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NPTE Exam > Non-Systems: Study Set 1 > Flashcards

Non-Systems: Study Set 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is a button hook?

A

It is a device that allows individuals with limited dexterity to button clothing using a handheld device

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2
Q

What if an individual is unable to utilize a button hook, what would be an alternative option?

A

velcro instead of buttons

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3
Q

Is a commode lower, equal to, or higher than the height of a standard toilet

A

higher

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4
Q

What is the purpose of a door knob extender?

A

it increases leverage to make opening or closing a door easier for those with decreased strength or dexterity

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5
Q

What adaptive equipment would you consider for a patient having difficulty writing due to limited dexterity and pinch strength?

A

Handwriting aids that enlarge writing devices by using a triangular grip or cylindrical foam

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6
Q

What is a rocker knife

A

A knife with a curved blade and enlarged handle to allow food to be cut using a rocking motion

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7
Q

What are the four primary indications for using an AD during ambulation

A

Decreased WB on LE
Muscle weakness of the trunk or LE
Decreased balance or impaired kinesthetic awareness
Pain

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8
Q

Proper fit of parallel bars allows for ___-___ degrees of elbow flexion while grasping on the bars approximately ___-___ inches in front of the body

A

20-25
4-6

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9
Q

Proper fit of a walker allows for what degree of elbow flexion

A

20-25

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10
Q

What gait pattern does a walker use

A

three point

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11
Q

What is the proper fit for axillary crutches

A

No more than three finger widths from the axilla and a handgrip that allows 20-25 degrees of elbow flexion - which is about the level of the ulnar styloid

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12
Q

Which assistive devices requires the highest level of coordination during ambulation

A

loftstrand/forearm crutches

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13
Q

What is the proper fit for loftstrand crutches

A

Allows 20-25 degrees of elbow flexion, 1-1.5 inches below the olecranon process.

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14
Q

True or False:

A standard single point cane should not be used for patients that are partial weight bearing

A

true

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15
Q

What are the five levels of weight bearing status

A

NWB - Non weight bearing
TTWB - toe touch weight bearing
PWB - partial
WBAT - as tolerated
FWB - full weight bearing

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16
Q

How should a PT guard a patient during ambulation

A

Stand to the side and slightly behind on the affected side
Move the lead foot forward when the patient moves and the back leg moves forward when the patient ambulates

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17
Q

When is an ultralight WC indicated

A

If they are highly active with no need for support; sports

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18
Q

When is a standard or lightweight frame WC indicated

A

Able to self propel using both UE, LE ROM, and ability to sit for periods of time

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19
Q

When is a hemi frame WC indicated

A

Patient can self propel with LE

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20
Q

When is a one hand drive frame WC indicated

A

Patient propels with one hand

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21
Q

When is an amputee frame WC indicated

A

Patient is able to self propel, but center of gravity is shifted posteriorly due to amputation

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22
Q

When is a power WC indicated

A

When the patient cannot self propel but can safely operate a power device. The patient may have transfer, sitting, and or UE functional limitations

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23
Q

When is a geri WC indicated

A

Patient cannot self propel or safely opeate a power mobility device; requires assistance for seated mobility

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24
Q

When is a reclining frame WC indicated

A

Patient is unable to perform weight shifting tasks and/or is unable to sit upright for extended periods; moderate to severe trunk involvement

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25
Q

When is a backward tilt in space WC frame indicated

A

Patient is unable to sit upright or perform weight shifts, but also has issues with sliding or extensor tone

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26
Q

When is a planar/flat posterior headrest for a wheelchair indicated

A

When a patient uses a tilt in space frame or the patient tends to maintain a hyperextended head/neck position in upright sitting position

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27
Q

When is a curved headrest for a wheelchair indicated

A

When the patient tends to maintain lateral head and neck positioning in sitting; more aggressive support

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28
Q

When is a sling back insert for a wheelchair indicated

A

short term use with no true postural support deficits

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29
Q

When is a planar back insert for a wheelchair indicated

A

for mild to moderate trunk support due to tone, strength, or deformity related postural concerns

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30
Q

When is a curved back insert for a wheelchair indicated

A

Patient requires moderate trunk support due to tone, strength, or deformity related postural concerns

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31
Q

What type of orthosis is this and what is its function?

