead to uncontrollable laughter or intense rage and aggression?

Answer 286

Hypothalamus

Question 287

Wernike's aphasia involves:

Answer 287

Fluent output, impaired repetition, poor comprehension

Question 288

This part of the brain transmits sensory information to the appropriate areas of the cortex for all senses except olfaction.

Answer 288

Thalamus

Question 289

Research conducted in the 1930s found that ablation of the anterior temporal lobes in male rhesus monkeys produced a variety of symptoms including hypersexuality, placidity, oral tendencies, and psychic blindness. This condition is known as _____ syndrome.

Answer 289

Kluver-Bucy

Question 290

The _______ plays a key role in the attachment of emotions to memory.

Answer 290

Amygdala

Question 291

Damage to _________ produces expressive aphasia.

Answer 291

Broca's area

Question 292

Following a stroke, a woman is unable to recognize the faces of her relatives and her two pet dogs as well as her own face in the mirror. This condition is referred to as:

Answer 292

Prosopagnosia

Question 293

In which functions is the hippocampus involved?

Answer 293

Verbal processing, visual processing, spatial processing, and memory

Question 294

Damage to the prefrontal cortex is most likely to produce deficits in:

Answer 294

Executive cognitive functions The prefrontal cortex is located in the frontal lobe and is involved in a variety of complex behaviors. In addition to mediating higher-order (executive) cognitive functions, the prefrontal cortex is involved in emotion, memory, attention, and self-awareness.

Question 295

Which of the following structure is part of the hindbrain?

Answer 295

Medulla oblongata The hindbrain is located behind the midbrain. The hindbrain consists of the medulla (which is known as the medulla oblongata), the pons, and the cerebellum.

Question 296

__________ involves right-left confusion, agraphia, and acalculia.

Answer 296

Gerstmann's syndrome Gerstmann's syndrome occurs with damage to the left parietal lobe. Gerstmann's syndrome is characterized by finger agnosia, right-left confusion, agraphia (an inability to write), and acalculia (an inability to preform simple mathematical calculations).

Question 297

Which of the following brain structures plays a role in attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder and schizophrenia and is a neuronal pathway that connects the limbic system and prefrontal lobes?

Answer 297

reticular activating system The reticular activating system is a network of neurons located in the brainstem. It plays a fundamental role in arousal and consciousness, control of movement and sensation, and regulation of visceral functions. A deficiency in this area can cause inattention, impulsivity, or hyperactivity. This area has been connected to disruptions in the sleep-wake cycles of individuals with schizophrenia.

Question 298

Which structures are included in the basal ganglia?

Answer 298

Caudate nucleus, putamen, globus pallidus, subthalamic nucleus, and substantia nigra

Question 299

The body's circadian rhythms are controlled by the:

Answer 299

Superchiasmatic nucleus

Question 300

A middle-aged man exhibits slurred speech, a lack of coordination, and tremors. If his symptoms are due to brain damage, the most likely location of the damage is the:

Answer 300

Cerebellum The cerebellum is important for coordination, posture, and balance. Damage to the cerebellum can result in ataxia, which involves the symptoms listed in this question.

Question 301

Following a head injury, a woman exhibits dressing apraxia, tactile agnosia, and doesn't comb the hair on the left side of her head. Which area of her brain has most likely been damaged?

Answer 301

Temporal lobe Tactile agnosia, contralateral neglect, and some types of apraxia are caused by damage to certain areas of the parietal lobe.

Question 302

An inherited form of complete color blindness caused by a lack of functioning in the cone cells is known as ___________.

Answer 302

congenital achromatopsia

Question 303

Gate control theory is useful for:

Answer 303

Identifying methods for controlling pain

Question 304

Which of these sensory systems does not have a connection through the thalamus?

Answer 304

Olfaction

Question 305

Which theory best describes sensation as an exponential function of stimulus intensity?

Answer 305

Steven's Power Law Steven's Power Law expanded on Fechner's Law and Weber's Law. It led to a description of sensation as an exponential function of stimulus intensity.

Question 306

Retinal disparity helps to explain:

Answer 306

The use of both eyes to perceive depth or distance Retinal disparity is also known as binocular disparity and refers to the fact that our two eyes see the world from two different positions. Retinal disparity contributes to depth perception for objects at relatively close distances (within about 18 to 20 feet), while other cues such as shadows and the relative motion of objects contribute to depth perception at larger distances.

Question 307

An adult with damage to his hippocampus can be expected to:

Answer 307

Forget events that occur after the accident that caused the damage The hippocampus is involved in learning and memory. The hippocampus is responsible for memory consolidation, and damage produces impairments in the ability to transfer information from short-to long-term memory.

Question 308

An adult with damage to his hippocampus can be expected to:

Answer 308

Forget events that occur after the accident that caused the damage The hippocampus is involved in learning and memory. The hippocampus is responsible for memory consolidation, and damage produces impairments in the ability to transfer information from short-to long-term memory.

Question 309

The ___________ are (is) essential for the encoding, storage, and retrieval of long-term declarative memories, with the right and left lobes serving somewhat different functions.

Answer 309

temporal lobes

Question 310

The __________, cerebellum, and motor cortex contribute to procedural and implicit memory.

Answer 310

basal ganglia The basal ganglia, cerebellum, and motor cortex play a role in procedural memory (e.g., memory for sensorimotor skills) and implicit (unconscious, nonintentional) memory.

Question 311

Damage to the arcuate fasciculus can produce _____________.

Answer 311

conduction aphasia Wernicke's area and Broca's area are connected by the arcuate fasciculus, and damage to this structure can produce conduction aphasia. This disorder does not significantly affect language comprehension but does result in anomia, paraphasia, and impaired repetition.

Question 312

Individuals with this form of aphasia may be able to say a few words and produce automatic speech (especially emotional exclamations)?

Answer 312

global aphasia Global aphasia is caused by widespread brain injury involving Broca's and Wernicke's areas as well as other areas in the left frontal, temporal and parietal lobes and is characterized by extensive disruption in the ability to produce and understand language. Individuals with this form of aphasia may be able to say a few words and produce automatic speech (especially emotional exclamations).

Question 313

Which theory of emotion proposes that emotional and bodily reactions to stimuli occur simultaneously as a result of thalamic stimulation of the cortex and the peripheral nervous system?

Answer 313

Cannon-Bard theory

Question 314

Which theory of emotion proposes that emotional and bodily reactions to stimuli occur simultaneously as a result of thalamic stimulation of the cortex and the peripheral nervous system?

Answer 314

Cannon-Bard theory

Question 315

Schachter and Singer’s two-factor theory (1962) describes subjective emotional experience as the consequence of a combination of _____________ and cognitive interpretation of that arousal and the environmental context in which it occurs.

Answer 315

physiological arousal

Question 316

Which of the following is NOT an identified area of the brain that plays an important role in emotion?

Answer 316

Wernicke's area

Question 317

The stress response identified by Selye (1956) known as general adaptation syndrome (GAS), involves all of the following stages except:

Answer 317

Denial is not a stage identified in Selye's general adaptation syndrome. General adaptation syndrome involves three stages known as alarm reaction, resistance, and exhaustion.

Question 318

Research on the Type A behavior pattern has found that __________ is most strongly related to coronary heart disease.

Answer 318

antagonistic hostility

Question 319

Hormone replacement therapy is effective for all of the following except:

Answer 319

Although hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is effective for eliminating hot flashes, mood swings, and vaginal dryness and reduces the risk for bone loss, there is no clear evidence that it improves the sex drive.

Question 320

___________, is characterized by deep relaxation and light sleep.

Answer 320

theta waves

Question 321

T he development of secondary sex characteristics occurs when the _____ secretes chemicals that stimulate the pituitary gland which, in turn, releases the gonadotropic hormones.

Answer 321

Hypothalamus

Question 322

This age range is most likely to experience the least amount of REM sleep.

Answer 322

Older adults

Question 323

Normally damage to the subthalamus causes involuntary jerking and twitching movements. However, in individuals with __________, damage to this region brings motor activity back to normal.

Answer 323

Parkinson's disease Parkinson's disease is a brain disorder that leads to shaking, stiffness, and difficulty with walking, balance, and coordination. Parkinson's symptoms usually begin gradually and get worse over time. Lesioning or stimulating the subthalamic nucleus in Parkinson's disease alleviates many of the movement symptoms associated with Parkinson's disease.

Question 324

For many patients with mild traumatic brain injury, the greatest amount of recovery occurs during the first ______ following the injury.

Answer 324

3 months

Question 325

What type of seizure affects movement and sensation on one side of the body without a loss of consciousness?

Answer 325

Simple partial

Question 326

A young woman says that she always feels cold, is frequently depressed and has trouble concentrating, is lethargic, has lost interest in sex, and has gained weight even though her eating habits have not changed. These symptoms are most suggestive of which of the following endocrine disorders?

Answer 326

Hypothyroidism

Question 327

Which of the following is not a recommended treatment for migraine headaches?

Answer 327

Gentle exercise

Question 328

A 36-year-old man presents with symptoms of apathy, muscle problems, fidgeting, and forgetfulness. These symptoms seem to progress in intensity and frequency as time goes on. He is most likely suffering from which disease?

Answer 328

Huntington's disease

Question 329

Which of the following is most likely to be useful for treating Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder?

Answer 329

A drug that blocks the reuptake of serotonin

Question 330

A 72-year-old man is prescribed lithium for Bipolar Disorder. In terms of side effects, the man can most likely expect which of the following?

Answer 330

Fine hand tremor Fine hand tremor is a common side effect of lithium, especially for older adults. Other common side effects of lithium include gastrointestinal symptoms, shakiness, fatigue, restlessness, polyuria, and polydipsia.

Question 331

In comparison to the tricyclics, fluoxetine and other SSRIs:

Answer 331

Are less cardiotoxic

Question 332

The atypical neuroleptic Clozapine (Clozaril):

Answer 332

Has a slower onset of therapeutic effects than traditional neuroleptics For the exam, you should be familiar with the differences between traditional and atypical neuroleptic (antipsychotic) drugs. A disadvantage of Clozapine and other atypical antipsychotics is that they have a slower onset of effects than the traditional antipsychotics.

Question 333

Drugs that block the activity of _______ produce dry mouth, blurred vision, postural hypotension, urinary retention, and tachycardia.

Answer 333

ACh Acetylcholine (ACh) is one of the neurotransmitters classified as "cholinergic." Drugs that block ACh activity produce anticholinergic effects, including the symptoms listed in the question.

Question 334

Therapeutic drug monitoring relies on measuring specific drugs to maintain a concentration in the patient's bloodstream for what purpose?

Answer 334

Optimize dosage regimens

Question 335

Which type of dynamic assessment involves providing an examinee with additional cues, suggestions, or feedback and is ordinarily done after standard administration of the test to preserve the applicability of the test's norms?

Answer 335

Testing the limits

Question 336

____________ refers to the variability in amount and type of information derived from interviews with individuals.

Answer 336

Information variance In most unstructured interviews, information variance is caused by the wide differences in content and phrasing due to factors such as theoretical orientation and style of the interviewer.

Question 337

Which of the following refers to the degree to which test scores are free from the effects of measurement error?

Answer 337

Reliability

Question 338

During the evaluation of single cases, such as in clinical diagnosis and treatment planning, clinicians rely on past judgment, clinical experience, and theoretical background to interpret and integrate test scores. However, for personnel decisions and academic predictions, statistical formulas may be more readily used. Which of the following is a basic approach for combining test results?

Answer 338

Multiple regression equations

Question 339

____________ occurs when the validity coefficients and criterion performance for different groups are the same but their mean scores on the predictor differ.

Answer 339

Intercept bias

Question 340

Which of the following is one of the most common ways data is collected from a large group of people and includes personality traits, attitudes, and preferences?

Answer 340

Self-report

Question 341

Which of the following techniques include(s) objective comments about a child's appearance and non-negative comments about their behavior or demeanor?

Answer 341

Descriptive statements

Question 342

____________ is (are) typically easy to replicate as there is a fixed set of closed questions that are used, which means it is easy to test for reliability.

Answer 342

Structured interviews

Question 343

Which of the following assessment is based on the PASS model of intelligence, which distinguished between the four cognitive functions identified by Luria (1980)?

