Neuromuscular Review Questions #3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which finding is not consistent with the typical clinical presentation of Down syndrome?

transverse palmar crease
elf-like facial features
epicanthic folds
hypotonia

A

elf like facial features

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which of the following is the most common comorbidity present in individuals with Down syndrome?

cerebral palsy
diabetes
congenital heart defect
congenital hip dysplasia

A

congenital heart defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the earliest clinical marker of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?

pain
fasciculations
difficulty sleeping
radiculopathy

A

faciculations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Contralateral spastic hemiparesis and sensory loss of the face and upper extremities more than the lower extremities are the main characteristics of a stroke in which artery?

anterior cerebral artery
posterior cerebral artery
cerebellar artery
middle cerebral artery

A

middle cerebral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Atlantoaxial subluxation due to ligamentous laxity should be screened for in which of the following pathologies?

trisomy 21
osteogenesis imperfecta
myelomeningocele
arthrogryposis

A

trisomy 21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Broca’s area is affected by a CVA that occurs in which of the following vessels?

anterior cerebral artery
middle cerebral artery
posterior cerebral artery
basilar artery

A

middle cerebral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the best method to facilitate elbow extension in a patient with hemiplegia?

by turning the head to the affected side
by turning the head to the uninvolved side
by extending the lower extremities
by flexing the lower extremities

A

by turning the head to the affected side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

A stroke affecting the left hemisphere will typically be characterized by:

impulsive behavior
impaired abstract reasoning
impaired perception of body image
difficulty processing verbal commands

A

difficulty processing verbal commands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Atrophy of the thenar eminence and the first and second lumbricals could result from:

ulnar neuritis
carpal tunnel syndrome
compression of the radial nerve
disruption of the anterior interosseus nerve

A

carpal tunnel syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A selective dorsal rhizotomy is commonly performed to treat spasticity in which condition?

multiple sclerosis
transverse myelitis
myelomeningocele
spastic cerebral palsy

A

spastic cerebral palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which is the most common type of stroke?

hemorrhagic
ischemic
transient ischemic attack
thrombotic

A

ischemic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

An individual with speech impairments has likely sustained a stroke in which artery?

anterior cerebral artery
middle cerebral artery
posterior cerebral artery
vertebrobasilar artery

A

middle cerebral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which disease is characterized by degeneration of upper and lower motor neurons?

Guillain-Barre syndrome
multiple sclerosis
Parkinson’s disease
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

A

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following is classified as a progressive disorder of the central nervous system?

cerebrovascular accident
traumatic brain injury
Alzheimer’s disease
vestibular disorder

A

Alzheimer’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which factor is most commonly related to cerebral palsy?

maternal smoking
maternal alcohol intake
premature birth
inadequate folic acid intake by the mother

A

premature birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following conditions is described as “sensory-sparing?”

T10 spinal cord injury
multiple sclerosis
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
Guillain-Barre syndrome

A

ALS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the most common type of shoulder subluxation in patients with hemiplegia?

posterior subluxation
anterior subluxation
superior subluxation
inferior subluxation

A

inferior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What nerve becomes entrapped in carpal tunnel syndrome?

radial nerve
ulnar nerve
median nerve
medial palmar nerve

A

median

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following is not commonly associated with Down syndrome?

intellectual disability
increased susceptibility to infection
vision or hearing impairments
increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate

A

increased ESR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which test would be appropriate to use on a child with cerebral palsy?

Albert Infant Motor Scale
Romberg Test
Berg Balance Test
Gross Motor Function Measure

A

GMFM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which lobe of the brain includes Broca’s area?

frontal
parietal
temporal
occipital

A

frontal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following areas of the brain plays a primary role in coordination and motor behavior?

brainstem
diencephalon
cerebellum
cerebrum

A

cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which sulcus is pictured between the yellow and pink regions of the brain?

superior temporal sulcus
central sulcus
parieto-occipital sulcus
calcarine sulcus

A

central sulcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which central neurotransmitter is primarily regarded as an excitatory transmitter at the neuromuscular junction in skeletal muscle?

