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NPTE Exam > Neuromuscular Review Questions #3 > Flashcards

Neuromuscular Review Questions #3 Flashcards

1
Q

Which finding is not consistent with the typical clinical presentation of Down syndrome?

transverse palmar crease
elf-like facial features
epicanthic folds
hypotonia

A

elf like facial features

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2
Q

Which of the following is the most common comorbidity present in individuals with Down syndrome?

cerebral palsy
diabetes
congenital heart defect
congenital hip dysplasia

A

congenital heart defect

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3
Q

What is the earliest clinical marker of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?

pain
fasciculations
difficulty sleeping
radiculopathy

A

faciculations

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4
Q

Contralateral spastic hemiparesis and sensory loss of the face and upper extremities more than the lower extremities are the main characteristics of a stroke in which artery?

anterior cerebral artery
posterior cerebral artery
cerebellar artery
middle cerebral artery

A

middle cerebral artery

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5
Q

Atlantoaxial subluxation due to ligamentous laxity should be screened for in which of the following pathologies?

trisomy 21
osteogenesis imperfecta
myelomeningocele
arthrogryposis

A

trisomy 21

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6
Q

Broca’s area is affected by a CVA that occurs in which of the following vessels?

anterior cerebral artery
middle cerebral artery
posterior cerebral artery
basilar artery

A

middle cerebral artery

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7
Q

What is the best method to facilitate elbow extension in a patient with hemiplegia?

by turning the head to the affected side
by turning the head to the uninvolved side
by extending the lower extremities
by flexing the lower extremities

A

by turning the head to the affected side

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8
Q

A stroke affecting the left hemisphere will typically be characterized by:

impulsive behavior
impaired abstract reasoning
impaired perception of body image
difficulty processing verbal commands

A

difficulty processing verbal commands

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9
Q

Atrophy of the thenar eminence and the first and second lumbricals could result from:

ulnar neuritis
carpal tunnel syndrome
compression of the radial nerve
disruption of the anterior interosseus nerve

A

carpal tunnel syndrome

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10
Q

A selective dorsal rhizotomy is commonly performed to treat spasticity in which condition?

multiple sclerosis
transverse myelitis
myelomeningocele
spastic cerebral palsy

A

spastic cerebral palsy

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11
Q

Which is the most common type of stroke?

hemorrhagic
ischemic
transient ischemic attack
thrombotic

A

ischemic

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12
Q

An individual with speech impairments has likely sustained a stroke in which artery?

anterior cerebral artery
middle cerebral artery
posterior cerebral artery
vertebrobasilar artery

A

middle cerebral artery

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13
Q

Which disease is characterized by degeneration of upper and lower motor neurons?

Guillain-Barre syndrome
multiple sclerosis
Parkinson’s disease
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

A

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

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14
Q

Which of the following is classified as a progressive disorder of the central nervous system?

cerebrovascular accident
traumatic brain injury
Alzheimer’s disease
vestibular disorder

A

Alzheimer’s disease

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15
Q

Which factor is most commonly related to cerebral palsy?

maternal smoking
maternal alcohol intake
premature birth
inadequate folic acid intake by the mother

A

premature birth

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16
Q

Which of the following conditions is described as “sensory-sparing?”

T10 spinal cord injury
multiple sclerosis
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
Guillain-Barre syndrome

A

ALS

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17
Q

What is the most common type of shoulder subluxation in patients with hemiplegia?

posterior subluxation
anterior subluxation
superior subluxation
inferior subluxation

A

inferior

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18
Q

What nerve becomes entrapped in carpal tunnel syndrome?

radial nerve
ulnar nerve
median nerve
medial palmar nerve

A

median

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19
Q

Which of the following is not commonly associated with Down syndrome?

intellectual disability
increased susceptibility to infection
vision or hearing impairments
increased erythrocyte sedimentation rate

A

increased ESR

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20
Q

Which test would be appropriate to use on a child with cerebral palsy?

Albert Infant Motor Scale
Romberg Test
Berg Balance Test
Gross Motor Function Measure

A

GMFM

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21
Q

Which lobe of the brain includes Broca’s area?

frontal
parietal
temporal
occipital

A

frontal

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22
Q

Which of the following areas of the brain plays a primary role in coordination and motor behavior?

brainstem
diencephalon
cerebellum
cerebrum

A

cerebellum

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23
Q

Which sulcus is pictured between the yellow and pink regions of the brain?

superior temporal sulcus
central sulcus
parieto-occipital sulcus
calcarine sulcus

A

central sulcus

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24
Q

Which central neurotransmitter is primarily regarded as an excitatory transmitter at the neuromuscular junction in skeletal muscle?

serotonin
dopamine
acetylcholine
gamma-aminobutyric acid

A

acetylcholine

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25
Q

Which of the following arteries is not considered to be part of the Circle of Willis?

posterior communicating artery
anterior communicating artery
anterior cerebral artery
vertebral artery

A

vertebral

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26
Q

The brainstem is made up of the:

forebrain, midbrain, hindbrain
metencephalon, myelencephalon
tectum, tegmentum
midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata

