Non-Systems: Study Set 1 Flashcards
What is a button hook?
It is a device that allows individuals with limited dexterity to button clothing using a handheld device
What if an individual is unable to utilize a button hook, what would be an alternative option?
velcro instead of buttons
Is a commode lower, equal to, or higher than the height of a standard toilet
higher
What is the purpose of a door knob extender?
it increases leverage to make opening or closing a door easier for those with decreased strength or dexterity
What adaptive equipment would you consider for a patient having difficulty writing due to limited dexterity and pinch strength?
Handwriting aids that enlarge writing devices by using a triangular grip or cylindrical foam
What is a rocker knife
A knife with a curved blade and enlarged handle to allow food to be cut using a rocking motion
What are the four primary indications for using an AD during ambulation
Decreased WB on LE
Muscle weakness of the trunk or LE
Decreased balance or impaired kinesthetic awareness
Pain
Proper fit of parallel bars allows for ___-___ degrees of elbow flexion while grasping on the bars approximately ___-___ inches in front of the body
20-25
4-6
Proper fit of a walker allows for what degree of elbow flexion
20-25
What gait pattern does a walker use
three point
What is the proper fit for axillary crutches
No more than three finger widths from the axilla and a handgrip that allows 20-25 degrees of elbow flexion - which is about the level of the ulnar styloid
Which assistive devices requires the highest level of coordination during ambulation
loftstrand/forearm crutches
What is the proper fit for loftstrand crutches
Allows 20-25 degrees of elbow flexion, 1-1.5 inches below the olecranon process.
True or False:
A standard single point cane should not be used for patients that are partial weight bearing
true
What are the five levels of weight bearing status
NWB - Non weight bearing
TTWB - toe touch weight bearing
PWB - partial
WBAT - as tolerated
FWB - full weight bearing
How should a PT guard a patient during ambulation
Stand to the side and slightly behind on the affected side
Move the lead foot forward when the patient moves and the back leg moves forward when the patient ambulates
When is an ultralight WC indicated
If they are highly active with no need for support; sports
When is a standard or lightweight frame WC indicated
Able to self propel using both UE, LE ROM, and ability to sit for periods of time
When is a hemi frame WC indicated
Patient can self propel with LE
When is a one hand drive frame WC indicated
Patient propels with one hand
When is an amputee frame WC indicated
Patient is able to self propel, but center of gravity is shifted posteriorly due to amputation
When is a power WC indicated
When the patient cannot self propel but can safely operate a power device. The patient may have transfer, sitting, and or UE functional limitations
When is a geri WC indicated
Patient cannot self propel or safely opeate a power mobility device; requires assistance for seated mobility
When is a reclining frame WC indicated
Patient is unable to perform weight shifting tasks and/or is unable to sit upright for extended periods; moderate to severe trunk involvement
When is a backward tilt in space WC frame indicated
Patient is unable to sit upright or perform weight shifts, but also has issues with sliding or extensor tone
When is a planar/flat posterior headrest for a wheelchair indicated
When a patient uses a tilt in space frame or the patient tends to maintain a hyperextended head/neck position in upright sitting position
When is a curved headrest for a wheelchair indicated
When the patient tends to maintain lateral head and neck positioning in sitting; more aggressive support
When is a sling back insert for a wheelchair indicated
short term use with no true postural support deficits
When is a planar back insert for a wheelchair indicated
for mild to moderate trunk support due to tone, strength, or deformity related postural concerns
When is a curved back insert for a wheelchair indicated
Patient requires moderate trunk support due to tone, strength, or deformity related postural concerns
What type of orthosis is this and what is its function?
Corset - provides abdominal compression and support to relieve pain in the mid to low back
What type of orthosis is this and what is its function?
Halo vest - Limits all cervical motion; typically after SCI or surgeries
What type of orthosis is this and what is its function?
Milwaukee - promotes realignment of the spine from scoliosis curvature to
What type of orthosis is this and what is its function?
TLSO or Thoracolumbosacral orthosis - Prevents all trunk movement typically used after surgery for stabilization
What type of orthosis is this and what is its function?
Taylor brace - prevents flexion and extension of the thoracolumbosacral region
What type of orthosis is this and what is its function?
SAFO - Can be set to control PF/DF or IV/EV with a trimline anterior to the malleoli
True or False:
A SAFO has a trimline posterior to the malleolus
False, anterior
What does having a trimline anterior to the malleolus do for the function of a SAFO
It allows the tibia to advance over the foot during mid to late stance phase of gait
What type of orthosis is this and what is its function?
Posterior leaf splint - Assist with DF and prevent foot drop with a trim line posterior to the malleoli
What type of orthosis is this and what is its function?
A floor reaction AFO - assists with knee extension during stance through positioning of a calf band and/or positioning at the ankle.
What type of orthosis is this and what is its function?
KAFO - Provides support and stability to the knee and ankle
What type of orthosis is this and what is its function?
Craig Scott KAFO - a KAFO designed for persons with paraplegia that allows a person to stand with a posterior lean of the trunk
What type of orthosis is this and what is its function?
HKAFO - for bilateral weakness of the whole LE. Also controls hip Abduction and adduction
What type of orthosis is this and what is its function?