A

Corset - provides abdominal compression and support to relieve pain in the mid to low back

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32
Q

What type of orthosis is this and what is its function?

A

Halo vest - Limits all cervical motion; typically after SCI or surgeries

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33
Q

What type of orthosis is this and what is its function?

A

Milwaukee - promotes realignment of the spine from scoliosis curvature to

34
Q

What type of orthosis is this and what is its function?

A

TLSO or Thoracolumbosacral orthosis - Prevents all trunk movement typically used after surgery for stabilization

35
Q

What type of orthosis is this and what is its function?

A

Taylor brace - prevents flexion and extension of the thoracolumbosacral region

36
Q

What type of orthosis is this and what is its function?

A

SAFO - Can be set to control PF/DF or IV/EV with a trimline anterior to the malleoli

37
Q

True or False:

A SAFO has a trimline posterior to the malleolus

A

False, anterior

38
Q

What does having a trimline anterior to the malleolus do for the function of a SAFO

A

It allows the tibia to advance over the foot during mid to late stance phase of gait

39
Q

What type of orthosis is this and what is its function?

A

Posterior leaf splint - Assist with DF and prevent foot drop with a trim line posterior to the malleoli

40
Q

What type of orthosis is this and what is its function?

A

A floor reaction AFO - assists with knee extension during stance through positioning of a calf band and/or positioning at the ankle.

41
Q

What type of orthosis is this and what is its function?

A

KAFO - Provides support and stability to the knee and ankle

42
Q

What type of orthosis is this and what is its function?

A

Craig Scott KAFO - a KAFO designed for persons with paraplegia that allows a person to stand with a posterior lean of the trunk

43
Q

What type of orthosis is this and what is its function?

A

HKAFO - for bilateral weakness of the whole LE. Also controls hip Abduction and adduction

44
Q

What type of orthosis is this and what is its function?

A

Reciprocating gait orthosis - a HKAFO with a cable system that advances the limbs while ambulating. Primarily used for paraplegia patients

45
Q

What type of orthosis is this and what is its function?

A

Parapodium - a standing frame that ambulates by shifting weight a rocking the base across the floor, primarily for pediatrics

46
Q

Why would a PT choose to use a heel wedge as a shoe modification

A

For pes planus or pes cavus

A medial heel wedge will prevent excessive eversion. A lateral heel wedge will prevent excessive inversion.

47
Q

Why would a PT choose to use a heel lift as a shoe modification

A

used to take pressure off the achilles tendon or to limit the effects of leg length discrepancy

48
Q

Why would a PT choose to use a heel cushion as a shoe modification

A

To reduce pain, typically used for patients with a calcaneal spur or plantar fasciitis

49
Q

Why would a PT choose to use a heel cup as a shoe modification

A

It stabilizes the calcaneus in a neutral position and provides some shock absorption. A heel cup covers the plantar surface of the heel and extends upward on all three sides

50
Q

Why would a PT choose to use a metatarsal bar as a shoe modification

A

To relieve pressure from the met heads by transferring it to the met shafts. Used for patients with metatarsalgia. The bar is placed just posterior to the met heads.

51
Q

Why would a PT choose to use a rocker bar as a shoe modification

A

It is used to assist in terminal stance during gait especially in those with limited great toe mobility. It also relieves pressure from the met heads because it’s placement is the same as a metatarsal bar, except a rocker bar is convex shaped.

52
Q

What shoe modification can be added to an AFO for tone reduction

A

foot plate

53
Q

What pediatric condition is likely to lead to the use of a RGO

A

spinabifida

54
Q

What type of edema would be contraindicated for the use of an orthotic

A

Fluctuating

55
Q

Which type of diagnostic imaging is an invasive procedure that uses x-ray imaging and an infected contrast dye to visualize blood vessels?

