Practice Test Review: Scorebuilders Exam #2

Question 1

Describe Myasthenia Gravis

Answer 1

an autoimmune disease that disrupts neuromuscular transmission and results in muscle weakness and fatigability. Weakness increases with repetitive activity but is restored quickly with rest

Question 2

A physical therapist treats a patient diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. Which of the following tests should the therapist MOST likely expect to be abnormal with this condition?

1.Coordination testing
2.Sensory testing
3.Deep tendon reflex testing
4.Endurance testing

Answer 2

4.Endurance testing

Question 3

Where are the trimlines of a posterior leaf split and what type of stability/mobility is provided

Answer 3

trim lines posterior to the malleolus while assisting in DF during swing phase, but no medial or lateral support is given.

Question 4

When is a SAFO indicated to use

Answer 4

when the patient has weak DF/PF’s, and weak inverters and everters

Question 5

If a patient has an AFO with trimlines anterior to the malleolus, what kind of support does the AFO have

Answer 5

Significant stability which allows the tibia to advance over the food during stance phase

Question 6

If a patient is diagnosed with Guillan-Barre syndrome, would you expect them to have symptoms starting proximally and moving distally, or distal symptoms that move proximally

Answer 6

distal to proximal

Question 7

True or False

sensory issues are a common symptom with guillan barre syndrome

Answer 7

false, distal to proximal weakness is the common symptoms

Question 8

Where would a patient have pain in each of the following conditions during active range of motion

1. anterior glenohumeral instability
2. posterior glenohumeral instability
3. acromioclavicular arthritis
4. bicipital tendonitis

Answer 8

1. anterior instability has px with end range lateral rotation
2. posterior instability has px with end range medial rotation
3. acromioclavicular arthritis has px with end range abduction
4. bicipital tendonitis has px with shoulder extension and elbow extended

Question 9

A patient reports shoulder pain during active shoulder range of motion testing. The pain is most pronounced when the shoulder is in 170 to 180 degrees of abduction. This finding is MOST commonly associated with which of the following conditions?

1.Anterior glenohumeral instability
2.Posterior glenohumeral instability
3.Acromioclavicular arthritis
4.Bicipital tendonitis

Answer 9

3.Acromioclavicular arthritis

Question 10

What is benign prostatic hyperplasia

Answer 10

an enlargement of the prostate that squeezes the urethra and interferes with urinary function and sometimes sexual function

Question 11

what is amitriptyline/Elavil indicated for and what is a common side effect

Answer 11

it is a tricyclic antidepressant that has the most common side effect of causing sedation

Question 12

what is a tricyclic antidepressant

Answer 12

a different chemical bond that the first SSRI antidepressants

Question 13

A patient who has been on bed rest for three weeks has developed a plantar flexion contracture. Which phase of the gait cycle would be the MOST problematic for the patient based on the described impairment? Why?

1.Heel strike to foot flat
2.Foot flat to midstance
3.Midstance to heel off
4.Heel off to toe off

Answer 13

3. Midstance to heel off

Normal ROM for stance phase is 20 degrees of PF and 15 of DF. They would need at least ten degrees for midstance and 15 degrees at heel off, a patient with PF contracture will have more trouble with DF

Question 14

Iontophoresis delivers ions into the body for therapeutic purposes using electrical currents. State the indication of each ion listed below

acetate
magnesium
lidocaine
zinc

Answer 14

acetate is negatively charges to treat calcific deposits
magnesium is positively charged and is used as a muscle relaxant and vasodilator
lidocaine is positively charged used to treat pain and acute inflammation
zinc is positively charged and is used to promote healing typically in open lesions or ulcerations

Question 15

What is a lingula and where is it located in the lungs

Answer 15

the medial anterior-inferior portion of the left lung

Question 16

A patient presents to the clinic with cough, dyspnea, and wheezing but no enlarged thorax, which disorder are they most likely to have

1.Asthma
2.Bronchiectasis
3.Chronic bronchitis
4.Emphysema

Answer 16

asthma

Question 17

A patient presents to the clinic with abnormal dilation of the bronchi as well as cough and copious mucopurulent sputum, which disorder are they most likely to have

1.Asthma
2.Bronchiectasis
3.Chronic bronchitis
4.Emphysema

Answer 17

brochiectasis

Question 18

A patient presents to the clinic with hypersecretion of mucus resulting in a productive cough for up to months to years, which disorder are they most likely to have

1.Asthma
2.Bronchiectasis
3.Chronic bronchitis
4.Emphysema

Answer 18

chronic bronchitis

Question 19

A patient presents to the clinic with hyperinflation of the lungs resulting in a barrel shaped configuration of the thorax, which disorder are they most likely to have

1.Asthma
2.Bronchiectasis
3.Chronic bronchitis
4.Emphysema

Answer 19

emphysema

Question 20

What is tidal volume

Answer 20

the total volume of air that is inhaled/exhaled during quiet/regular breathing, which is about ten percent of the total lung capacity

Question 21

what is inspiratory reserve volume

Answer 21

The total extra volume of air that can be inhaled after normal tidal volume, which is 55 percent of total lung capacity

Question 22

what is residual volume

Answer 22

the remaining air in the lungs after a forced expiratory effort, which is about 25 percent of total lung capacity

Question 23

what is functional residual capacity

Answer 23

the total amount of air remain in the lungs after a normal tidal exhale, which is about forty percent of total lung capacity

Question 24

which of the following have the greatest sensitivity for detecting a grade III ACL sprain

1. anterior drawer
2. mcmurray
3. lachman
4. pivot shift

Answer 24

lachman

Question 25

what would be the indication to use a calcium alginate dressing on a wound

Answer 25

moderate to heavy exudate

Question 26

what would be the indication to use hydrocolloid dressing on a wound

Answer 26

partial and full thickness wounds with exudate

Question 27

what would be the indication to use a hydrogel dressing on a wound

Answer 27

commonly used on abrasions, blisters, pressure ulcers with minimal drainage to keep the wound moist

Question 28

what would be the indication to use a transparent film dressing on a wound

Answer 28

to observe the wound while protecting it and allowing oxygen to pass through the permeable dressing

Question 29

which of the following is the only disease that is not genetic

1. cystic fibrosis
2. meningitis
3. phenylketonuria
4. tay-sachs disease

Answer 29

meningitis

Question 30

what is cystic fibrosis

Answer 30

a genetic disease exocrine glands overproduce thick mucous that causes obstruction

Question 31

what is meningitis

Answer 31

inflammation of the meninges of the brain and spinal cord caused by bacteria or viral infection

Question 32

what is phenulkentonuria

Answer 32

common in caucasians that is genetic and involved behavioral and cognitive issues

Question 33

what is tay sachs disease

Answer 33

the absence of deficiency of hexosaminidase a which produces an accumulation of gangliosides in the brain, common in the jewish population

Question 34

what is the position of the foot with calcaneovalgus

Answer 34

the forefoot is curved out laterally and hingfoot is in valgus with full or excessive DF

Question 35

what is the position of the foot with metatarsus adductus

Answer 35

the forefoot is medially curved and hindfoot is normal

Question 36

what is the position of the foot with syndactyly

Answer 36

webbed toes or fingers

Question 37

what is the position of the foot with talipes equinovarus

Answer 37

this is clubfoot, the forefoot is adducted with excessive plantar flexion