Reciprocating gait orthosis - a HKAFO with a cable system that advances the limbs while ambulating. Primarily used for paraplegia patients
What type of orthosis is this and what is its function?
Parapodium - a standing frame that ambulates by shifting weight a rocking the base across the floor, primarily for pediatrics
Why would a PT choose to use a heel wedge as a shoe modification
For pes planus or pes cavus
A medial heel wedge will prevent excessive eversion. A lateral heel wedge will prevent excessive inversion.
Why would a PT choose to use a heel lift as a shoe modification
used to take pressure off the achilles tendon or to limit the effects of leg length discrepancy
Why would a PT choose to use a heel cushion as a shoe modification
To reduce pain, typically used for patients with a calcaneal spur or plantar fasciitis
Why would a PT choose to use a heel cup as a shoe modification
It stabilizes the calcaneus in a neutral position and provides some shock absorption. A heel cup covers the plantar surface of the heel and extends upward on all three sides
Why would a PT choose to use a metatarsal bar as a shoe modification
To relieve pressure from the met heads by transferring it to the met shafts. Used for patients with metatarsalgia. The bar is placed just posterior to the met heads.
Why would a PT choose to use a rocker bar as a shoe modification
It is used to assist in terminal stance during gait especially in those with limited great toe mobility. It also relieves pressure from the met heads because it’s placement is the same as a metatarsal bar, except a rocker bar is convex shaped.
What shoe modification can be added to an AFO for tone reduction
foot plate
What pediatric condition is likely to lead to the use of a RGO
spinabifida
What type of edema would be contraindicated for the use of an orthotic
Fluctuating
Which type of diagnostic imaging is an invasive procedure that uses x-ray imaging and an infected contrast dye to visualize blood vessels?
angiography/arteriography
During an angiography/arteriography, where is the catheter inserted?
An artery in either the groin or arm and then is guided up to the heart.
What diagnoses is an angiography/arteriography used to test for
arteriosclerosis, aneurysm, vascular malformations, tumors, or blockages
Which diagnostic imaging is useful for diagnosing vascular abnormalities, but is invasive and has the potential to cause an allergic reaction from the dye?
angiography/arteriography
Which diagnostic imaging type is an invasive procedure that uses x-ray imaging and an injected contrast dye to visualize joint structures
arthrography
What diagnoses is an arthrography used to test for?
pathologies of joint structures like ligamentous or capsular tears of peripheral joints.
Which diagnostic imaging allows for a more detailed image of a joint compared to an xray, but is invasive, not recommended for patients with arthritis/joint infection, and has the potential to cause an allergic reaction from the dye
arthrography
Which diagnostic imaging is an invasive procedure used to provide detailed information on bony structures by scanning the body with a gamma camera after infecting a radionuclide into the body, to see which bones have taken up the radioactive material?
bone scan
What does it mean of the bones have taken up the radionuclide on a bone scan
That is the area with remodeling of bone since the radioactive material is taken up by the osteoblast cells within the bone.
What diagnoses are tested for with a bone scan
stress fractures, infection, and cancer
What are the advantages and disadvantages of a bone scan
A: provides more detailed info than an xray and is less expensive than a PET scan
D: invasive, takes a long time where the patient must sit still, can cause an allergic reaction, pregnancy is contraindicated
Which type of diagnostic imaging is non-invasive that uses x-ray images from multiple angles and combines cross sections to produce an image?
CT scan
What diagnoses can a CT scan identify
Can image any structure in the body, but is mostly used for spinal lesions and studies of the brain.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of CT scan
A: quick results, can image multiple structures at the same time, more detailed than x ray
D: higher dose of radiation, patient is in a small space during scan, dye may cause an allergic reaction, not during pregnancy
Which type of diagnostic imaging is a non invasive procedure used to recored the elctrical activity of the brain
Electroencephalography (EEG)
What are some diagnoses that can be confirmed using an EEG
narcolepsy or epilepsy
Which diagnostic imaging technique records the electrical activity of a selected muscle group at rest and during voluntary contraction
EMG - electromyography
Which DI technique is designed to show motion within the body with the use of xray imaging and injection of a contrast dye.
Fluoroscopy
Which DI technique is performed by drawing CSF from the subarachnoid space in the lumbar spine to test for brain and spinal pathologies
lumbar puncture
What DI technique would be used to confirm the diagnosis of encephalitis, meningitis, and Guillain-Barre syndrome
lumbar puncture
What is a contraindication of performing a lumbar puncture
If the patient has increased intracranial pressure
True or False:
An MRI does not use radiation
true
What is a nerve conduction test and why is it performed
Uses electrodes to measure the speed of an electrical impulse through a nerve to rule out a muscle or nerve pathology.
What does a PET scan measure and what area of practice is it commonly used in
The amount of metabolic activity of an organ or tissue, and is commonly used in oncology to identify malignant tumors
What DI technique is used to visualize the venous system by injecting a dye into a vein in the foot and is commonly used to diagnose DVT and tumors
venography
Which of the following is meant for short term liquid feeding?
NG tube
G tube
J tube
IV system
NG tube
What is the purpose of an arterial line
It is a more accurate measure of BP than traditional method
How many liters can a nasal cannula deliver per minute
6 L per minute
