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NPTE Exam > Cardiopulmonary Review Questions #2 > Flashcards

Cardiopulmonary Review Questions #2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which abnormal breath sound is best described as a dry, crackling sound heard during both inspiration and expiration?

pleural friction rub
crackle
rhonchi
stridor

A

pleural friction rub

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2
Q

Which breath sound is most consistent with an extremely high pitched wheeze?

crackles
rales
rhonchi
stridor

A

stridor

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3
Q

Which of the following adventitious breath sounds is characterized by a low-pitched or “snoring” sound that may be heard during both inspiration and expiration?

rhonchi
wheeze
stridor
crackles

A

rhonchi

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4
Q

Which of the following adventitious breath sounds is characterized by a continuous, high-pitched whistling sound?

rhonchi
wheeze
stridor
crackles

A

wheeze

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5
Q

Listening to a patient’s body sounds with a stethoscope is known as:

auscultation
inspection
palpation
percussion

A

auscultation

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6
Q

Normal breath sounds heard over the distal airways in healthy lung tissue is best termed:

bronchial
vesicular
adventitious
rales

A

vesicular

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7
Q

Adventitious breath sounds that are musical in nature would be classified as:

bronchial
vesicular
wheezes
crackles

A

wheezes

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8
Q

Which term describes normal brebrath sounds that are heard during auscultation over the trachea, above the sternal notch?

bronchial
vesicular
bronchovesicular
adventitious

A

bronchial

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9
Q

What term describes smooth, normal airflow through the respiratory tracts?

laminar flow
low flow
turbulent flow
normal flow

A

laminar flow

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10
Q

What pulmonary test is conducted by auscultating over the patient’s thorax while the patient repeats “99”?

bronchophony
egophony
whispered pectoriloquy
focal fremitus

A

bronchophony

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11
Q

Which of the following breathing strategies would be the most appropriate to relieve dyspnea?

chest wall stretching
inspiratory hold technique
lateral costal breathing
pursed-lip breathing

A

pursed lip breathing

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12
Q

Which condition would most warrant a patient being instructed in pursed-lip breathing?

lung cancer
pleural effusion
pulmonary fibrosis
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

A

COPD

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13
Q

Which of the following techniques should be used in order to facilitate deep breathing?

airway suctioning
paced breathing
incentive spirometry
postural drainage

A

incentive spirometry

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14
Q

A technique used by patients with pulmonary disease in order to decrease task associated fatigue would be termed:

postural drainage
active cycle of breathing
pacing
pursed lip breathing

A

pacing

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15
Q

What is the purpose of performing pursed-lip breathing?

increase the ratio of inspiration to expiration
maintain intrabronchial pressure
increase carbon dioxide levels in the blood
maintain the level of hematocrit and hemoglobin in the blood

A

maintain intrabronchial pressure

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16
Q

If a patient is performing diaphragmatic breathing correctly, what motions would occur during exhalation?

abdomen rises and chest stays still
abdomen rises and chest descends
abdomen descends and chest stays still
abdomen descends and chest rises

A

abdomen descends and chest stays still

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17
Q

Which outcome is most commonly associated with diaphragmatic breathing?

decreased tidal volume
increased respiratory rate
decreased accessory muscle use
increased inspiratory muscle strength

A

decreased accessory muscle use

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18
Q

Which of the following techniques may be used prior to initiating inspiratory muscle training to teach a patient how to engage their diaphragm?

Valsalva maneuver
coughing
inspiratory hold
sniffing

A

sniffing

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19
Q

Which of the following breathing exercises employs manual contacts over a specific portion of the rib cage to improve ventilation in that region?

stacked breathing
segmental breathing
diaphragmatic breathing
inspiratory hold technique

A

segmental breathing

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20
Q

Use of an incentive spirometer can be effective at reversing which of the following conditions?

bronchitis
asthma attack
atelectasis
anaphylactic shock

A

atelectasis

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21
Q

Which of the following responses to aerobic activity would warrant discontinuing the exercise?

rating of perceived exertion of 11
an increase in the number of premature ventricular contractions
heart rate of 110 beats per minute
diastolic blood pressure reading of 105 mm Hg

A

an increase in the number of premature ventricular contractions

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22
Q

During exercise the increased flow of blood to the muscles causes all of the following organs to experience reduced blood flow except the:

kidneys
liver
heart
stomach

A

heart

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23
Q

An individual with hypertension could expect a drop in blood pressure of which amount as a result of initiating and maintaining an exercise program?