Answer 343

Cognitive Assessment System - Second Edition (CAS2)

Question 344

Which of the following measures an examinee's reasoning abilities, is appropriate for students in grades K through 12, and is used to determine a student's eligibility for placement in a gifted/talented program?

Answer 344

Cognitive Abilities Test (CogAT)

Question 345

_________________ is a nonverbal measure of general intelligence (g) and is considered useful as a multicultural test because it is relatively independent of the effects of specific education and cultural learning.

Answer 345

Raven's Progressive Matrices

Question 346

Which of the following assessments is a measure of cognitive ability for children ages 3 to 18 that was designed to be a culture-fair test by minimizing verbal instructions and responses?

Answer 346

Kaufman Assessment Battery for Children-II (KABC-II)

Question 347

The Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test - 4th Edition (PPVT-4) measures which of the following?

Answer 347

Receptive vocabulary

Question 348

The Kuder Occupational Interest Survey provides scores on:

Answer 348

College Major Scales

Question 349

When using Holland’s Self-Directed Search (SDS), the degree of match between an examinee’s expressed interests and measured interests are referred to as:

Answer 349

congruence

Question 350

Curriculum-based measures are useful for:

Answer 350

monitoring a student’s progress to evaluate instructional effectiveness.

Question 351

Factor analyses have indicated that psychomotor skills:

Answer 351

are highly independent.

Question 352

Research investigating the predictive validity of interest inventories suggest that they are least accurate for predicting:

Answer 352

job performance

Question 353

Tests requiring the learning and recall of word lists are sensitive to episodic memory impairment in early Alzheimer's disease and include all of the following EXCEPT:

Answer 353

Mini-Mental Status Examination (MMSE). The MMSE is a test of cognitive function among older adults that includes tests of orientation, attention, memory, and language.

Question 354

Which of the following is a youth inventory (self-report) designed for fourth through twelfth graders that assesses emotional and behavioral adjustment, family interaction, neurocognition, and attention-related academic functioning?

Answer 354

Personality Inventory for Youth (PIY)

Question 355

____________ refers to how intact an individual's physical sensory processes are to receiving and integrating information.

Answer 355

Sensorium

Question 356

Computer-assisted administration and interpretation in neuropsychology have developed mainly in large organizational contexts and focuses on specialized problems. Specifically, ____________ has been used in the selection of airline pilots to quickly assess deficits or changes in attention, immediate- and short-term memory, visual perceptual functions, sequencing functions, logical problem-solving, calculation skills, reaction time, simultaneous information processing abilities, and executive functions.

Answer 356

CogScreen CogScreen was designed to meet the Federal Aviation Administration's (FAA) need for an instrument that could detect subtle changes in cognitive functioning. This neurocognitive test battery is used for medical recertification evaluation of pilots with known or suspected neurological and/or psychiatric conditions.

Question 357

The ____________ is sometimes used as a diagnostic tool for dementia and as a quantitative measure of cognitive impairment useful in monitoring change.

Answer 357

Mini-Mental Status Exam (MMSE) The MMSE is a widely used test of cognitive function among the elderly that includes tests of orientation, attention, memory, and language. It is the most commonly used measure for complaints of problems with memory and other mental abilities.

Question 358

A large number of tests are available for the early detection and diagnosis of dementia. Which of the following is widely used to measure behavioral disturbances experienced in those with dementia?

Answer 358

The Neuropsychiatric Inventory (NPI) was developed to assess dementia-related behavioral symptoms, which other assessments did not sufficiently address. Domains addressed include delusions, hallucinations, agitation/aggression, dysphoria, anxiety, euphoria, apathy, disinhibition, irritability/lability, aberrant motor activity, nighttime behavioral disturbances, and appetite/eating abnormalities.

Question 359

The Stroop Color-Word Association Test is sensitive to damage in which area of the brain?

Answer 359

Frontal lobe The Stroop measures cognitive flexibility, selective attention, and response inhibition. This test is, therefore, sensitive to frontal lobe damage, and poor performance has been associated with ADHD, mania, depression, and schizophrenia.

Question 360

Which type of responses on the Rorschach Inkblot Test suggests brain damage, emotional disturbance, or intellectual disability?

Answer 360

Confabulation Confabulation on the Rorschach Inkblot Test is overgeneralizing a part of the inkblot to the whole. When individuals do this, it suggests brain damage, emotional disturbance, or an intellectual disability.

Question 361

____________ tests are applied to assess the failure of inhibitory responses, or stimulus-boundedness—for example, asking a patient to tap twice in response to a single tap given by the examiner.

Answer 361

Go-No-Go

Question 362

Which of the following scales on the MMPI-2 is a measure of consistency in responding and consists of paired items that would be expected to be answered in the same direction?

Answer 362

Variable Response Inconsistency (VRIN) An elevated score on the VRIN scale suggests an invalid profile. This scale is a measure of consistency in responding and consists of paired items that would be expected to be answered in the same direction. Answer A: The TRIN scale consists of paired items that are the opposite of each other. It provides an additional measure of consistency in responding and is interpreted in the same way as the TRIN scale. Answer C: The Fb scale is used to identify an attempt to "fake bad" on the last 197 items of the test and is interpreted similarly to the F scale. Answer D: The Fp scale consists of items that were infrequently endorsed by psychiatric patients, and a high score indicates an attempt to "fake bad" even if the examinee is a psychiatric patient.

Question 363

The assumption that ambiguous and unstructured stimuli can elicit meaningful information about an examinee's personality and underlying conflicts is termed:

Answer 363

projective hypothesis. Projective hypothesis refers to the notion that when confronted with ambiguous and unstructured stimuli, the responses elicited by a person reflect one's unconscious needs, feelings, anxieties, motives, thoughts, conflicts, and prior behavioral conditioning.

Question 364

The ____________ includes standardized instruments for assessing adaptive functioning and behavioral, emotional, and social problems from one to 90 years and older.

Answer 364

Achenbach System of Empirically Based Assessment (ASEBA)

Question 365

The ____________ describes psychopathy as a constellation of interpersonal, affective, and behavioral characteristics.

Answer 365

Psychopathy Checklist-Revised

Question 366

Common validity scale configurations on the MMPI-2 seen in clinical settings are determined using the L, F, and K scales. Which of the following configurations is characteristic of clients that admit to personal and emotional difficulties, request assistance with their problems, and are unsure of their own capabilities for dealing with their problems?

Answer 366

The L scale and the K scale are below a T score of 50, and the F scale is at or above a T score of 65. The validity scale configuration where the L scale and the K scale are below a T score of 50 and the F scale is at or above a T score of 65 is the most frequently encountered array in clinical settings. Clients with this configuration are admitting to personal and emotional difficulties, are requesting assistance, and are unsure of their resources to deal with these problems. Under most conditions, this configuration is most desirable for any form of psychological intervention or treatment.

Question 367

Development of the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) was based on which of the following?

Answer 367

Theory of needs The TAT is based on Henry Murray's theory of needs. Murray's system involves identifying the story's "hero" and evaluating the intensity, frequency, and duration of needs, environmental press, theme, and outcomes expressed in each story.

Question 368

____________ are used to obtain detailed information on the individual's symptoms to confirm the diagnosis and facilitate treatment planning and evaluation.

Answer 368

Narrow-band scales Narrow-band behavior rating scales include items that sample from a small number of domains and are not intended to be global measures of an individual's behavior.

Question 369

Which of the following, in conjunction with other sources of information, is considered a valid screening device for identifying brain damage, assessing school readiness in first graders, predicting academic achievement, and identifying emotional problems?

Answer 369

Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test-II The Bender-Gestalt II is a brief measure of visual-motor integration for individuals ages three and older and is used as a measure of visual-motor development and screening tool for neuropsychological impairment. It is considered a valid screening device for brain damage, but to avoid false negatives, it should be used in conjunction with other sources of information. It is not accurate for identifying personality characteristics or for making psychiatric diagnoses.

Question 370

The ____________ is an instrument most commonly used for monitoring an individual's level of consciousness assessing the severity of traumatic head injuries.

Answer 370

Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

Question 371

Jane is exhibiting ____________ when she tends to pay more attention to messages and experiences that support her view on a controversial issue while ignoring those that discredit her view.

Answer 371

the confirmation bias The tendency to pay more attention to information that confirms our existing beliefs, while ignoring that which is opposite to our beliefs, is known as the confirmation bias.

Question 372

Social psychology can best be described as the way people _________________others.

Answer 372

think about, influence, and relate to

Question 373

Research on attraction suggests that more physically attractive people are seen as:

Answer 373

more intelligent than less attractive people

Question 374

A student who is chronically depressed is most likely to attribute the low score he received on his final exam to:

Answer 374

internal and stable factors

Question 375

The statement, "You fell because you tripped, but I fell because I was pushed" BEST illustrates which of the following?

Answer 375

The actor/observer effect

Question 376

The tendency to overestimate the role of dispositional factors when inferring the cause of another person's behavior is referred to as the:

Answer 376

fundamental attribution error/bias

Question 377

Schachter and Singer's (1962) two-factor theory of emotion consists of:

Answer 377

physiological arousal and a cognitive label

Question 378

"Equity theory" predicts that a person's satisfaction in a close personal relationship is related to the person's:

Answer 378

sense of fairness in the exchange of such things as goods and services, time, and effort

Question 379

Berscheid's (1983) "emotion-in-relationships model" suggests that strong emotions in a relationship occur when:

Answer 379

a partner violates the expectancies of the other partner and interrupts the behavior sequence

Question 380

Self-verification theory predicts that a husband who has low self-esteem, is overweight, and is chronically depressed will prefer his wife to:

Answer 380

give him feedback that corresponds to his own beliefs about himself

Question 381

__________ are interconnected mental networks of information that are based on our previous personal and social experiences and help us process and organize information.

Answer 381

Schemas

Question 382

Studies have confirmed that men and women differ with regard to the qualities that attract them to romantic partners. This is best explained as:

Answer 382

evolutionary psychology theory of attraction.

Question 383

Social exchange theory relates to which of the following?

Answer 383

costs and rewards

Question 384

Margie attends a protest rally, which is not typical for her and is out of her comfort zone. She becomes so uncomfortable with her actions that she decides that attending these types of events is a good thing for herself and the community. Margie's experience might be said to reflect:

Answer 384

cognitive dissonance Festinger's (1959) cognitive dissonance theory predicts that, when people experience incompatible cognition and behavior, they experience discomfort (dissonance), which they attempt to relieve using one of several methods. For instance, in some situations, people change their attitudes or behaviors; in others, they may add consonant information or downplay the importance of the inconsistency.

Question 385

A supervisor attempts to increase his influence by being sensitive to the needs of his subordinates and by acting as a role model. This supervisor is relying on which of the bases of power identified by French and Raven (1959):

Answer 385

referent power

Question 386

According to Moscovici (1969), group members espousing the minority position are most likely to change the opinion of the majority when:

Answer 386

when the minority maintains consistency in their position Moscovici's research on minority influence looked at behavioral styles (consistent/inconsistent). He believed that the best way for a minority to influence a majority was to remain consistent and unwavering in their position.

Question 387

Sherif (1935) used the autokinetic effect to study:

Answer 387

conformity Sherif (1935) used the autokinetic effect to study conformity to group norms. Subjects were asked to look at a stationary point of light that appeared to move in a darkened room. They were then asked to estimate how far the point of light had moved in various trials. Results indicated that the group tended to conform to a common estimate.

Question 388

Which of the following predicts that instituting a law that raises the minimum drinking age for purchasing alcohol from 18 to 21 will increase underage drinking among college students:

Answer 388

psychological reactance The scenario in the question describes an example of psychological reactance. It occurs when a person feels that their choices and freedoms are being threatened, and there will be a motivational push to restore freedom.

Question 389

Sherif and Hovland's (1961) social judgment theory predicts that regarding persuasion, messages that fall within a person's "latitude of rejection" are:

Answer 389

not persuasive

Question 390

The phenomenon that occurs within a group of people whereby the desire for harmony and consensus is so strong that it leads to irrational decision-making is known as:

Answer 390

groupthink Groupthink is the term given to the phenomenon whereby the need for harmony and conformity is so strong within a group that it results in dysfunctional decision-making.

