Cardiopulmonary Review Questions #2 Flashcards by Madelynn Kahl

Which abnormal breath sound is best described as a dry, crackling sound heard during both inspiration and expiration?

pleural friction rub
crackle
rhonchi
stridor

pleural friction rub

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Which breath sound is most consistent with an extremely high pitched wheeze?

crackles
rales
rhonchi
stridor

stridor

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Which of the following adventitious breath sounds is characterized by a low-pitched or “snoring” sound that may be heard during both inspiration and expiration?

rhonchi
wheeze
stridor
crackles

rhonchi

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Which of the following adventitious breath sounds is characterized by a continuous, high-pitched whistling sound?

rhonchi
wheeze
stridor
crackles

wheeze

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Listening to a patient’s body sounds with a stethoscope is known as:

auscultation
inspection
palpation
percussion

auscultation

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Normal breath sounds heard over the distal airways in healthy lung tissue is best termed:

bronchial
vesicular
adventitious
rales

vesicular

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Adventitious breath sounds that are musical in nature would be classified as:

bronchial
vesicular
wheezes
crackles

wheezes

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Which term describes normal brebrath sounds that are heard during auscultation over the trachea, above the sternal notch?

bronchial
vesicular
bronchovesicular
adventitious

bronchial

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What term describes smooth, normal airflow through the respiratory tracts?

laminar flow
low flow
turbulent flow
normal flow

laminar flow

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What pulmonary test is conducted by auscultating over the patient’s thorax while the patient repeats “99”?

bronchophony
egophony
whispered pectoriloquy
focal fremitus

bronchophony

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Which of the following breathing strategies would be the most appropriate to relieve dyspnea?

chest wall stretching
inspiratory hold technique
lateral costal breathing
pursed-lip breathing

pursed lip breathing

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Which condition would most warrant a patient being instructed in pursed-lip breathing?

lung cancer
pleural effusion
pulmonary fibrosis
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

COPD

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Which of the following techniques should be used in order to facilitate deep breathing?

airway suctioning
paced breathing
incentive spirometry
postural drainage

incentive spirometry

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A technique used by patients with pulmonary disease in order to decrease task associated fatigue would be termed:

postural drainage
active cycle of breathing
pacing
pursed lip breathing

pacing

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What is the purpose of performing pursed-lip breathing?

increase the ratio of inspiration to expiration
maintain intrabronchial pressure
increase carbon dioxide levels in the blood
maintain the level of hematocrit and hemoglobin in the blood

maintain intrabronchial pressure

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If a patient is performing diaphragmatic breathing correctly, what motions would occur during exhalation?

abdomen rises and chest stays still
abdomen rises and chest descends
abdomen descends and chest stays still
abdomen descends and chest rises

abdomen descends and chest stays still

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Which outcome is most commonly associated with diaphragmatic breathing?

decreased tidal volume
increased respiratory rate
decreased accessory muscle use
increased inspiratory muscle strength

decreased accessory muscle use

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Which of the following techniques may be used prior to initiating inspiratory muscle training to teach a patient how to engage their diaphragm?

Valsalva maneuver
coughing
inspiratory hold
sniffing

sniffing

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Which of the following breathing exercises employs manual contacts over a specific portion of the rib cage to improve ventilation in that region?

stacked breathing
segmental breathing
diaphragmatic breathing
inspiratory hold technique

segmental breathing

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Use of an incentive spirometer can be effective at reversing which of the following conditions?

bronchitis
asthma attack
atelectasis
anaphylactic shock

atelectasis

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Which of the following responses to aerobic activity would warrant discontinuing the exercise?

rating of perceived exertion of 11
an increase in the number of premature ventricular contractions
heart rate of 110 beats per minute
diastolic blood pressure reading of 105 mm Hg

an increase in the number of premature ventricular contractions

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During exercise the increased flow of blood to the muscles causes all of the following organs to experience reduced blood flow except the:

kidneys
liver
heart
stomach

heart

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An individual with hypertension could expect a drop in blood pressure of which amount as a result of initiating and maintaining an exercise program?

10 mm Hg in systolic pressure
10 mm Hg in diastolic pressure
10 mm Hg in both diastolic and systolic pressure
20 mm Hg in both diastolic and systolic pressure

10 in both

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What percentage of a patient’s age adjusted maximum heart rate would most likely be used as the maximum heart rate for submaximal exercise testing?

60%
70%
85%
95%

85%

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How many days following cardiac surgery would a patient typically begin a cardiac rehabilitation program? 2 5 10 14

Which of the following signs would necessitate termination of exercise activity? profuse sweating increase in respiratory depth increase in heart rate drop of systolic blood pressure of 15 mm Hgf

drop of systolic bp of 15mmHg

Which of the following would not be a reason to exclude a patient from exercise training during cardiac rehabilitation? uncontrolled diabetes thrombophlebitis resting systolic blood pressure of 210 mm Hg resting heart rate of 90 beats per minute

resting HR of ninety

What is the most appropriate action to take if a patient experiences angina symptoms while exercising? immediately stop the exercise reduce the intensity of the exercise do nothing as this is a normal response administer cardiopulmonary resuscitation

immediately stop

An appropriate target heart rate for a patient in a phase I cardiac rehabilitation would be: double the resting heart rate patient’s age + 20 beats per minute 220 - patient’s age resting heart rate + 20 beats per minute

Resting HR plus twenty bpm

When progressing a cardiovascular exercise program, which variable should be adjusted first? intensity duration frequency mode

duration

What is the gold standard diagnostic test for diagnosing deep vein thrombosis? duplex ultrasonography venography magnetic resonance imaging angiogram

Correct Answer: venography Venography is the gold standard to confirm deep vein thrombosis (DVT), however, it is an invasive procedure and may cause pain, allergic reactions to contrast medium, or even deep vein thrombosis. As a result, other diagnostic tests such as duplex ultrasonography are more commonly used, however, venography remains the gold standard.