A

midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata

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27
Q

Which of the following contains cerebrospinal fluid and the vascular supply for the cerebral cortex?

epidural space
subdural space
subarachnoid space
parietal lobe

A

subarachnoid space

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28
Q

Information traveling from the spinal cord to the periphery exits the spinal cord from the:

ventral ramus
lateral column
ventral root
anterior column

A

ventral root

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29
Q

Which is not a function of the area of the brain depicted in yellow?

auditory processing
executive function
personality
self-awareness

A

auditory processing

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30
Q

The brainstem conveys information between which structures?

cerebellum and spinal cord
cerebrum and spinal cord
cerebellum and cerebrum
spinal cord and spinal nerves

A

cerebrum and spinal cord

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31
Q

Injury to the area depicted in orange would most likely result in which impairment?

Wernicke’s aphasia
personality changes
apraxia
homonymous hemianopsia

A

homonymous hemianopsia

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32
Q

Which term is most synonymous with the short period of time following an action potential when sodium channels cannot be reactivated?

repolarization period
relative refractory period
depolarization period
absolute refractory period

A

absolute refractory period

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33
Q

In the central nervous system, which neurotransmitter is considered inhibitory?

norepinephrine
glutamate
gamma-aminobutyric acid
nitric oxide

A

gamma aminobutryric acid

34
Q

Which division of the nervous system decreases heart rate, cardiac contractility, and stroke volume?

central nervous system
parasympathetic nervous system
peripheral nervous system
sympathetic nervous system parasympathetic nervous

A

parasympathetic nervous system

35
Q

The outer layer of embryonic tissue is termed:

endoderm
mesoderm
ectoderm
entoderm

A

ectoderm

36
Q

Which structure is responsible for regulating respiration rate?

A
B
C
D

A

A

37
Q

The spinal cord ends at approximately what vertebral level?

L2
L3
L4
L5

A

L2

38
Q

Which of the following would not be considered part of the basal ganglia?

caudate nucleus
putamen
globus pallidus
pons

A

pons

39
Q

Which part of the brain is identified by the arrow?

corpus callosum
cerebral cortex
thalamus
gyrus cinguli

A

corpus callosum

40
Q

Which structure in the brain regulates the autonomic nervous system?

hypothalamus
thalamus
frontal lobe
medulla oblongata

A

hypothalamus

41
Q

The large opening in the skull through which the spinal cord passes is called the:

foramen magnum
foramen ovale
foramen spinosum
jugular foramen

A

foramen magnum

42
Q

The putamen and globus pallidus together make up which nucleus in the basal ganglia?

subthalamic nucleus
red nucleus
lentiform nucleus
substantia nigra

A

lentiform nucleus

43
Q

What area of the brain and spinal cord contain the aggregation of nerve cell bodies?

grey matter
white matter
axons
microglia

A

grey matter

44
Q

What is the term for an alpha motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates?

motor unit
gamma unit
alpha unit
sensory unit

A

motor unit

45
Q

What type of peripheral nerve fibers are unmyelinated?

A beta
A delta
A alpha
C fibers

A

C fibers

46
Q

What motor skill would be the last to occur assuming normal development?

creeping
cruising
walking forward
walking backward

A

walking backward

47
Q

Question 2 of 15

Which progression of activities is consistent with the sequence anticipated assuming normal development?

quadruped, sitting, standing
prone on elbows, crawling, pull to stand
kneeling, propped sitting, standing
half-kneeling, sitting, bridging

A

prone on elbows, crawling, pull to stand

48
Q

The growth and development of an infant occurs in which direction?

distal to proximal
proximal to distal
caudal to cephalad
dorsal to ventra

A

proximal to distal

49
Q

During normal development, what often happens to previously learned skills when a child develops a new skill such as walking?

improved performance of fine motor skills
regression in performance of skills
increased postural control
immediate abandonment of less advanced skills

A

regression in performance of skills

50
Q

During normal development, which activity would most likely not occur prior to 8 months of age?

rolling from prone to supine
sitting independently
cruising
Supports weight on one hand to reach for toy

A

cruising

51
Q

At what age should a child be able to sit unsupported?

7 months
8 months
10 months
12 months

A

seven months

52
Q

According to Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, which age group is most consistent with the emergence of an understanding of cause and effect?

0-2 years old
2-4 years old
4-7 years old
7-12 years old

A

7-12 years old

53
Q

Which measurement instrument would best assess the gross motor skills of a nine month old?

Alberta Infant Motor Scale
Gross Motor Function Measure
Denver Development Screening
Bruininks-Oseretsky Test

A

alberta infanct motor scale

54
Q

A child at which age would be considered a toddler?