10 mm Hg in systolic pressure
10 mm Hg in diastolic pressure
10 mm Hg in both diastolic and systolic pressure
20 mm Hg in both diastolic and systolic pressure

A

10 in both

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24
Q

What percentage of a patient’s age adjusted maximum heart rate would most likely be used as the maximum heart rate for submaximal exercise testing?

60%
70%
85%
95%

A

85%

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25
Q

How many days following cardiac surgery would a patient typically begin a cardiac rehabilitation program?

2
5
10
14

A

2

26
Q

Which of the following signs would necessitate termination of exercise activity?

profuse sweating
increase in respiratory depth
increase in heart rate
drop of systolic blood pressure of 15 mm Hgf

A

drop of systolic bp of 15mmHg

27
Q

Which of the following would not be a reason to exclude a patient from exercise training during cardiac rehabilitation?

uncontrolled diabetes
thrombophlebitis
resting systolic blood pressure of 210 mm Hg
resting heart rate of 90 beats per minute

A

resting HR of ninety

28
Q

What is the most appropriate action to take if a patient experiences angina symptoms while exercising?

immediately stop the exercise
reduce the intensity of the exercise
do nothing as this is a normal response
administer cardiopulmonary resuscitation

A

immediately stop

29
Q

An appropriate target heart rate for a patient in a phase I cardiac rehabilitation would be:

double the resting heart rate
patient’s age + 20 beats per minute
220 - patient’s age
resting heart rate + 20 beats per minute

A

Resting HR plus twenty bpm

30
Q

When progressing a cardiovascular exercise program, which variable should be adjusted first?

intensity
duration
frequency
mode

A

duration

31
Q

What is the gold standard diagnostic test for diagnosing deep vein thrombosis?

duplex ultrasonography
venography
magnetic resonance imaging
angiogram

A

Correct Answer: venography

Venography is the gold standard to confirm deep vein thrombosis (DVT), however, it is an invasive procedure and may cause pain, allergic reactions to contrast medium, or even deep vein thrombosis. As a result, other diagnostic tests such as duplex ultrasonography are more commonly used, however, venography remains the gold standard.

32
Q

Aspiration of fluid from the lung performed by the insertion of a needle is known as:

thoracentesis
lumbar puncture
hemothorax
decompression

A

thoracentesis

33
Q

Which device evaluates saturation of oxygen in the blood by analyzing the light absorption of hemoglobin?

pH electrode
sphygmomanometer
PO2 electrode
pulse oximeter

A

pulse oximeter

34
Q

Which of the following would most likely be used to evaluate valvular function of the heart?

cardiac catheterization
magnetic resonance imaging
electrocardiography
echocardiography

A

echocardiography

35
Q

Which diagnostic test is used to diagnose a pulmonary embolism?

chest x-ray
computed tomography angiogram
echocardiography
stress test

A

CT angiogram

36
Q

Which of the following is a test used to visualize lymphatic function?

magnetic resonance imaging
lymphoscintigraphy
doppler ultrasound
ankle-brachial index

A

Correct Answer: lymphoscintigraphy

Lymphoscintigraphy, also known as sentinel lymph node mapping, is the most common invasive test used to visualize lymphatic function. The test involves injecting dye into the lymphatic system and using a camera and computer to observe function.

37
Q

What is the most useful diagnostic test to determine the severity of heart failure?

echocardiography
angiography
electrocardiography
electroencephalography

A

echocardiography

38
Q

Which of the following conditions would most likely limit the measurement accuracy of pulse oximetry?

patient has fingernail polish
patient is Caucasian
patient has a Body Mass Index of 22
patient is in a sitting position

A

patient has fingernail polish

39
Q

A radiologic examination that injects a contrast medium into blood vessels is called a/an:

venography
invasive hemodynamic monitoring
echocardiography
angiography

A

angiography

40
Q

A cardiac catheterization procedure gains access to the body through which vessel?

femoral artery
carotid artery
jugular vein
subclavian vein

A

femoral artery

41
Q

Holter monitoring is a procedure used for diagnosing cardiovascular problems that may alternatively be called:

ambulatory electrocardiography
echocardiography
chest radiography
phonocardiography