Question 391

Zimbardo's (1972) prison study illustrated the impact of which of the following on behavior change:

Answer 391

Social roles Zimbardo’s (1972) prison study illustrated the impact of social roles on aggression. In the study, the “guards” quickly became hostile and cruel by demanding the “prisoners” perform meaningless tasks and engaging in verbal abuse.

Question 392

Observational (social) learning best differs from traditional learning theories in which of the following ways?

Answer 392

Observational learning does not rely on rewards/punishments for learning to occur. Observational learning (social learning) differs from traditional learning theories, in that it does not rely on rewards and punishments for learning to occur.

Question 393

Berkowitz' (1971) version of the frustration-aggression hypothesis proposes that frustration creates a readiness for aggression but that the expression of aggression also requires which of the following:

Answer 393

the presence of aggressive cues According to Berkowitz's original version of the frustration-aggression model, frustration leads to a "readiness" for aggression. The likelihood of aggressive action, however, is thought to be dependent on the presence of aggressive cues. The model was modified in later years to remove the importance of aggressive cues in determining whether frustration will lead to aggression.

Question 394

Herek (1992) attributes violence against gays and lesbians to:

Answer 394

heterosexism Herek (1992) attributes the prejudice and violence against gay people not to homophobia, but to a stigma-perpetuating ideology referred to as heterosexism.

Question 395

The term in social psychology that refers the principle of having concern for the happiness of others, is known as:

Answer 395

altruism

Question 396

Research on the bystander effect, or bystander intervention, suggests that a person is most likely to be helped in an emergency situation when:

Answer 396

there is one person nearby to help

Question 397

With regard to the effects of crowding, which of the following is true?

Answer 397

The most common reaction to crowding is stress.

Question 398

Research by Sherif et al. (1961) suggests that, to decrease hostility between groups of junior high school students, you would be best advised to:

Answer 398

establish a common goal for the group to work toward Research has found that creating a common goal ("superordinate goal") for groups to work toward will tend to reduce inter-group hostility.

Question 399

Research investigating the effects of the "jigsaw method" in the classroom has demonstrated that it:

Answer 399

reduces racial/ethnic stereotyping The jigsaw method involves having teams of students work together to complete an assignment, with each member being assigned a different task or aspect of the assignment. The jigsaw method has been found to have a number of beneficial effects, including raising self-esteem, improving cooperation, and reducing racial/ethnic stereotyping. In terms of academic achievement, it tends to improve the performance of minority-group children and either increases or has no effect on the performance of majority-group children.

Question 400

The basic premise of the Zeigarnik effect is that:

Answer 400

incomplete tasks tend to be remembered more easily than completed ones The Zeigarnik effect is a phenomenon whereby we tend to remember unfinished tasks more easily than finished ones, especially in non-stressful situations.

Question 401

Interval recording is most useful _____.

Answer 401

for behaviors without a clear beginning or end (e.g., on-task behavior) and involves recording whether or not the behavior occurred during each interval

Question 402

Cluster sampling involves_____.

Answer 402

selecting units rather than individuals Cluster sampling involves selecting clusters (units) rather than individuals. It is a useful technique when it is not feasible to identify or obtain access to individuals in the entire population. For example, rather than randomly selecting individual high school students from the population of all high school students, it may be necessary to select a sample of high schools and then include all students in those schools or a sample of students from those schools.

Question 403

A researcher instructs a participant to "think aloud" while solving complex geometry problems to identify the thought processes that underlie successful and unsuccessful problem-solving. The participant's verbalizations will be recorded and analyzed. This technique is known as_____.

Answer 403

protocol analysis Protocol analysis is a qualitative research strategy used to examine cognitive processes that underlie problem-solving and other complex tasks involving subjects to "think aloud" while solving a problem. The subject's verbalizations are recorded and later coded in terms of relevant categories.

Question 404

The primary characteristic that distinguishes true experimental research from quasi-experimental research is that, in the former,_____.

Answer 404

participants are randomly assigned to either the treatment or control group

Question 405

When using the technique known as blocking _____.

Answer 405

the researcher is attempting to parse out the effects on the dependent variable at different levels of the independent variable

Question 406

To assess the effects of a stimulus control procedure on eating behaviors, Dr. Barry Buvette obtains a sample of 20 overweight females and 20 overweight males and determines their average daily caloric intake and satisfaction with their food consumption during the seven days before and seven days after training in the procedure. The dependent variable(s) in this study is/are_____.

Answer 406

average daily caloric intake and satisfaction with their food consumption

Question 407

Dr. Angela Angst is using a repeated measures design to compare the effects of different techniques for reducing free-floating anxiety. To control potential carryover effects, Dr. Angst should use which of the following?

Answer 407

Counterbalancing Carryover effects occur in repeated measures designs when the effects of one treatment have an impact on the effects of subsequent treatments. Counterbalancing distributes the carryover effects evenly across the treatment groups so their influence is balanced.

Question 408

An interviewer unintentionally nods whenever research participants answer the questions in ways that confirm the study's research hypothesis. The interviewer's behavior is best described as an example of which of the following?

Answer 408

Demand characteristics This question describes a type of reactivity in which the behavior of participants is affected by cues from the researcher indicating what behaviors are expected of them. Cues from a researcher or in the environment that inform participants about the purpose of the study or indicate what behavior is required of them are referred to as demand characteristics.

Question 409

A psychologist evaluates the effects of a 15-month training program on the conservation skills of preoperational children by administering a measure of conservation to the same group of children before and at the end of training. The psychologist finds that significantly more children are able to conserve after the program than before the program. The biggest threat to this study's internal validity is_____.

Answer 409

maturation Internal validity is threatened whenever an investigator cannot maximize the variability of the independent variable, control for extraneous variables, and minimize random error. Maturation threatens internal validity when biological or psychological changes occur within subjects during the course of the study. The length of the training program (15 months) spans a considerable amount of time during the developmental period, which makes it difficult to determine if changes in the DV were because of the IV or the child's typical growth and development.

Question 410

Internal validity is threatened whenever an investigator cannot maximize the variability of the independent variable, control for extraneous variables, and minimize random error. Maturation threatens internal validity when biological or psychological changes occur within subjects during the course of the study. The length of the training program (15 months) spans a considerable amount of time during the developmental period, which makes it difficult to determine if changes in the DV were because of the IV or the child's typical growth and development.

Answer 410

Single-subject

Question 411

A psychologist obtains a statistically significant F-ratio for the interaction between two independent variables (IVs). This means that_____.

Answer 411

the relationship between a factor and the response differs by the level of the other factor

Question 412

A researcher would use the Solomon four-group design to control which of the following threats to the validity of a research study?

Answer 412

Pre-testing effects The Solomon four-group design is used to measure the effects of pretesting on a study's internal and external validity.

Question 413

As applied to research design, "external validity" refers to which of the following?

Answer 413

The extent to which a researcher can apply or generalize the results of a study to the larger population (i.e., other situations, groups, or events).

Question 414

For children with ADHD, an academic achievement test has a mean of 40 and a standard deviation of 8. Assuming that the distribution of scores is normally shaped, you can conclude that 16% of these children obtained scores below a score of_____.

Answer 414

32 To determine this answer, it is helpful to know the breakdown of percentages and standard deviations on the diagram of the normal curve. A score of 32 is one standard deviation below the mean, and roughly 15.8% of scores will fall below this score. This is the best answer of the options available.

Question 415

In a negatively skewed distribution of scores_____.

Answer 415

most of the scores fall in the high end with few falling in the low end. The mean is less than the mode.

Question 416

To conclude that one research participant has twice as much of a characteristic than another participant, your measure of that characteristic must produce scores that represent which scale of measurement?

Answer 416

Ratio scale The ratio scale has the properties of order, equal intervals, as well as an absolute zero. An absolute zero point allows for a more precise determination of "how much" more or less of a characteristic one person has as compared to another. Answer B: A continuous scale is a general term that refers to scales that are on the ordinal, interval, and ratio level. Answer C: Interval scales have the property of order and equal intervals but do not have an absolute zero, which allows for mathematical comparisons. Answer D: Ordinal scales involve dividing observations into ordered categories but do not have an absolute zero, which allows for mathematical comparisons.

Question 417

In a leptokurtic distribution,_____.

Answer 417

the distribution is more "peaked" than normal

Question 418

Researchers use non-parametric tests to analyze data on variables measured_____.

Answer 418

on a nominal or ordinal scale

Question 419

When assessing the impact of gender on preference for three different study methods (written materials, workshop, combination of written materials and workshop), you would use which of the following statistical tests to analyze the data you collect from 100 psychologists who have just started preparing for the licensing exam?

Answer 419

Multiple-sample chi-square test The chi-square test is used to analyze the frequency of observations in each category (level) of a nominal variable or other variable that is being treated as a nominal variable. Both gender and study methods are measured on a nominal scale and because there are 2 variables, you would use the multiple-sample chi-square test.

Question 420

Increasing the level of significance (alpha) from .01 to .05 will_____.

Answer 420

increase the probability of committing a Type-I error and thus incorrectly rejecting a true null hypothesis

Question 421

The standard error of the mean (SEM) decreases as_____.

Answer 421

sample size increases

Question 422

According to the Central Limit Theorem, the shape of the sampling distribution of means_____.

Answer 422

will approach normality as the sample size increases

Question 423

Which of the following would increase the power of a statistical test?

Answer 423

Increasing alpha

Question 424

Dr. Terry Tas obtains SAT scores from a sample of 30 high school seniors following their participation in a workshop designed to improve SAT scores. The appropriate statistical test for comparing the mean score obtained by these students to the national mean is which of the following?

Answer 424

Single sample t-test The data analysis for the study described in this question involves comparing the mean SAT score from the workshop to the national mean. A single sample t-test is used to compare an obtained mean to a known population mean.

Question 425

The chi-square test would NOT be the appropriate test for analyzing data collected in which of the following studies?

Answer 425

Comparing crime rates for a rural and urban area in the same state. The chi-square test is used to examine the frequency of observations in each category (level) of a nominal variable. Crime rates are a ratio level variable, not a nominal level variable.

Question 426

Meta-analysis is used to describe _____.

Answer 426

a quantitative integration of research studies involving the calculation and aggregation of "effect size" estimates Meta-analysis is used to evaluate an intervention by combining the results of a number of research studies. It converts data from different studies, which may have different sample sizes, different outcome measures, etc., to a common metric. The result is a standard score that indicates the difference between the experimental and control groups in terms of standard deviation units, which allows researchers to compare results.

Question 427

The t-test for dependent samples is used to analyze the data collected in a study involving 36 participants whose depressive symptoms are measured before and after receiving 12 sessions of therapy. The degrees of freedom for this study are_____.

Answer 427

35 The degrees of freedom for a dependent samples t-test are calculated by the formula of n-1, where n is the number of participants or observations.

Question 428

A researcher will use trend analysis to analyze the collected data in a research study when _____.

Answer 428

the study involves one or more quantitative independent variables and the researcher wants to evaluate the shape, pattern, or form of the relationship between independent and dependent variables

Question 429

A researcher would use a multivariate analysis of variance (MANOVA) to analyze the data collected in a study when _____.

Answer 429

the study includes one or more independent variables and two or more dependent variables that are each measured on an interval or ratio scale The MANOVA is appropriate when the study includes one or more independent variables and two or more dependent variables that are each measured on an interval or ratio scale.

Question 430

A high school counselor uses a battery of tests to help high school juniors and seniors choose a college major. Which of the following multivariate techniques would be most helpful in this situation?

Answer 430

Discriminant function analysis In this scenario, the counselor is trying to predict a nominal outcome based on a battery of tests producing a score on an interval scale. Discriminant function analysis or discriminant analysis is the appropriate technique when two or more continuous predictors will be used to predict or estimate a person's status on a single discrete (nominal) criterion.

Question 431

The correlation coefficient for Test A and Test B is -.40. This means that ___% of variability in Test A scores is shared in common with Test B scores.

Answer 431

16 The magnitude of the relationship can be expressed by squaring the correlation coefficient and multiplying by 100 to get a percentage of their shared variance. In this case, -.40 squared is .16, multiplied by 100 equals 16%.