Aspiration of fluid from the lung performed by the insertion of a needle is known as: thoracentesis lumbar puncture hemothorax decompression

thoracentesis

Which device evaluates saturation of oxygen in the blood by analyzing the light absorption of hemoglobin? pH electrode sphygmomanometer PO2 electrode pulse oximeter

pulse oximeter

Which of the following would most likely be used to evaluate valvular function of the heart? cardiac catheterization magnetic resonance imaging electrocardiography echocardiography

echocardiography

Which diagnostic test is used to diagnose a pulmonary embolism? chest x-ray computed tomography angiogram echocardiography stress test

CT angiogram

Which of the following is a test used to visualize lymphatic function? magnetic resonance imaging lymphoscintigraphy doppler ultrasound ankle-brachial index

Correct Answer: lymphoscintigraphy Lymphoscintigraphy, also known as sentinel lymph node mapping, is the most common invasive test used to visualize lymphatic function. The test involves injecting dye into the lymphatic system and using a camera and computer to observe function.

What is the most useful diagnostic test to determine the severity of heart failure? echocardiography angiography electrocardiography electroencephalography

echocardiography

Which of the following conditions would most likely limit the measurement accuracy of pulse oximetry? patient has fingernail polish patient is Caucasian patient has a Body Mass Index of 22 patient is in a sitting position

patient has fingernail polish

A radiologic examination that injects a contrast medium into blood vessels is called a/an: venography invasive hemodynamic monitoring echocardiography angiography

angiography

A cardiac catheterization procedure gains access to the body through which vessel? femoral artery carotid artery jugular vein subclavian vein

femoral artery

Holter monitoring is a procedure used for diagnosing cardiovascular problems that may alternatively be called: ambulatory electrocardiography echocardiography chest radiography phonocardiography

ambulatory electrocardiogram

Which of the following conditions would least likely be diagnosed with a chest radiograph? cancer pneumonia coronary artery disease rib fracture

CAD

In which of the following scenarios would a pharmacologic stress test most likely be used to diagnose a cardiovascular condition? the patient is unable to exercise the patient has medication allergies the patient has food allergies the patient has a sedentary lifestyle

the patient is unable to exercise

Ventilation and perfusion scans are generally indicated to help rule out which of the following conditions? stroke pulmonary embolism pleural effusion chronic bronchitis

Which of the following would be a criterion for terminating an exercise stress test? blood pressure of 170/80 mm Hg first-degree heart block sinus tachycardia moderate angina

moderate angina

The structure of the middle beat in the electrocardiogram image represents which of the following arrhythmia patterns? premature ventricular contraction atrial flutter sinus beat first-degree heart block

premature ventricular contractions

If the PR interval on a 12-lead electrocardiogram is greater than 0.20 seconds, what is the most likely interpretation? right ventricular hypertrophy first-degree atrioventricular block tachycardia ischemia

first degree atrioventricular block normal PR is .12 -.2 so if it is taking longer, someone is blocking the heart from contracting at its normal time

Which electrocardiogram finding corresponds with second-degree Mobitz type I heart block? fixed PR interval with an occasional dropped QRS complex wide, aberrant QRS complex progressively lengthened PR interval until the QRS complex is dropped no relationship between P waves and QRS complexes

Correct Answer: progressively lengthened PR interval until the QRS complex is dropped In second-degree Mobitz type I heart block, the PR interval progressively lengthens until a QRS complex is dropped. Option 1 describes second-degree Mobitz type II heart block. Option 2 describes a premature ventricular contraction. Option 4 describes a third-degree heart block

Which of the following electrocardiogram rhythms would be considered an immediate medical emergency? atrial fibrillation premature atrial contractions ventricular tachycardia atrial flutter

ventricular tachycardia

What structure of the electrocardiogram is identified in the image? P wave R wave U wave ST segment

ST segment

Which feature of an electrocardiogram is represented by an influx of sodium and calcium ions initiating atrial depolarization? P wave QRS complex T wave U wave

p wave

Which of the following best describes supraventricular tachycardia? irregular rhythm uniform P waves abbreviated QRS complex rate of 150-250 beats per minute

rate of 150-250 beats per minute

On an electrocardiogram, which term represents ventricular depolarization? P wave QRS complex T wave U wave

QRS complex

What is the term used for a heartbeat that originates from a site other than the sinus node? bruit cardiac arrhythmia heart murmur ectopic beat

ectopic beat

Which electrocardiogram finding is best depicted in the image? depressed ST segment premature ventricular contraction third-degree heart block premature atrial contraction

depressed ST segment

An ectopic beat that originates in the atria and may present as an irregular rhythm would best describe: atrial fibrillation ventricular tachycardia premature atrial contraction premature ventricular contraction

premature atrial contraction

Which of the following describes a condition where a premature ventricular contraction occurs every other beat? bigeminy trigeminy ventricular tachycardia ventricular fibrillation

bigeminy

Which term best describes rapid, uncoordinated contraction of cardiac muscle? bradycardia bundle branch block fibrillation flutter

fibrillation

Which condition could explain why the heart rate of an exercising patient abruptly drops to half the value that was previously recorded? single premature ventricular contraction atrial fibrillation paroxysmal atrial tachycardia second degree heart block

second degree heart block

Which scenario best explains why atrial flutter can result in unconsciousness? increased filling of the ventricles increased system congestion decreased atrial depolarization decreased blood travels to the brain

decreased blood travels to the brain