9 months
28 months
38 months
42 months

A

28 months

55
Q

In which stage of child development does the child develop the ability to dress themselves?

infant
toddler
preschooler
school-age children

A

pre school

56
Q

Which gross motor skill would be considered the most advanced for a normal developing six-month-old infant?

independent sitting
neck flexion during pull-to-sit
cruising on furniture
rolls from supine to prone

A

cruising on furniture

57
Q

Which of the following is an atypical gross motor skill for an infant?

bunny hop crawling
lateral cruising on furniture
reciprocal creeping
independent rolling and sitting

A

bunny hop crawl

58
Q

A preterm infant refers to a baby that is born prior to:

40 weeks gestation
39 weeks gestation
38 weeks gestation
37 weeks gestation

A

37 weeks gestation

59
Q

Which fontanel typically closes within two to three months of birth?

anterior fontanel
posterior fontanel
lateral fontanel
inferior fontanel

A

posterior fontanel

60
Q

Which timeframe would be most consistent with an infant developing pincer grasp?

4-6 months
7-9 months
10-12 months
13-15 months

A

10-12 months

61
Q

Which of the following is not a cardinal sign of Parkinson’s disease?

resting tremors
hyporeflexia
bradykinesia
rigidity

A

hyporeflexia

62
Q

Most individuals diagnosed with Guillain-Barre syndrome return to their prior level of function within:

6 months
1 year
2 years
4 years

A

1 year

63
Q

Which form of multiple sclerosis is characterized by exacerbations that can last days to months and are typically followed by periods of improved function?

relapsing remitting
secondary progressive
primary progressive
progressive relapsing

A

Relapsing remitting

64
Q

Which form of multiple sclerosis is characterized by periods of symptoms and reduction in symptoms followed by a slow, steady progression of increasing disability?

relapsing remitting
secondary progressive
primary progressive
progressive relapsing

A

secondary progressive

65
Q

Which neurodegenerative disease presents with weakness primarily due to the destruction of acetylcholine receptors in muscle tissue?

Guillain-Barre syndrome
multiple sclerosis
myasthenia gravis
spinal muscular atrophy

A

MG

66
Q

Huntington’s disease is a degenerative disease of which of the following structures?

cerebrum
basal ganglia
pons
neuromuscular junction

A

basal ganglia

67
Q

Parkinson’s disease primarily affects what structure?

caudate nuclei
lentiform nuclei
substantia nigra
red nucleus

A

substantia nigra

68
Q

When treating an individual with multiple sclerosis it would be most appropriate to conduct sessions that include resistance training at what time?

9 a.m.
12 p.m.
3 p.m.
6 p.m.

A

9 a.m.

When treating an individual with multiple sclerosis, treatment sessions are best in the morning when body core temperatures tend to be lowest and before fatigue sets in. Exercising at a moderate intensity is recommended to reduce excess fatigue and avoid increasing in core body temperature.

69
Q

Which type of tremor is most commonly seen in patients with Parkinson’s disease?

resting
action
cerebellar
psychogenic

A

resting

70
Q

Reduced expressiveness of the face is defined as:

parasthesia
hypokinesia
trigeminal neuralgia
hypomimia

A

hypomimia

71
Q

Which of the following macronutrients would be most important to limit in a patient with Parkinson’s disease?

sugar
fat
carbohydrate
protein

A

protein
A high protein diet can block the effectiveness of the medication Levodopa by competing with it for absorption in the body. Patients are generally advised to follow a high calorie, low protein diet with no more than 15% of calories coming from protein.

72
Q

Which brain structure is impacted in Parkinson’s disease resulting in the depletion of dopamine?

hypothalamus
thalamus
subthalamus
substantia nigra

A

substantia nigr

73
Q

Chorea and dementia are typical clinical signs of which neurologic disorder?

multiple sclerosis
Guillain-Barre syndrome
Parkinson’s disease
Huntington’s disease

A

Huntington’s disease

74
Q

Which of the following hereditary neurologic conditions is characterized by random degeneration of muscle fibers resulting in a progressive decrease in muscle force production?

cerebral palsy
Parkinson’s disease
Down syndrome
muscular dystrophy

A

muscular dystrophy

75
Q

A traumatic distraction injury to the C5-C6 cervical roots of the brachial plexus is known as:

Erb’s palsy
Klumpke’s palsy
radicular paralysis
Lhermitte’s sign

A

Erb’s palsy

76
Q

Myasthenia gravis typically affects which muscle group first?

muscles of mastication
muscles of the eye
proximal shoulder and hip muscles
intrinsic muscles of the hand

A

Muscles of the eye

77
Q

Micrographia is an impairment typically observed in what condition?

Parkinson’s disease
multiple sclerosis
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
Guillain-Barre syndrome

A

PD
Micrographia is defined as abnormally small handwriting

78
Q

What basal ganglia disorder results in involuntary, irregular isolated movements?

Huntington’s disease
Parkinson’s disease
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
Wilson’s disease

A

Huntington’s disease

79
Q

Which of the following conditions is an autoimmune disease that destroys the acetylcholine receptors of muscle cells?

Huntington’s chorea
Parkinson’s disease
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
myasthenia gravis

A

MG

80
Q

Erb’s palsy results from injury to which structure?

cranial nerves
left atrium
upper brachial plexus
lower brachial plexus

A

upper brachial plexus

NPTE Exam (54 decks)

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