Question 432

To determine the degree of association between gender and attitude toward abortion when the attitude measure represents an interval scale, you would use which of the following correlation coefficients?

Answer 432

The key to answering this question lies in identifying that the two scales of interest are a dichotomy (gender) and on an interval scale (attitude towards abortion). The biserial coefficient is the appropriate correlation coefficient when one variable is continuous and the other is an artificial dichotomy. Answer A: Pearson's r measures the linear correlation between two continuous variables. Answer B: Spearman's rank-order correlations are used when both variables are ranks. Answer D: The phi coefficient measures the relationship between two dichotomous (binary) variables.

Question 433

When using path analysis, you are _____.

Answer 433

testing the validity of a model that describes the causal relationship between a dependent variable and two or more independent variables

Question 434

Eta is used _____.

Answer 434

to measure the relationship between two continuous (interval or ratio) variables when their relationship is nonlinear

Question 435

Content appropriateness, taxonomic level, and extraneous abilities are factors that are considered when evaluating:

Answer 435

the relevance of test items. In the context of test construction, relevance refers to the extent to which test items contribute to achieving the goal of testing. Content appropriateness, taxonomic level, and extraneous abilities are three factors that may be considered when determining the relevance of test items.

Question 436

The optimal item difficulty index (p) for items included in a true/false test is:

Answer 436

.75. One factor that affects the optimal difficulty level of an item is the likelihood that an examinee can choose the correct answer by guessing, with the preferred level being halfway between 100% and the level of success expected by chance alone. For true or false items, the probability of obtaining a correct answer by chance alone is .50. Therefore, the optimal difficulty level for true or false items is .75, which is halfway between 1.0 and .50.

Question 437

For an achievement test item that has an item discrimination index (D) of +1.0, you would expect:

Answer 437

high achievers to be more likely than low achievers to answer the item correctly. When all examinees in the upper-scoring group and none in the lower-scoring group answer the item correction, the item discrimination index (D) is equal to +1.0. The item discrimination index (D) is calculated by subtracting the percent of examinees in the lower-scoring group who answer the item correctly from the percent of examinees in the upper-scoring group who answer the item correctly. D ranges in value from -1.0 to +1.0.

Question 438

The slope (steepness) of an item characteristic curve indicates the item's:

Answer 438

discrimination The various item response theory models provide item characteristic curves that provide information on one, two, or three parameters - i.e., difficulty level, discrimination, and probability of guessing correctly. An item's ability to discriminate between high and low achievers is indicated by the slope of the item characteristic curve - the steeper the slope, the greater the discrimination.

Question 439

The item difficulty index (p) ranges in value from:

Answer 439

0 to +1.0 The item difficulty index (p) indicates the proportion of examinees in the tryout sample who answered the item correctly. The item difficulty index ranges in value from 0 to +1.0, with 0 indicating that none of the examinees answered the item correctly and +1.0 indicated that all examinees answered the item correctly.

Question 440

Dr. Bettina Browne, a licensed psychologist, undertakes a child custody evaluation at the request of the child's mother. The father agrees to be evaluated also, and Dr. Browne obtains signed informed consent from both parents before beginning her assessment. Dr. Browne administers the MMPI and Rorschach tests to both parents. The mother obtains significantly elevated scores on the MMPI's K and L scales, suggesting that she tends to lie and to be excessively defensive, and these tendencies are confirmed by her Rorschach responses. No significant abnormality is suggested by the father's MMPI and Rorschach results. Based on the test results, Dr. Browne recommends that the mother not be awarded custody of the child. Dr. Browne ______________________.

Answer 440

has acted unethically because of her use of the MMPI and Rorschach tests as methods of evaluating the mothers parental suitability A psychologist is ethically required to use tests only for purposes for which they have been validated according to Standard 9.02 of the APA's Ethics Code. Based on the information given, it appears that Dr. Browne has acted unethically by basing her custody recommendation on MMPI and Rorschach test results since these tests have not been validated for this purpose. Even if the tests had been validated for this purpose, Dr. Browne's recommendation should have been based on more than the results of only two tests.

Question 441

Alice A. has a master's degree in clinical psychology but is not licensed. She is hired by a community mental health clinic to administer several standard psychological tests to adults. According to ethical guidelines, this is ___________________.

Answer 441

acceptable as long as a professional clinical psychologist supervises Alice's activities Ethical (and legal) guidelines do not prohibit the provision of all psychological services by individuals who are not licensed, clinical psychologists. However, they do require that such persons be supervised by a licensed psychologist.

Question 442

Dr. Wanda Weim, a licensed psychologist, receives a request to testify in a custody proceeding on behalf of a male client that was receiving conjoint marital therapy six months prior. He requests Dr. Weim to provide the court with information about his parenting skills and relationship with his spouse and children. Dr. Weim contacts the man's wife, who refuses to give the psychologist permission to testify. Dr. Weim should do which of the following?

Answer 442

refuse to testify Multi-client situations create special considerations and concerns about confidentiality since it is not often possible to release information about one client without also revealing confidential information about another client. In this situation, both clients (the husband and wife) must give their permission before Dr. Weim can release confidential information. Therefore, she should refuse to testify, unless she is ordered to do so by the court.

Question 443

Dr. Jacob Mansfield receives a subpoena requiring him to testify about a current therapy client. Dr. Mansfield contacts the client who states that she does not want him to release any confidential information to the court. Dr. Mansfield should _____________________.

Answer 443

notify the attorney who issued the subpoena that the client has asserted the privilege and request that he be released from subpoena A subpoena is a legal document that requires a psychologist to appear at a designated time in a legal proceeding. If the client invokes the privilege by saying she does not want the therapist to release confidential information to the court, the subpoena is still valid, and the psychologist must appear unless he/she has been released from it. When the client invokes the privilege in this type of situation, the psychologist should contact the client's attorney or his/her own attorney to discuss the matter. The psychologist can also contact the attorney who issued the subpoena to request to be released from it.

Question 444

Dr. Calvin Claymore, a licensed psychologist, regularly waives the co-payment for low-income clients whose therapy fees are covered by insurance. This practice is:

Answer 444

ethical only if the insurance company has agreed to this arrangement The practice described in this question represents insurance fraud, which is both unethical and illegal. Most insurance companies agree to pay a specific percentage of a psychologist's fee but, when the co-payment is waived, this means the insurance company is paying the entire fee. Consequently, regularly waiving the co-payment without the permission of the insurance company represents insurance fraud.

Question 445

Dr. Dennis Jones, in having a casual talk with a colleague, takes an idea from their conversation and decides to design and conduct a study to follow-up on the idea. When publishing the results of the study, it would be best for Dr. Jones to ___________________________.

Answer 445

acknowledge his colleague's contribution in a footnote or introductory statement This issue is addressed by Standard 8.12 of the APA's Ethics Code and Principle III.7 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 8.12(b) states that publication credit must "accurately reflect the relative scientific or professional contributions of the individuals involved, regardless of their relative status"; and Principle III.7 states that psychologists "give credit for work done or ideas contributed by others ... in proportion to their contribution."

Question 446

You are hired as a psychology adjunct professor to teach a course at a graduate school. Which of the following are you ethically required to do in this case?

Answer 446

provide accurate information about the course content and be sure it is available for all interested parties This issue is addressed by Standard 7.02 of the APA's Ethics Code and Principle III.5 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Ethical guidelines explicitly require psychologists to provide interested parties (in this case, the school administration and the students) with accurate and complete information about the course content.

Question 447

Dr. Karen Kempfer, a licensed psychologist who specializes in couples and marriage therapy, has tested positive for HIV. She is incredibly upset by this diagnosis. In terms of ethical requirements, Dr. Kempfer _____________________.

Answer 447

should refrain from participating in any professional activities that might be adversely affected by her medical condition Standard 2.06 of the APA's Ethics Code and Principle II.11 of the Canadian Code of Ethics apply to the situation described in this question. This answer is most consistent with ethical guidelines that address the impact of a psychologist's social, emotional, and health-related problems on his/her professional services. Standard 2.06 requires psychologists to "refrain from initiating an activity when they know or should know there is a substantial likelihood that their personal problems will prevent them from performing their work-related activities in a competent manner"; and Principle II.11 similarly requires psychologists to obtain appropriate help and/or discontinue professional activities when "a physical or psychological condition reduces their ability to benefit and not harm others."

Question 448

Which of the following is most likely a violation of ethical guidelines?

Answer 448

Uninvited in-person solicitations for therapy of individuals whose homes were destroyed several months prior by a hurricane. Of the advertisements/solicitations described in the responses, only one is clearly prohibited by ethical guidelines. In-person solicitation of individuals who are vulnerable to undue influence is explicitly prohibited by Standard 5.06 of the APA's Ethics Code and is inconsistent with the "spirit" of the Canadian Code of Ethics (see, e.g., Principles I.27 and III.31).

Question 449

As defined in the APA's General Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services and the CPA's Practice Guidelines for Providers of Psychological Services, "psychological services" include all of the following except?

Answer 449

the conduct of scientific research The APA and CPA guidelines are both very specific about the activities that constitute "psychological services." The conduct of scientific research is not included in the definition of psychological services.

Question 450

A psychologist realizes that one of her therapy clients is a co-owner of a company that just hired her as a consultant. To be consistent with ethical requirements, the psychologist should _____________________________.

Answer 450

remedy the situation in a way that takes the client's best interests into account This is a difficult question to answer since none of the answers is obviously incorrect. The best answer, however, is the one that comes closest to the actual language of the ethical guidelines. Standard 3.05(b) of the APA's Ethics Code states that, when a multiple relationship occurs, "the psychologist takes reasonable steps to resolve it with due regard for the best interests of the affected person and maximal compliance with the Ethics Code"; and the Values Statement of Principle III of the Canadian Code of Ethics contains similar language.

Question 451

Within the context of sexual harassment, "quid pro quo" refers to ______________________________.

Answer 451

a situation in which an employees response to sexual demands impacts his/her job Quid pro quo is one of the two legally recognized types of sexual harassment. Sexual harassment is addressed in Standard 3.02 of the APA's Ethics Code and described in the Ethics Manual in the written study materials. Quid pro quo sexual harassment occurs when a person's submission to or rejection of sexual advances affects his/her employment status.

Question 452

Which of the following is not an element of informed consent?

Answer 452

credibility Legally, three conditions are required for consent to be truly "informed." Note that this question is asking for the element that is NOT required. In order for consent to be informed, the individual must have adequate information (knowledge) and be able to comprehend that information, must give consent voluntarily (without coercion), and must have the capacity to make rational decisions. Credibility is not one of the conditions for consent. Additional information on informed consent is provided in the Ethics Manual in the written study materials.

Question 453

Dr. Leonard, a licensed psychologist, has been seeing a prison inmate in group therapy for several months and is asked by the parole board to evaluate the inmate to assist with their decision. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. Leonard should:

Answer 453

agree to evaluate the inmate Although the APA guidelines state that multiple relationships should be avoided if there is risk of exploitation or impaired objectivity, an exception is allowed for therapists in a forensic setting to also conduct parole evaluations. Thus, it would be okay for Dr. Leonard to complete the parole evaluation.

Question 454

If a psychologist acts as both a fact witness for a plaintiff and an expert witness for the court in a criminal trial, she has acted _____________________________.

Answer 454

ethically as long as she clarifies her roles with all parties The adoption of multiple roles is addressed in the ethics codes published by the American and Canadian Psychological Associations and in the APA's "Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology." According to ethical guidelines, maintaining multiple roles may be acceptable as long as the psychologist considers the risks and benefits of doing so for all involved parties and clarifies the nature of the multiples roles with all involved parties. See Standard 3.05 of the APA's Ethics Code and Principle I.26 of the Canadian Code of Ethics and Paragraph 4.02 of the "Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology."

Question 455

During his third therapy session with Dr. Janet Bramwell, a client reveals that he is also in therapy with another psychologist. As an ethical psychologist, Dr. Bramwell should _______________________.