A

ambulatory electrocardiogram

42
Q

Which of the following conditions would least likely be diagnosed with a chest radiograph?

cancer
pneumonia
coronary artery disease
rib fracture

A

CAD

43
Q

In which of the following scenarios would a pharmacologic stress test most likely be used to diagnose a cardiovascular condition?

the patient is unable to exercise
the patient has medication allergies
the patient has food allergies
the patient has a sedentary lifestyle

A

the patient is unable to exercise

44
Q

Ventilation and perfusion scans are generally indicated to help rule out which of the following conditions?

stroke
pulmonary embolism
pleural effusion
chronic bronchitis

A

PE

45
Q

Which of the following would be a criterion for terminating an exercise stress test?

blood pressure of 170/80 mm Hg
first-degree heart block
sinus tachycardia
moderate angina

A

moderate angina

46
Q

The structure of the middle beat in the electrocardiogram image represents which of the following arrhythmia patterns?

premature ventricular contraction
atrial flutter
sinus beat
first-degree heart block

A

premature ventricular contractions

47
Q

If the PR interval on a 12-lead electrocardiogram is greater than 0.20 seconds, what is the most likely interpretation?

right ventricular hypertrophy
first-degree atrioventricular block
tachycardia
ischemia

A

first degree atrioventricular block

normal PR is .12 -.2
so if it is taking longer, someone is blocking the heart from contracting at its normal time

48
Q

Which electrocardiogram finding corresponds with second-degree Mobitz type I heart block?

fixed PR interval with an occasional dropped QRS complex
wide, aberrant QRS complex
progressively lengthened PR interval until the QRS complex is dropped
no relationship between P waves and QRS complexes

A

Correct Answer: progressively lengthened PR interval until the QRS complex is dropped

In second-degree Mobitz type I heart block, the PR interval progressively lengthens until a QRS complex is dropped. Option 1 describes second-degree Mobitz type II heart block. Option 2 describes a premature ventricular contraction. Option 4 describes a third-degree heart block

49
Q

Which of the following electrocardiogram rhythms would be considered an immediate medical emergency?

atrial fibrillation
premature atrial contractions
ventricular tachycardia
atrial flutter

A

ventricular tachycardia

50
Q

What structure of the electrocardiogram is identified in the image?

P wave
R wave
U wave
ST segment

A

ST segment

51
Q

Which feature of an electrocardiogram is represented by an influx of sodium and calcium ions initiating atrial depolarization?

P wave
QRS complex
T wave
U wave

A

p wave

52
Q

Which of the following best describes supraventricular tachycardia?

irregular rhythm
uniform P waves
abbreviated QRS complex
rate of 150-250 beats per minute

A

rate of 150-250 beats per minute

53
Q

On an electrocardiogram, which term represents ventricular depolarization?

P wave
QRS complex
T wave
U wave

A

QRS complex

54
Q

What is the term used for a heartbeat that originates from a site other than the sinus node?

bruit
cardiac arrhythmia
heart murmur
ectopic beat

A

ectopic beat

55
Q

Which electrocardiogram finding is best depicted in the image?

depressed ST segment
premature ventricular contraction
third-degree heart block
premature atrial contraction

A

depressed ST segment

56
Q

An ectopic beat that originates in the atria and may present as an irregular rhythm would best describe:

atrial fibrillation
ventricular tachycardia
premature atrial contraction
premature ventricular contraction

A

premature atrial contraction

57
Q

Which of the following describes a condition where a premature ventricular contraction occurs every other beat?

bigeminy
trigeminy
ventricular tachycardia
ventricular fibrillation

A

bigeminy

58
Q

Which term best describes rapid, uncoordinated contraction of cardiac muscle?

bradycardia
bundle branch block
fibrillation
flutter

A

fibrillation

59
Q

Which condition could explain why the heart rate of an exercising patient abruptly drops to half the value that was previously recorded?

single premature ventricular contraction
atrial fibrillation
paroxysmal atrial tachycardia
second degree heart block

A

second degree heart block

60
Q

Which scenario best explains why atrial flutter can result in unconsciousness?

increased filling of the ventricles
increased system congestion
decreased atrial depolarization
decreased blood travels to the brain

A

decreased blood travels to the brain

NPTE Exam (54 decks)

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