A

angiography/arteriography

56
Q

During an angiography/arteriography, where is the catheter inserted?

A

An artery in either the groin or arm and then is guided up to the heart.

57
Q

What diagnoses is an angiography/arteriography used to test for

A

arteriosclerosis, aneurysm, vascular malformations, tumors, or blockages

58
Q

Which diagnostic imaging is useful for diagnosing vascular abnormalities, but is invasive and has the potential to cause an allergic reaction from the dye?

A

angiography/arteriography

59
Q

Which diagnostic imaging type is an invasive procedure that uses x-ray imaging and an injected contrast dye to visualize joint structures

A

arthrography

60
Q

What diagnoses is an arthrography used to test for?

A

pathologies of joint structures like ligamentous or capsular tears of peripheral joints.

61
Q

Which diagnostic imaging allows for a more detailed image of a joint compared to an xray, but is invasive, not recommended for patients with arthritis/joint infection, and has the potential to cause an allergic reaction from the dye

A

arthrography

62
Q

Which diagnostic imaging is an invasive procedure used to provide detailed information on bony structures by scanning the body with a gamma camera after infecting a radionuclide into the body, to see which bones have taken up the radioactive material?

A

bone scan

63
Q

What does it mean of the bones have taken up the radionuclide on a bone scan

A

That is the area with remodeling of bone since the radioactive material is taken up by the osteoblast cells within the bone.

64
Q

What diagnoses are tested for with a bone scan

A

stress fractures, infection, and cancer

65
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of a bone scan

A

A: provides more detailed info than an xray and is less expensive than a PET scan

D: invasive, takes a long time where the patient must sit still, can cause an allergic reaction, pregnancy is contraindicated

66
Q

Which type of diagnostic imaging is non-invasive that uses x-ray images from multiple angles and combines cross sections to produce an image?

A

CT scan

67
Q

What diagnoses can a CT scan identify

A

Can image any structure in the body, but is mostly used for spinal lesions and studies of the brain.

68
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of CT scan

A

A: quick results, can image multiple structures at the same time, more detailed than x ray

D: higher dose of radiation, patient is in a small space during scan, dye may cause an allergic reaction, not during pregnancy

69
Q

Which type of diagnostic imaging is a non invasive procedure used to recored the elctrical activity of the brain

A

Electroencephalography (EEG)

70
Q

What are some diagnoses that can be confirmed using an EEG

A

narcolepsy or epilepsy

71
Q

Which diagnostic imaging technique records the electrical activity of a selected muscle group at rest and during voluntary contraction

A

EMG - electromyography

72
Q

Which DI technique is designed to show motion within the body with the use of xray imaging and injection of a contrast dye.

A

Fluoroscopy

73
Q

Which DI technique is performed by drawing CSF from the subarachnoid space in the lumbar spine to test for brain and spinal pathologies

A

lumbar puncture

74
Q

What DI technique would be used to confirm the diagnosis of encephalitis, meningitis, and Guillain-Barre syndrome

A

lumbar puncture

75
Q

What is a contraindication of performing a lumbar puncture

A

If the patient has increased intracranial pressure

76
Q

True or False:

An MRI does not use radiation

A

true

77
Q

What is a nerve conduction test and why is it performed

A

Uses electrodes to measure the speed of an electrical impulse through a nerve to rule out a muscle or nerve pathology.

78
Q

What does a PET scan measure and what area of practice is it commonly used in

A

The amount of metabolic activity of an organ or tissue, and is commonly used in oncology to identify malignant tumors

79
Q

What DI technique is used to visualize the venous system by injecting a dye into a vein in the foot and is commonly used to diagnose DVT and tumors

A

venography

80
Q

Which of the following is meant for short term liquid feeding?

NG tube
G tube
J tube
IV system

A

NG tube

81
Q

What is the purpose of an arterial line

A

It is a more accurate measure of BP than traditional method

82
Q

How many liters can a nasal cannula deliver per minute

A

6 L per minute

NPTE Exam (54 decks)

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