Answer 455

discuss the treatment issues with the client during the next session Standard 10.04 of the APA's Ethics Code and Principle II.18 of the Canadian Code of Ethics addresses this issue. In this situation, Dr. Bramwell would want to consider the client's welfare and avoid duplicating services or working at cross purposes with the other psychologist. Consequently, of the answers given, this is the best one.

Question 456

Which of the following techniques would be most useful in evaluating the impact of an intervention on a patients' quality of life?

Answer 456

cost-utility analysis Cost analysis is conducted to determine the optimal allocation of financial resources. Experts distinguish between the four methods of cost analysis listed in the answers to this question. Cost-utility analysis is conducted to compare the costs and patient outcomes of an intervention, with outcomes including patients' duration and quality of life. Additional information on these methods is provided in the Ethics and Professional Issues chapter of the written study materials. Answer A: Cost-feasibility analysis is used to determine the feasibility of an intervention based on the monetary and other resources it requires. Answer B: As its name implies, cost-minimization analysis is conducted to identify the least costly option among several options that produce equivalent outcomes. Answer D: As its name implies, a cost-benefit analysis is used to determine the relative costs and benefits of a particular intervention.

Question 457

A psychologist's behavior as a private citizen _______________________.

Answer 457

may serve as grounds for a charge of unethical conduct if it compromises his/her professional responsibilities The introduction and Principle C of the APA Ethics Code and the Preamble of the Canadian Code of Ethics address a psychologist's private behaviors. The Introduction to the APA's Ethics Code states that the "purely private conduct of psychologists ... is not within the purview of the Ethics Code." However, Principle C (Professional and Scientific Responsibility) notes that when "psychologists' conduct may compromise their professional responsibilities or reduce the public's trust in psychology and psychologists," personal misconduct may constitute a violation of the Ethics Code. Similar language is included in the Preamble of the Canadian Code of Ethics.

Question 458

When using punishment to reduce or eliminate an undesirable behavior, it is important to keep in mind that gradually increasing the intensity or severity of a punishment will likely reduce its effectiveness. This reduction in the effectiveness of punishment is referred to as:

Answer 458

habituation The question describes habituation which, in the context of punishment, occurs when the punisher loses its effectiveness. Gradually increasing the intensity of punishment over time is usually ineffective because it leads to habituation.

Question 459

As originally described by Wolpe (1958), reciprocal inhibition involved replacing:

Answer 459

an anxiety response with a relaxation response Reciprocal inhibition involves using classical conditioning to replace an undesirable response with an incompatible response. The term reciprocal inhibition is often used interchangeably with counterconditioning. Wolpe originally used reciprocal inhibition to reduce anxiety. This involved pairing, in imagination, anxiety-arousing events with relaxation, which is incompatible with anxiety.

Question 460

Research on primacy and recency effects has shown that:

Answer 460

memory for the first item in a list increases while memory for the last item decreases as the delay between study and recall increases This question is asking about research on the serial position effect, which identified a "recency-primacy shift." Specifically, the research has shown that, as the delay between study and recall increases, memory for the last item in a list decreases but memory for the first item increases -- i.e., there is a shift from a recency effect to a primacy effect.

Question 461

Implosive therapy would be most useful as a treatment for which of the following?

Answer 461

Specific Phobia Implosive therapy combines classical extinction with psychodynamic interpretation and is used to treat anxiety reactions. Knowing that implosive therapy is used to extinguish a phobic or other anxiety response would have enabled you to identify the correct answer to this question.

Question 462

When using ________ as a memory aid, a phrase or rhyme is constructed from the first letter of each word in the list of words that is to be recalled.

Answer 462

an acrostic An acrostic is made up of words beginning with the first letter of each word or phrase that is to be remembered. For example, the acrostic "my very educated mother just sent us nachos" is used to memorize the names of the eight planets (Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune). Answer A: Chunking involves grouping related items of information. To remember a string of 21 numbers, for instance, you might chunk the numbers into groups of three, resulting in seven distinct units of information. Chunking is useful for maintaining information in working memory. Answer B: The keyword method is an imagery mnemonic that is useful for paired associate tasks in which two words must be linked. It involves creating an image for each word and visually joining the two images. As an example, to remember that the French word for church is eglise, you could form an image of a church with a giant egg outside the church doors. Answer C: An acronym is a word that is formed using the first letter of each item in a list. For example, the acronym HOMES is used to remember the Great Lakes (Huron, Ontario, Michigan, Erie, and Superior).

Question 463

In a study on learning and memory, participants in the experimental group learned two lists of nonsense syllables (first List A, then List B) and were then asked to recall List A. Participants in the control group also learned List A but, instead of learning List B, were asked to count backward from 10 numerous times before being asked to recall List A. Results of the study indicated that participants in the control group recalled more words from List A than did participants in the experimental group. These results are best explained by which of the following principles?

Answer 463

Retroactive interference The purpose of the study described in this question was to investigate how subsequent experience affects prior learning. Retroactive interference occurs when subsequent (new) learning interferes with prior (old) learning. It is most likely to occur when the new and old learning are similar in terms of content. In the study described in this question, participants in the experimental group learned two lists of similar content (i.e., nonsense syllables). In contrast, participants in the control group engaged in an unrelated task after learning the list of nonsense syllables to ensure that they did not continue to rehearse the list prior to recall testing. The finding that participants in the control group recalled more words from List A than participants in the experimental group is evidence that retroactive interference contributes to difficulty with the recall of the original list.

Question 464

Using a tachistoscope, a researcher flashes a rectangle containing 12 letters of the alphabet to a participant for 50 milliseconds and then asks the participant to say what he or she has just seen. Apparently, the researcher is investigating which of the following?

Answer 464

Iconic memory Iconic memory is a component of the visual memory system. It refers to visual sensory memory or memory of brief (<1 second) visual images (i.e., icons).

Question 465

You are hired by an organization to develop an incentive program for salespeople. You decide to give each salesperson a bonus after every sixth sale which means that most salespeople will receive a bonus every six to eight weeks. Your incentive program represents which schedule of reinforcement?

Answer 465

Fixed ratio This incentive represents a fixed ratio schedule. Do not be misled by the statement "every six to eight weeks" because it is the number of responses (i.e., number of sales), NOT the time interval, that determines when salespeople will receive a bonus. Additionally, this example represents a fixed schedule because the reward follows a consistent number of responses (i.e., after every sixth sale).

Question 466

Betsy's parents give her a quarter each time she practices her violin and another quarter each time she completes her homework. Betsy is 9 years old. If Betsy's parents stop paying her for completing her homework, they are most likely to find that Betsy will:

Answer 466

spend less time doing homework but more time practicing the violin In this scenario, Betsy receives reinforcement for two different behaviors, but the reinforcement for one behavior will be terminated. This question describes a "behavioral contrast," which occurs when a change in the reinforcement schedule of one part of the reinforcement changes a behavior in the opposite direction in the other component of the schedule. In this situation, the behavior that is no longer reinforced (i.e., the homework completion) will decrease while the behavior that continues to be reinforced (i.e., the violin playing) will increase.

Question 467

You witness a four-car collision on your way to work and find yourself thinking about the incident frequently during the next several weeks. Which aspect of your long-term memory is responsible for your memory of the accident?

Answer 467

Episodic memory In this situation, you are recalling a personally experienced event, which is the definition of episodic memory. Answer A: Implicit memory is one type of long-term memory, also known as unconscious memory; it is memory that occurs automatically. Examples include typing on a computer or riding a bike. Answer B: Semantic memory is memory for the meaning of words and concepts. For example, recalling the names of colors or the sounds of letters or other basic facts uses semantic memory. Answer D: Sensory memory is the shortest-term type of memory. It refers to brief impressions formed by input from the senses.

Question 468

Which type of reinforcement schedule causes a behavior to be most resistant to extinction?

Answer 468

Variable ratio

Question 469

An example of using stimulus control for the treatment of obesity is to:

Answer 469

limit the client's exposure to events and objects that prompt overeating As its name implies, stimulus control occurs when the probability of a behavior is greater under certain environmental conditions than others. In treatment, it involves bringing a behavior under the control by focusing on or reducing exposure to specific stimuli or cues. In the behavioral treatment of obesity, stimulus control involves strengthening appropriate cues for eating while weakening inappropriate cues by, for example, having the individual eat only in certain locations and at specific times of the day that have not been previously associated with overeating.

Question 470

Bandura's social learning theory posits that:

Answer 470

people can acquire behaviors without performing them Bandura's social learning theory is distinguished from behavioral theories by its recognition of the role of cognitive factors in learning. Bandura distinguished between learning and performance and proposed that people can learn (acquire) behaviors without actually performing them but by observing others perform the behavior.

Question 471

Rehm's (1977) self-control therapy for depression focuses on which the following

Answer 471

Self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement Rehm's self-control therapy focuses on three aspects of self-control that contribute to depression. According to Rehm, deficits in self-monitoring, self-evaluation, and self-reinforcement increase a person's vulnerability to depression.

Question 472

Whenever four-year-old William whines, his parents try to ignore him. Occasionally, however, William's mother or father picks him up when he whines. As a result, William's whining has increased. The increase in William's whining is due to which of the following?

Answer 472

Intermittent reinforcement

Question 473

Sensate focus was developed by Masters and Johnson (1970) as a technique for reducing performance anxiety related to sexual intercourse. If viewed as a behavioral technique, sensate focus is best described as a form of:

Answer 473

counterconditioning Counterconditioning is based on the principles of classical conditioning and involves pairing two incompatible responses in order to eliminate one of the responses. In sensate focus, pleasurable sensations are paired with performance anxiety in order to reduce the latter.

Question 474

"If a child's whining and crying secures his parents' attention, the child is likely to whine and cry again." Which of the following individuals is most likely to agree with this statement?

Answer 474

Thorndike The statement in this question asserts that a behavior followed by a positive (satisfying) consequence will increase in frequency. This is a type of operant conditioning referred to as positive reinforcement. The first name that may have come to mind when you read this question was Skinner. Thorndike was a predecessor of Skinner and proposed the law of effect, which predicts that behaviors that are followed by satisfying consequences will tend to occur again.

Question 475

Which of the following best describes "backward conditioning?"

Answer 475

It involves presentation of the unconditioned stimulus prior to presentation of the conditioned stimulus and is rarely effective.

Question 476

To maximize the effectiveness of overcorrection, its restitution and positive practice phases are often combined with:

Answer 476

physical guidance

Question 477

When conducting a study to investigate the phenomenon known as "blocking," you will present the CS prior to the US; then, once the CR is established:

Answer 477

present the original CS simultaneously with a second CS prior to the US Blocking occurs when two different conditioned stimuli are paired with the unconditioned stimulus. The process described in this answer is the procedure used to investigate blocking. In this case, the second CS never becomes associated with the US and therefore does not elicit a CR. One theory to explain blocking is that the second CS does not provide information beyond what is already provided by the original CS.

Question 478

When using covert sensitization to treat a sexual fetish, the fetish object acts as a(n):

Answer 478

conditioned stimulus The goal of covert sensitization is to eliminate a response by replacing it with an incompatible response. The target stimulus (in this case the fetish object) is paired in imagination with an aversive stimulus. Eventually, the target stimulus elicits the same unpleasant response as the aversive stimulus and, as a consequence, will be avoided. In this situation, the conditioned stimulus is the target stimulus, while the unconditioned stimulus is the aversive stimulus.

Question 479

The use of shaping to establish a complex behavior depends on which of the following?

Answer 479

Positive Reinforcement Shaping is based on operant conditioning and involves reinforcing successive approximations to the target (desired) behavior. When using shaping to establish a new behavior, responses that come closer and closer to the desired behavior are successively reinforced.

Question 480

You are using in vivo aversive counterconditioning to reduce a client's consumption of alcohol. To maximize the effectiveness of the treatment, the aversive stimulus (electric shock) should be applied:

Answer 480

just as the client begins drinking Aversive counterconditioning is a type of classical conditioning, and classical conditioning is most effective when a "delay" procedure is used. Delay conditioning involves applying the conditioned stimulus (the drink) before the start of the unconditioned stimulus (the electric shock) so that presentation of the two stimuli overlaps and both are terminated together. Of the various types of forward conditioning, delay conditioning is usually the most effective.