serotonin
dopamine
acetylcholine
gamma-aminobutyric acid

A

acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Which of the following arteries is not considered to be part of the Circle of Willis? posterior communicating artery anterior communicating artery anterior cerebral artery vertebral artery
vertebral
26
The brainstem is made up of the: forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain metencephalon, myelencephalon tectum, tegmentum midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata
midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata
27
Which of the following contains cerebrospinal fluid and the vascular supply for the cerebral cortex? epidural space subdural space subarachnoid space parietal lobe
subarachnoid space
28
Information traveling from the spinal cord to the periphery exits the spinal cord from the: ventral ramus lateral column ventral root anterior column
ventral root
29
Which is not a function of the area of the brain depicted in yellow? auditory processing executive function personality self-awareness
auditory processing
30
The brainstem conveys information between which structures? cerebellum and spinal cord cerebrum and spinal cord cerebellum and cerebrum spinal cord and spinal nerves
cerebrum and spinal cord
31
Injury to the area depicted in orange would most likely result in which impairment? Wernicke’s aphasia personality changes apraxia homonymous hemianopsia
homonymous hemianopsia
32
Which term is most synonymous with the short period of time following an action potential when sodium channels cannot be reactivated? repolarization period relative refractory period depolarization period absolute refractory period
absolute refractory period
33
In the central nervous system, which neurotransmitter is considered inhibitory? norepinephrine glutamate gamma-aminobutyric acid nitric oxide
gamma aminobutryric acid
34
Which division of the nervous system decreases heart rate, cardiac contractility, and stroke volume? central nervous system parasympathetic nervous system peripheral nervous system sympathetic nervous system parasympathetic nervous
parasympathetic nervous system
35
The outer layer of embryonic tissue is termed: endoderm mesoderm ectoderm entoderm
ectoderm
36
Which structure is responsible for regulating respiration rate? A B C D
A
37
The spinal cord ends at approximately what vertebral level? L2 L3 L4 L5
L2
38
Which of the following would not be considered part of the basal ganglia? caudate nucleus putamen globus pallidus pons
pons
39
Which part of the brain is identified by the arrow? corpus callosum cerebral cortex thalamus gyrus cinguli
corpus callosum
40
Which structure in the brain regulates the autonomic nervous system? hypothalamus thalamus frontal lobe medulla oblongata
hypothalamus
41
The large opening in the skull through which the spinal cord passes is called the: foramen magnum foramen ovale foramen spinosum jugular foramen
foramen magnum
42
The putamen and globus pallidus together make up which nucleus in the basal ganglia? subthalamic nucleus red nucleus lentiform nucleus substantia nigra
lentiform nucleus
43
What area of the brain and spinal cord contain the aggregation of nerve cell bodies? grey matter white matter axons microglia
grey matter
44
What is the term for an alpha motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates? motor unit gamma unit alpha unit sensory unit
motor unit
45
What type of peripheral nerve fibers are unmyelinated? A beta A delta A alpha C fibers
C fibers
46
What motor skill would be the last to occur assuming normal development? creeping cruising walking forward walking backward
walking backward
47
Question 2 of 15 Which progression of activities is consistent with the sequence anticipated assuming normal development? quadruped, sitting, standing prone on elbows, crawling, pull to stand kneeling, propped sitting, standing half-kneeling, sitting, bridging
prone on elbows, crawling, pull to stand
48
The growth and development of an infant occurs in which direction? distal to proximal proximal to distal caudal to cephalad dorsal to ventra
proximal to distal
49
During normal development, what often happens to previously learned skills when a child develops a new skill such as walking? improved performance of fine motor skills regression in performance of skills increased postural control immediate abandonment of less advanced skills
regression in performance of skills
50
During normal development, which activity would most likely not occur prior to 8 months of age? rolling from prone to supine sitting independently cruising Supports weight on one hand to reach for toy
cruising
51
At what age should a child be able to sit unsupported? 7 months 8 months 10 months 12 months
seven months
52
According to Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, which age group is most consistent with the emergence of an understanding of cause and effect? 0-2 years old 2-4 years old 4-7 years old 7-12 years old
7-12 years old
53
Which measurement instrument would best assess the gross motor skills of a nine month old? Alberta Infant Motor Scale Gross Motor Function Measure Denver Development Screening Bruininks-Oseretsky Test
alberta infanct motor scale
54
A child at which age would be considered a toddler? 9 months 28 months 38 months 42 months