Question 481

From a behavioral perspective, phobic reactions to benign objects or events are acquired when those objects or events become associated with a stimulus that naturally produces a fear response. In other words, phobic reactions are due to:

Answer 481

classical conditioning The explanation for the development of phobias provided in this question is consistent with the Pavlovian view. According to this theory, a fear response to a previously neutral object or event is a classically conditioned response in which fear is a conditioned response attached to the neutral stimulus (the conditioned stimulus) through its pairing with a stimulus that naturally elicits fear (the unconditioned stimulus).

Question 482

To make sure that the housekeeper you hired does a good job, you decide to pay him for each chore he does well rather than giving him an hourly or weekly salary. You have apparently been influenced by which of the following individuals?

Answer 482

Skinner This question is asking, "Which of the following individuals would recommend clearly linking reinforcement to the behavior that you want to reinforce?" Skinner believed that behavior is determined by the consequences that follow it and that, when a behavior is reinforced, it increases. According to the principles of Skinner's operant conditioning, clearly linking reinforcement to performance of the behavior (e.g., by providing reinforcement immediately after the behavior) is one way to maximize the effectiveness of reinforcement.

Question 483

A psychologist who views learning as the result of operant conditioning would likely attribute the acquisition of complex behaviors to which of the following?

Answer 483

Behavioral chaining From the perspective of operant conditioning, new behaviors are acquired as the result of reinforcement. Behavioral chaining accounts for the acquisition of complex behavior based on the premise that each response in the chain of responses leading to the performance of a complex behavior serves as reinforcement for the previous response in the chain.

Question 484

As described in the multi-store model, __________ memory is the aspect of memory that is involved in the recall of information acquired within the past few hours to days.

Answer 484

long-term The multi-store model of memory divides it into three components: sensory, short-term, and long-term memory. Information acquired in the past few hours to days is stored in recent long-term memory.

Question 485

A person consistently avoids an object that produces a classically conditioned anxiety response because avoidance is:

Answer 485

negatively reinforced According to the two-factor theory of learning, the development of a phobic response is the result of a combination of classical and operant conditioning. This question is asking about avoidance behavior, which is the aspect of a phobic response that is the result of operant conditioning. In this situation, the person's avoidance behaviors allow him/her to reduce or alleviate anxiety. In other words, avoidance behaviors occur because they are being negatively reinforced.

Question 486

From the perspective of Beck's cognitive-behavioral therapy, the modification of maladaptive cognitions requires which of the following?

Answer 486

The experience of affective arousal

Question 487

Tommy, a bright four-year-old, has learned that if he starts crying as soon as his mother begins to yell at him for misbehaving, his mother will stop yelling and will play with him instead, which is what Tommy wanted in the first place. In this situation, the mother's yelling is acting as a(n):

Answer 487

discriminative stimulus A discriminative stimulus is a cue (antecedent) that signals that a particular response will be followed by a reinforcer. In the situation described in this question, the mother's yelling is serving as a cue that signals to Tommy that crying will result in reinforcement.

Question 488

A person who argues that "all psychopathology has a similar set of underlying irrational beliefs" is most likely sympathetic with the views of:

Answer 488

Ellis The term "dysfunctional beliefs" should have pointed to Ellis as the correct response. Ellis's assumption that all disorders can be attributed to the same set of irrational beliefs is considered by some to be a shortcoming of his approach.

Question 489

Meichenbaum and Goodman (1971) originally developed self-instructional training as an intervention for:

Answer 489

impulsivity Self-instructional training is a cognitive-behavioral technique that is used to teach people to make positive and helpful self-statements when they encounter problematic situations. Although it has subsequently been used to treat a variety of disorders, self-instructional training was originally described by Meichenbaum and Goodman as a method for helping children learn to control their impulsive behaviors (Meichenbaum, D. H., & Goodman, J. (1971). Training impulsive children to talk to themselves: A means of developing self-control. Journal of Abnormal Psychology, 77, 115-126).

Question 490

Masaaki M. has not yet learned to distinguish between a cow and a horse. When he sees a cow, he sometimes says "horse" and he sometimes calls a horse a "cow". To help him learn the difference between these two animals, Masaaki's parents make the sounds "moo" or "neigh," as appropriate, whenever the boy encounters a cow or horse. Masaaki's parents are using which of the following techniques?

Answer 490

Prompting Prompting involves providing an individual with appropriate cues to help elicit the desired behavior. In this situation, "moo" and "neigh" are acting as cues.

Question 491

A behavioral psychologist warns that "a single exception can reinstate the target response and may even maintain it for an extended period of time." Apparently, the psychologist is referring to the use of which of the following learning techniques to eliminate an undesirable response?

Answer 491

Extinction The wording of this question implies that the correct answer must be a technique that is used to eliminate a response. Intermittent reinforcement produces behaviors that are very resistant to extinction. Therefore, when using extinction to eliminate a behavior, all reinforcement for that behavior must be consistently withheld. If the behavior is reinforced even once, the behavior may be reinstated and the extinction process will have to begin again.

Question 492

Lewinsohn's behavioral model proposes a causal link between ______________ and depression.

Answer 492

a lack of reinforcement from the environment Lewinsohn's (1974) behavioral model is based on operant conditioning and focuses on the consequences of behavior. Lewinsohn attributes depression primarily to a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement and proposes that, when a person's behaviors are not reinforced, those behaviors are extinguished and the person is at increased risk for pessimism, low self-esteem, and other symptoms associated with depression.

Question 493

Meichenbaum and Jaremko's (1982) stress inoculation is best described as a type of:

Answer 493

coping skills training Stress inoculation is a cognitive-behavioral strategy that involves teaching clients skills to cope with future stressful situations. During the course of stress inoculation, clients learn to distinguish between ineffective and effective thoughts, actions, etc., and are taught alternative cognitive and behavioral skills that lead to effective coping in stressful situations.

Question 494

Which of the following statements provides support for the encoding specificity principle?

Answer 494

Recognition memory is ordinarily better than recall memory. The encoding specificity principle (Tulving & Thomson, 1973) states that the ability to recall information is improved when the same cues are available at encoding and retrieval. Research has consistently found that recognition memory is better than recall memory, and this has been attributed to the fact that recognition items provide more cues than do recall items (i.e., there is greater overlap between the information in the test items and the information contained in the memory trace). This finding is consistent with the encoding specificity principle.

Question 495

Edward Tolman is best known for his research on ________ learning.

Answer 495

latent Tolman believed that learning could occur without being manifested in performance (i.e., that learning could be latent). His research with rats in mazes indicated that the rats had learned the maze (i.e., had formed "cognitive maps") without exhibiting that learning until they were reinforced for doing so. He referred to this as latent learning. Additional information on latent learning is provided in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.

Question 496

In his studies on memory and forgetting, Ebbinghaus:

Answer 496

used himself as the research subject Ebbinghaus was among the first to conduct empirical studies on human memory. He was the participant in his own research, which involved memorizing lists of nonsense syllables and subsequently recalling the words to evaluate retention. His research led to the identification of learning and forgetting curves.

Question 497

When using higher-order conditioning to establish a conditioned response, the:

Answer 497

CS serves as a US Higher-order conditioning is a type of classical conditioning in which a conditioned stimulus (CS) is paired with a neutral stimulus so that the neutral stimulus also elicits the conditioned response. In this situation, the CS is acting as a US (unconditioned stimulus) when it is paired with the neutral stimulus.

Question 498

Secondary reinforcers:

Answer 498

acquire their reinforcing value through conditioning Behaviorists distinguish between primary and secondary reinforcers. This answer describes secondary reinforcers, which are also known as conditioned reinforcers because they acquire their reinforcing value through their association with primary reinforcers (i.e., as the result of being "paired with" primary reinforcers). Money is a secondary reinforcer that has value only because it enables us to purchase primary reinforcers.

Question 499

Socratic dialogue and collaborative empiricism are most associated with which of the following therapeutic approaches?

Answer 499

Beck's cognitive-behavioral therapy Only one of the approaches listed in the answers conceptualizes therapy as involving collaborative empiricism and uses Socratic dialogue as a method for encouraging collaboration between the therapist and client. Beck's cognitive-behavioral therapy is referred to as collaborative empiricism because it is founded on a collaborative therapist-client relationship that involves testing hypotheses about the client's beliefs and assumptions. Socratic dialogue is an important aspect of cognitive-behavioral therapy and is used to help the client question and challenge his/her underlying beliefs, obtain disconfirming evidence for those beliefs, and identify alternative beliefs.

Question 500

The assumption underlying the use of implosive therapy for treating a phobia is that:

Answer 500

extinction of a conditioned response occurs when the CS is repeatedly presented without the US Implosive therapy uses classical extinction to eliminate an undesirable anxiety response experienced in phobias. It involves having the client repeatedly imagine a feared stimulus (CS) in the absence of the stimulus (US) that initially evoked the fear in order to eliminate the conditioned fear response.

Question 501

According to the levels of processing model of memory, words and other information may be encoded at different levels, with _______ processing being the deepest level.

Answer 501

semantic Craik and Lockhart's (1972) levels of processing model proposes that the level (depth) of processing of information affects how well that information is retained. They distinguished between shallow and deep processing. According to their theory, shallow processing (processing words on the basis of their phonemic or orthographic characteristics) is less effective than deep processing (processing words at the semantic or meaning-based level).

Question 502

Which of the following is an example of semantic memory?

Answer 502

Remembering the definition of semantic memory Semantic memory refers to memory for facts, concepts, and other types of information that are independent of time and context. Definitions are stored in semantic memory.

Question 503

Although he was unable to carry out his plans, John Watson outlined several methods for removing Little Albert's classically-conditioned fear reaction to white rats. One plan involved repeatedly confronting Albert with a white rat without the loud noise in order to produce extinction of his fear response. This technique now underlies the behavioral treatment known as:

Answer 503

flooding The intervention described in this question involves exposing Little Albert to the feared object in vivo (in "real life"). Flooding (which is now more commonly referred to as in vivo exposure with response prevention) involves the extinction of a conditioned response through prolonged exposure to the conditioned stimulus without the unconditioned stimulus.

Question 504

Which of the following is responsible for your ability to remember to call your friend next week to wish her a "happy birthday"?

Answer 504

Prospective memory Prospective memory refers to the ability to "remember to remember;" in other words, it refers to the ability to remember to do something in the future.

Question 505

Prospective memory refers to the ability to "remember to remember;" in other words, it refers to the ability to remember to do something in the future.

Answer 505

conditioned stimulus Aversive conditioning involves pairing a stimulus (the US) that produces an aversive response (the UR) with the undesirable stimulus (the CS) so that the undesirable stimulus alone will eventually elicit an aversive response (CR) as opposed to any positive responses that it might originally elicit. In the example given in this question, cocaine would be the CS. The US would be electric shock or other aversive stimulus. The goal would be for cocaine use to result in the client experiencing the same or similar response to that experienced in response to the US.

Question 506

Which of the following is an example of self-monitoring?

Answer 506

A young man who is overweight is asked to keep a daily record of all the food that he eats. Self-monitoring is a self-control technique that involves recording information about the target behavior. Asking a person who frequently overeats to keep a record of the food he eats to obtain information about his eating behavior is an example of self-monitoring.

Question 507

When using classical extinction to eliminate a learned (conditioned) response, the:

Answer 507

CS is presented without the US Classical conditioning involves pairing a conditioned stimulus (CS) with an unconditioned stimulus (US) so that the CS produces a response (CR) that is similar to the unconditioned response (UR). To extinguish the CR, the CS is repeatedly presented without the US.

Question 508

Research has demonstrated that behavioral techniques that reduce or eliminate a behavior are more effective when they are combined with techniques that increase alternative behaviors. This probably explains why __________ is often an effective intervention.

Answer 508

differential reinforcement

Question 509

When using reinforcement to establish a new behavior, the most effective approach is to begin with a continuous schedule of reinforcement and then, when the behavior has reached the desired level, switch to an intermittent schedule. The process of switching from a continuous to an intermittent schedule is referred to as:

Answer 509

thinning This question is asking for the term that is used to describe reducing the proportion of reinforcement. Thinning is a technique in which a gradual increase in the intermittency of reinforcement is introduced.

Question 510

Operant extinction would NOT be the treatment-of-choice when:

Answer 510

a temporary increase in the behavior cannot be tolerated Extinction is accomplished by consistently withholding all reinforcement from a previously reinforced behavior. This technique often produces an initial "extinction burst" (i.e., temporary increase in the target behavior). Consequently, it would be contraindicated when a temporary increase in the behavior cannot be tolerated.

Question 511

Images and sounds are maintained in sensory memory for:

Answer 511

less than 5 seconds Sensory memory provides very brief storage of incoming sensory input. It includes a separate store for each sense, and the duration of sensory memory varies somewhat, depending on the sense. For iconic (visual) memories, the duration is about .5 to 1.0 seconds; for echoic (auditory) memories, the duration is up to 4 or 5 seconds.

Question 512

MG frontalis biofeedback is considered by many to be the treatment of choice for tension (muscle contraction) headaches. However, some research suggests that which of the following interventions is as effective, if not more effective, than EMG feedback for this type of headache?

Answer 512

Relaxation training

Question 513

From the perspective of learning theory, phobic anxiety is:

Answer 513

elicited by unconditioned (aversive) stimuli or stimuli that have been associated with the unconditioned stimuli

Question 514

The various intermittent schedules of reinforcement are associated with different response patterns. Which of the following schedules and patterns is INCORRECTLY matched?

Answer 514

Fixed interval: smooth but slow rates of responding with moderate resistance to extinction The specific intermittent schedule of reinforcement used influences how quickly an operant behavior is acquired and how well it is maintained. Note that this question is asking for the schedule that is incorrectly matched with its description. When using a fixed interval schedule, reinforcement is provided after a fixed interval of time as long as the response occurred at least once during that interval. It produces a "scalloped" (not smooth) response pattern characterized by brief pauses in responding following reinforcement and low resistance to extinction. Answer A: When using a variable ratio schedule, reinforcement is provided after a variable number of responses. This schedule does produce stable rates of responding and responses that are highly resistant to extinction. Answer B: The use of a variable interval schedule involves providing reinforcement after random or variable time intervals. It does produce stable rates of responding and low to moderate resistance to extinction. Answer C: The use of a fixed ratio schedule entails consistently providing reinforcement after a fixed number of correct responses. It produces a steady rate of responding with a brief pause following delivery of the reinforcer and it does result in moderately high resistance to extinction.

Question 515

When treating a client with panic disorder, a practitioner of Beck's cognitive-behavioral therapy would initially help the client:

Answer 515

see how they misinterpret the meaning of their symptoms As defined by Aaron Beck, the "goals of cognitive-behavior therapy are to correct faulty information processing and to modify dysfunctional beliefs and assumptions that maintain maladaptive behaviors and emotions" (Comprehensive Handbook of Cognitive Therapy, 1989, p. 28). From the perspective of cognitive-behavior therapy, panic disorder stems from "catastrophic misinterpretations" of bodily sensations and mental experiences. Therefore, the first few sessions of therapy focus on clarifying the nature of the client's symptoms and how they misinterprets them.

Question 516

A key factor in distinguishing between implicit and explicit memory is:

Answer 516

the degree to which recall of the information involves conscious awareness the degree to which recall of the information involves conscious awareness

Question 517

Research investigating the effectiveness of modeling for treating specific phobias has found which of the following methods is generally most effective?

Answer 517

Participant modeling

Question 518

Which of the following interventions does NOT use classical extinction to eliminate an undesirable anxiety response?

Answer 518

Covert sensitization When using classical extinction to eliminate an anxiety response, the individual is exposed to the anxiety-arousing stimulus (which is assumed to be a conditioned stimulus) in the absence of the unconditioned stimulus. Covert sensitization uses counterconditioning to eliminate undesirable self-reinforcing behaviors (e.g., drug use, paraphilias). Of the interventions listed in the answers, only covert sensitization is not based on classical extinction and is not used to eliminate an anxiety response.

Question 519

When using punishment to modify behavior, habituation is most likely to be a problem when:

Answer 519

the intensity of the punishment is gradually increased over time In the context of punishment, habituation refers to a reduction in the effectiveness of punishment. Gradually increasing the intensity of punishment over time (i.e., beginning with a weak form of punishment and then gradually increasing its intensity) increases the likelihood that habituation will occur.

Question 520

In a research study, Variable B is paired with Variable A so that, eventually, the response automatically produced by Variable A is also produced by Variable B. Then, Variable C is paired with Variable B so that it produces the same response. Based on this information, you can conclude that this study was designed to investigate which of the following?

Answer 520

Higher-order conditioning The term "paired with" suggests that this study is investigating some form of classical conditioning. (In classical conditioning, presentation of a conditioned stimulus is paired with presentation of an unconditioned stimulus so that the conditioned stimulus produces a response that is similar to the one produced by the unconditioned stimulus.) This question describes the procedure used in higher-order conditioning. In higher-order conditioning, the initial conditioned stimulus (CS) is treated as an unconditioned stimulus (US) and paired with a neutral stimulus so that the neutral stimulus also produces a conditioned response.

Question 521

Emelina, age 4, has learned that when she approaches her father while he is watching a football game on TV, her father ignores her, but when she approaches her father while he is watching any other type of TV show, he is willing to talk to and play with her. As a result, Emelina only approaches her father when he is not watching football. Emelina's behavior illustrates which of the following?

Answer 521

Stimulus control A behavior is "under stimulus control" when it is more likely to occur in the presence of certain stimuli than in the presence of other stimuli because the stimuli signal whether or not reinforcement for the behavior will be provided. Emelina has learned that she will not be reinforced for approaching her father when he is watching a football game but will be reinforced if she approaches him when he is watching other types of TV shows.

Question 522

The keyword method is most useful for:

Answer 522

remembering word pairs The keyword method is a mnemonic device that involves forming an image that links two words. For example, to remember that "Ranidae" is the scientific term for common frogs, you might create an image of a frog sitting in the rain under an umbrella.

Question 523

Pavlov concluded that spontaneous recovery provided support for which of the following assumptions?

Answer 523

Extinction trials suppress (rather than eliminate) a conditioned response. Spontaneous recovery refers to the re-emergence of a conditioned response following extinction trials without additional conditioning trials. According to Pavlov, the spontaneous re-emergence of a conditioned response after it has been extinguished suggests that extinction trials suppress the conditioned response rather than eliminate it.

Question 524

_________ research with chimpanzees led to his conclusion that the performance of a new behavior may be the result of insight learning.

Answer 524

Kohler's Kohler's research led him to conclude that learning is not just the result of trial-and-error or reinforcement but involves cognitive restructuring, which he referred to as insight learning.

Question 525

The "tip-of-the-tongue" phenomenon is believed to be due to which of the following?

Answer 525

Inadequate retrieval cues The tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon refers to the sense that you know something (e.g., a song or movie title) but are not able to recall it. One theory of the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon is that it is due to insufficient cues that facilitate the retrieval of information stored in long-term memory.

Question 526

The tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon refers to the sense that you know something (e.g., a song or movie title) but are not able to recall it. One theory of the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon is that it is due to insufficient cues that facilitate the retrieval of information stored in long-term memory.

Answer 526

from the beginning and end of the list than the words from the middle of the list In studies investigating the serial position effect, participants are presented with a list of words to remember and asked to recall the words in any order either immediately after reading the list or following a brief delay after reading the list. When participants recall the words immediately after reading the list, more words from the beginning and end of the list are recalled than words from the middle of the list. This is apparently because words at the beginning of the list have been transferred to long-term memory while words at the end of the list are still in short-term memory.

Question 527

Which of the following is an example of higher-order conditioning?

Answer 527

A conditioned stimulus (CS) is paired with an unconditioned stimulus (US) until a conditioned response (CR) is established; subsequently, a second CS is paired with the first CS until it also elicits a CR. This answer describes the procedure known as higher-order conditioning. Higher-order conditioning involves using a conditioned stimulus (CS) as an unconditioned stimulus (US) in order to establish a conditioned response (CR) for a second CS.

Question 528

__________ inhibition occurs when the ability to remember new information is impaired by previously acquired information.

Answer 528

Proactive For the exam, you want to be familiar with the difference between proactive and retroactive inhibition (interference) and between anterograde and retrograde amnesia. Proactive inhibition (interference) occurs when old (previous) learning interferes with the learning or recall of new (subsequent) information.

Question 529

In 1989, Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy revised the 1978 learned helplessness theory of depression. In their revision, _________ is conceptualized as a proximal and sufficient cause of depressive symptoms.

Answer 529

a sense of hopelessness Abramson, Metalsky, and Alloy identified a sense of hopelessness as a proximal cause of depression because in the chain of events leading to depression, it is at the end of the chain, closest to depressive symptoms. They identified it as a sufficient cause because the presence of hopelessness is sufficient to cause depressive symptoms in the absence of any other causal factors.

Question 530

A practitioner of Beck's cognitive behavioral therapy works together with a therapy client to identify and test faulty interpretations. This process is referred to as:

Answer 530

collaborative empiricism A key feature of Beck's cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is its collaborative approach. In CBT, the therapist and client work collaboratively to reality test the client's cognitions. This approach is referred to as collaborative empiricism.

Question 531

Which of the following is an example of operant extinction?

Answer 531

A dad realizes that yelling at his son when he spits is rewarding him by giving him attention, so he begins to ignore his son's unwanted behavior in order to get it to stop. Operant extinction occurs when reinforcement is no longer provided in response to a specific behavior, and as a result, that behavior eventually stops. In this example, the dad is initially reinforcing his son's spitting behavior by yelling at him, which although may typically be thought of as a negative consequence, appears to be functioning as positive reinforcement since it is increasing the frequency of the spitting behavior. By ignoring his son, the dad has removed the reinforcing response, and therefore, the son's spitting will eventually stop.

Question 532

The factors contributing most to a lasting marriage, according to Gottman and Levenson (2000) are:

Answer 532

the couple's ability to resolve conflicts in their relationship In their longitudinal research, Gottman and his colleagues investigated the factors that contribute to marital dissolution. Gottman's cascade theory of marital dissolution predicts that a couple's ability to resolve inevitable conflicts is the key to a lasting relationship.

Question 533

The hostile attribution bias (Crick & Dodge, 1994; Dodge, 1980) states that:

Answer 533

aggressive children are more likely than nonaggressive children to interpret the ambiguous actions of peers as intentionally hostile This is an accurate description of the prediction of the hostile attribution bias, which was originally described by Dodge (1980). It predicts that aggressive children are more likely than nonaggressive children to interpret the ambiguous behaviors of peers as intentionally hostile and, therefore, to react to those peers with aggressive, hostile behaviors. The hostile attribution bias is believed to be due to deficits in social information processing.

Question 534

A test has a standard deviation of 12, a mean of 60, a reliability coefficient of .91, and a validity coefficient of .60. The test's standard error of measurement is equal to:

Answer 534

3.6 To calculate the standard error of measurement, you need to know the standard deviation of the test scores and the test's reliability coefficient. The standard deviation of the test scores is 12 and the reliability coefficient is .91. To calculate the standard error of measurement, you multiply the standard deviation times the square root of one minus the reliability coefficient: 1 minus .91 is .09; the square root of .09 is .3; .3 times 12 is 3.6.

Question 535

A researcher correlates scores on two alternate forms of an achievement test and obtains a correlation coefficient of .80. This means that ___% of observed test score variability reflects true score variability.

Answer 535

80 A reliability coefficient is interpreted directly as a measure of true score variability - a correlation coefficient of .80 would equate to 80%.

Question 536

To estimate the effects of lengthening a 50-item test to 100 items on the test's reliability, you would use which of the following?

Answer 536

Spearman-Brown formula The Spearman-Brown prophecy formula is used to estimate the effects of lengthening or shortening a test on its reliability coefficient.

Question 537

To assess the internal consistency reliability of a test that contains 50 items that are each scored as either "correct" or "incorrect," you would use which of the following?

Answer 537

KR-20 The Kuder Richardson formula (KR-20) is a measure internal consistency reliability that can be used when test items are scored dichotomously (correct or incorrect).