28 months
55
In which stage of child development does the child develop the ability to dress themselves? infant toddler preschooler school-age children
pre school
56
Which gross motor skill would be considered the most advanced for a normal developing six-month-old infant? independent sitting neck flexion during pull-to-sit cruising on furniture rolls from supine to prone
cruising on furniture
57
Which of the following is an atypical gross motor skill for an infant? bunny hop crawling lateral cruising on furniture reciprocal creeping independent rolling and sitting
bunny hop crawl
58
A preterm infant refers to a baby that is born prior to: 40 weeks gestation 39 weeks gestation 38 weeks gestation 37 weeks gestation
37 weeks gestation
59
Which fontanel typically closes within two to three months of birth? anterior fontanel posterior fontanel lateral fontanel inferior fontanel
posterior fontanel
60
Which timeframe would be most consistent with an infant developing pincer grasp? 4-6 months 7-9 months 10-12 months 13-15 months
10-12 months
61
Which of the following is not a cardinal sign of Parkinson’s disease? resting tremors hyporeflexia bradykinesia rigidity
hyporeflexia
62
Most individuals diagnosed with Guillain-Barre syndrome return to their prior level of function within: 6 months 1 year 2 years 4 years
1 year
63
Which form of multiple sclerosis is characterized by exacerbations that can last days to months and are typically followed by periods of improved function? relapsing remitting secondary progressive primary progressive progressive relapsing
Relapsing remitting
64
Which form of multiple sclerosis is characterized by periods of symptoms and reduction in symptoms followed by a slow, steady progression of increasing disability? relapsing remitting secondary progressive primary progressive progressive relapsing
secondary progressive
65
Which neurodegenerative disease presents with weakness primarily due to the destruction of acetylcholine receptors in muscle tissue? Guillain-Barre syndrome multiple sclerosis myasthenia gravis spinal muscular atrophy
MG
66
Huntington’s disease is a degenerative disease of which of the following structures? cerebrum basal ganglia pons neuromuscular junction
basal ganglia
67
Parkinson’s disease primarily affects what structure? caudate nuclei lentiform nuclei substantia nigra red nucleus
substantia nigra
68
When treating an individual with multiple sclerosis it would be most appropriate to conduct sessions that include resistance training at what time? 9 a.m. 12 p.m. 3 p.m. 6 p.m.
9 a.m. When treating an individual with multiple sclerosis, treatment sessions are best in the morning when body core temperatures tend to be lowest and before fatigue sets in. Exercising at a moderate intensity is recommended to reduce excess fatigue and avoid increasing in core body temperature.
69
Which type of tremor is most commonly seen in patients with Parkinson’s disease? resting action cerebellar psychogenic
resting
70
Reduced expressiveness of the face is defined as: parasthesia hypokinesia trigeminal neuralgia hypomimia
hypomimia
71
Which of the following macronutrients would be most important to limit in a patient with Parkinson’s disease? sugar fat carbohydrate protein
protein A high protein diet can block the effectiveness of the medication Levodopa by competing with it for absorption in the body. Patients are generally advised to follow a high calorie, low protein diet with no more than 15% of calories coming from protein.
72
Which brain structure is impacted in Parkinson’s disease resulting in the depletion of dopamine? hypothalamus thalamus subthalamus substantia nigra
substantia nigr
73
Chorea and dementia are typical clinical signs of which neurologic disorder? multiple sclerosis Guillain-Barre syndrome Parkinson's disease Huntington's disease
Huntington's disease
74
Which of the following hereditary neurologic conditions is characterized by random degeneration of muscle fibers resulting in a progressive decrease in muscle force production? cerebral palsy Parkinson's disease Down syndrome muscular dystrophy
muscular dystrophy
75
A traumatic distraction injury to the C5-C6 cervical roots of the brachial plexus is known as: Erb's palsy Klumpke's palsy radicular paralysis Lhermitte's sign
Erb's palsy
76
Myasthenia gravis typically affects which muscle group first? muscles of mastication muscles of the eye proximal shoulder and hip muscles intrinsic muscles of the hand
Muscles of the eye
77
Micrographia is an impairment typically observed in what condition? Parkinson's disease multiple sclerosis amyotrophic lateral sclerosis Guillain-Barre syndrome
PD Micrographia is defined as abnormally small handwriting
78
What basal ganglia disorder results in involuntary, irregular isolated movements? Huntington's disease Parkinson's disease amyotrophic lateral sclerosis Wilson's disease
Huntington's disease
79
Which of the following conditions is an autoimmune disease that destroys the acetylcholine receptors of muscle cells? Huntington’s chorea Parkinson’s disease amyotrophic lateral sclerosis myasthenia gravis
MG
80
Erb’s palsy results from injury to which structure? cranial nerves left atrium upper brachial plexus lower brachial plexus
upper brachial plexus