Question 538

You administer a test to a group of examinees on April 1st and then re-administer the same test to the same group of examinees on May 1st. When you correlate the two sets of scores, you will have obtained a coefficient of:

Answer 538

stability. Test-retest reliability indicates the stability of scores over time, and the test-retest reliability coefficient is also known as the coefficient of stability.

Question 539

Test-retest reliability indicates the stability of scores over time, and the test-retest reliability coefficient is also known as the coefficient of stability.

Answer 539

adequate inter-rater reliability. The kappa statistic (coefficient) is a measure of inter-rater reliability. The reliability coefficient ranges in value from 0 to +1.0. Therefore, a kappa statistic of .95 indicates a high degree of inter-rater reliability.

Question 540

For a newly developed test of cognitive flexibility, coefficient alpha is .55. Which of the following would be useful for increasing the size of this coefficient?

Answer 540

Adding more items that are similar in terms of content and quality A test's reliability is increased when the test is lengthened by adding items of similar content and quality, the range of scores is unrestricted (i.e., the tryout sample heterogeneity is maximized), and the ability to choose the correct answer by guessing is reduced (i.e., using multiple-choice items instead of true-false items).

Question 541

Consensual observer drift tends to:

Answer 541

produce an overestimate of a test's inter-rater reliability. Consensual observer drift occurs when two or more observers working together influence each other's ratings on a behavioral rating scale so that they assign ratings in a similar idiosyncratic way. Consensual observer drift makes the ratings of different raters more similar, which artificially increases inter-rater reliability.

Question 542

To determine a test's internal consistency reliability by calculating coefficient alpha, you would:

Answer 542

administer the test to a single sample of examinees one time. Determining internal consistency reliability with coefficient alpha involves administering the test once to a single sample of examinees and using the formula to determine the degree of inter-rater reliability. Answer A: Administering the test to a single sample of examinees on two occasions would be the procedure for assessing test-retest reliability. Answer B: Administering two alternate forms of the test to a single sample of examinees is the procedure for assessing alternate (equivalent) forms reliability. Answer C: Having a test that was administered to a single sample of examinees scored by two raters is the procedure for assessing inter-rater reliability.

Question 543

A problem with using percent agreement as a measure of inter-rater reliability is that it doesn't take into account the effects of:

Answer 543

chance agreement among raters. Inter-rater reliability can be assessed using percent agreement or by calculating the kappa statistic. A disadvantage of percent agreement is that it does not take into account the amount of agreement that could have occurred among raters by change alone, which can provide an inflated estimate of the measure's reliability. The kappa statistic is more accurate because it adjusts the reliability coefficient for the effects of chance agreement.

Question 544

According to classical test theory, total variability in obtained test scores is composed of:

Answer 544

true score variability plus random error. As defined by classical test theory, total variability in test scores is due to a combination of true score variability plus measurement (random) error: X = T + E.

Question 545

Which of the following methods for evaluating reliability is most appropriate for speed tests?

Answer 545

Coefficient of equivalence Of the methods for evaluating reliability, the coefficient of equivalence (also known as alternate or equivalent forms reliability) is most appropriate for speed tests.

Question 546

Your newly developed measure of integrity correlates highly with a well-known and widely used measure of integrity. This correlation provides evidence of your measure's ________ validity.

Answer 546

convergent A high correlation between a new and an established measure of the same construct provides evidence of the new measure's convergent validity.

Question 547

In a multitrait-multimethod matrix, a test's construct validity would by confirmed when:

Answer 547

monotrait-heteromethod coefficients are high and heterotrait-monomethod coefficients are low. When monotrait-heteromethod (same trait-different methods) coefficients are large, this provides evidence of the test's convergent validity; that is, it shows that the test is measuring the trait it was designed to measure. Conversely, when heterotrait-monomethod (different traits-same method) coefficients are small, this provides evidence of the test's discriminant validity; that is, it shows that the test is not measuring a different trait. Of the answer choices, this answer includes evidence of both convergent and discriminant validity, which best contributes to a test's construct validity.

Question 548

Which of the following best defines the relationship between a predictor's reliability coefficient and its criterion-related validity coefficient?

Answer 548

A test's validity coefficient cannot exceed the square root of its reliability coefficient. This answer describes the formula that defines the relationship between reliability and validity--i.e., a test's validity coefficient cannot be greater than the square root of its reliability coefficient. Reliability places a ceiling on validity.

Question 549

The results of a factor analysis indicate that Test A has a factor loading of .70 for Factor I and a factor loading of .20 for Factor II. Assuming that only two factors were extracted and that the factors are orthogonal, you can conclude that the communality for Test A scores is:

Answer 549

0.53 Factor loadings are interpreted like correlation coefficients between two or more variables and are squared to obtain a measure of shared variability. When the factors are orthogonal (uncorrelated), the squared factor loadings can be added to obtain the communality. The factor loading for Factor I is .70 and the factor loading for Factor II is .20: .70 squared is 49% and .20 squared is 4%, so the communality is 49% plus 4%, which equals 53%. This means that the total amount of variability in Test A scores explained by the factor analysis is 53%.

Question 550

When conducting a factor analysis, you would choose an oblique rotation of the factors if:

Answer 550

you believe the constructs measured by the tests included in the analysis are correlated. In factor analysis, orthogonal means uncorrelated, while oblique means correlated. Therefore, you would conduct an oblique rotation if you believe the test you are validating measures constructs that correlate with the constructs measured by other tests conducted in the analysis.

Question 551

The standard error of estimate is used to:

Answer 551

estimate the difference between an examinee's predicted criterion score and his or her true criterion score.

Question 552

In a scatterplot constructed from data collected in a concurrent validity study, the number of "false negatives" is likely to increase if:

Answer 552

the predictor cutoff score is raised and/or the criterion cutoff score is lowered. The number of false negatives increases as the predictor cutoff score is raised (moved to the right in a scatterplot) and when the criterion score is lowered (moved toward the bottom of the scatterplot).

Question 553

Validity is best described as:

Answer 553

accuracy. When a test is valid, it accurately measures the attribute(s) it was designed to measure.

Question 554

A test developer uses a sample of 50 current employees to identify items for and then validate a new selection test (predictor). When she correlates scores on the test with scores on a measure of job performance (criterion) for this sample, she obtains a criterion-related validity coefficient of .63. When the test developer administers the test and the measure of job performance to a new sample of 50 employees, she will most likely obtain a validity coefficient that is:

Answer 554

less than .63. The validity coefficient tends to shrink on the second sample because the test was tailor-made for the initial sample. Chance factors that contributed to the validity coefficient in the initial sample will not all be present in the second sample. This question is asking about "shrinkage," which occurs when a test is cross-validated on another sample.

Question 555

When determining a predictor's incremental validity, the positive hit rate is calculated by:

Answer 555

dividing the number of true positives by the total number of positives. The positive hit rate is calculated by dividing the number of true positives by the total number of positives.

Question 556

A test's specificity refers to the number of __________ that were identified by the test.

Answer 556

true negatives Specificity refers to the identification of true negatives (the percent of cases in the validation sample who do not have the disorder and were accurately classified by the test as not having the disorder). Answer A: True positives are the people who are predicted to succeed by the predictor and who are actually successful on the criterion. A test's sensitivity is the percent of people in the validation sample who have the disorder and were accurately identified by the predictor as having the disorder.

Question 557

A test's content validity is established primarily by which of the following?

Answer 557

Having subject matter experts systematically review the test's items Content validity refers to the degree to which test items are an adequate sample of the content domain and is determined primarily by the judgment of subject matter experts.

Question 558

To ascertain if the test you have developed is valid as a screening test for determining whether a person has an anxiety or affective disorder, you would be most interested in evaluating the test's:

Answer 558

concurrent validity. Concurrent validity is a type of criterion-related validity. It is used to establish validity when the purpose of the test is to estimate current status on a criterion. In this case, the criterion would be some method of diagnosis that is known to be accurate. This situation is analogous to using a predictor to estimate current performance on a criterion. The predictor, in this case, is the screening test, while the criterion is the accuracy of the diagnosis.

Question 559

To evaluate the concurrent validity of a new selection test for computer programmers, you would:

Answer 559

administer the test to current computer programmers and correlate their test scores with recently assigned job performance ratings. Concurrent validity is a type of criterion-related validity and involves correlating scores on the predictor and criterion when both measures have been administered to examinees at about the same time.

Question 560

____________ refers to the percent of examinees who have the condition being assessed by a predictor who are identified by the predictor as having the condition.

Answer 560

Sensitivity Sensitivity refers to the probability that a predictor will correctly identify people with the disorder from the pool of people with the disorder. It is calculated by dividing the number of true positives by the number of true positives plus false negatives. Answer A: Specificity refers to the probability that a predictor will correctly identify people who do not have the disorder. It is calculated by dividing the number of true negatives by the number of true negatives plus false positives. Answer C: The positive predictive value (PPV) indicates the probability that people who test positive have the disorder. It is calculated by dividing the number of true positives by the number of true and false positives. Answer D: The negative predictive value (NPV) indicates the probability that people who test negative do not have the disorder. It is calculated by dividing the number of true negatives by the number of true and false negatives.

Question 561

Assuming a normal distribution, which of the following represents the highest score?

Answer 561

A T-score of 70 For the exam, you want to be familiar with the relationship of z-scores, T-scores, WAIS-IV IQ scores, and percentile ranks in a normal distribution so that you can answer questions like this one. A T-score of 70 is two standard deviations above the mean.

Question 562

Stanford-Binet and Wechsler IQ scores are:

Answer 562

standard scores. Stanford-Binet and Wechsler IQ scores are standard scores that indicate an examinee's performance in terms of standard deviations from the mean obtained by examinees in the norm group. Answer A: Percentile ranks are a type of norm-referenced score. They express an examinee's raw score in terms of the percentage of examinees in the norm sample who achieved lower scores. Answer B: An ipsative score indicates the relative strength of an examinee's status or performance on the various scales of the test. Answer D: Stanines scores are another type of norm-referenced score. Stanine scores divide a distribution of scores into nine parts and have a mean of 5 and a standard deviation of approximately 2.

Question 563

Dina received a percentile rank of 48 on a test, while her twin brother, Dino, received a percentile rank of 98. Their teacher realizes she made an error in scoring their tests and adds four points to Dina's and Dino's raw scores. (The other students' tests were scored correctly.) When she recalculates Dina's and Dino's percentile ranks, the teacher will find that:

Answer 563

Dina's percentile rank will change by more points than Dino's. Percentile ranks maximize differences in the middle of the raw score distribution and minimize differences at the extremes. This general rule means that Dina's percentile rank (which is near the middle of the distribution) will be affected more by the four-point addition to her raw score than Dino's percentile rank (which is extremely high). Dina's percentile rank will change by more points than Dino's.

Question 564

Eigenvalues are associated with:

Answer 564

principal component analysis. An eigenvalue indicates the total amount of variability in a set of tests or other variables that is explained by an identified component or factor. Eigenvalues can be calculated for each component "extracted" in a principal component analysis.

Question 565

Which of the following scores is NOT a norm-referenced score?

Answer 565

Pass or fail When using norm-referenced interpretation, an examinee's score indicates how well he or she did on the test relative to examinees in the norm group. Pass or fail is a criterion-referenced score. It indicates whether a person has or has not mastered the test content and does not measure performance in terms of other examinees. A "pass" score obtained by one examinee does not indicate how many other examinees passed or failed it. Answer A: Percentile ranks are norm-referenced scores. A percentile rank indicates the percent of examinees in the norm group who obtained a lower score. Answer B: A T-score is a type of standard score, and standard scores are norm-referenced scores that indicate how well an examinee did in terms of standard deviation units from the mean score of the norm group. Answer D: A grade-equivalent score is a norm-referenced score. It allows a test user to compare an examinee's test performance to that of students in different grade levels.

Question 566

Linked to abnormalities in the cerebellum, amygdala, and hippocampus and with abnormal levels of Norepinephrine, Serotonin, and Dopamine.

Answer 566

ASD

Question 567

Neurological factors involved in the diagnosis of ____ include neurotransmitter abnormalities, lower than normal activity in the prefrontal cortex and basal ganglia, and a smaller-than-normal cerebellum.

Answer 567

ADHD