Non-Systems Review Questions #1 Flashcards
Which assistive device would be least appropriate for a person that is partial weight bearing?
bilateral canes
Lofstrand crutches
platform walker
walker
Bilateral canes
The primary rationale for using a reverse walker instead of a traditional walker is to improve:
postural alignment
ease of movement
stability
upper extremity involvement
Postural alignment
Which scenario would provide the best justification for using a platform attachment on a walker?
failure to demonstrate righting reactions
inability to bear weight through the wrist and hand
inability to bear full weight on the involved lower extremity
difficulty independently advancing the walker
Inability to bear weight through the wrist and hand
Which assistive device requires significant coordination, but is not appropriate for use with a patient that is partial weight bearing?
axillary crutches
bilateral canes
Lofstrand crutches
walker
bilateral canes
How much elbow flexion should exist when an individual is grasping the handgrips of axillary crutches with the wrists in a neutral position?
5-10 degrees
10-15 degrees
15-20 degrees
20-25 degrees
20-25 degrees
What is the proper order of assistive devices from the greatest assistance to least assistance?
parallel bars, walker, axillary crutches, Lofstrand crutches, cane
parallel bars, axillary crutches, walker, Lofstrand crutches, cane
parallel bars, Lofstrand crutches, walker, axillary crutches, cane
parallel bars, Lofstrand crutches, axillary crutches, walker, cane
Parallel bars, walker, axillary crutches, Lofstrand crutches, cane
A walker is used with which gait pattern?
one-point
two-point
three-point
four-point
three point
When fitting a patient for axillary crutches, the base of each crutch should be placed where in relation to the patient’s body?
2 inches anterior, 6 inches lateral
2 inches anterior, 4 inches lateral
4 inches anterior, 4 inches lateral
6 inches anterior, 2 inches lateral
6 inches anterior, 2 inches lateral
When fitting a patient with Lofstrand crutches, where should the arm cuff be placed to ensure proper fit?
1.5 inches distal to the olecranon process
4.5 inches distal to the olecranon process
6 inches distal to the olecranon process
mid forearm
1.5 inches distal to the olecranon process
For a patient who has significantly impaired balance and coordination, what would be the most appropriate assistive device for them to use?
single-point cane
Lofstrand crutches
rolling walker
quad cane
Rolling walker
Which scenario would not require the use of a platform attachment on an assistive device?
a patient with significantly impaired balance
a patient with a transradial amputation
a patient with triceps weakness due to nerve damage
a patient with a fractured scaphoid
A patient with significantly impaired balance
If a patient using bilateral axillary crutches loses their balance forward (anteriorly), they should:
reach forward with both arms
tuck their chin forward toward their chest
maintain their grasp on both crutches
keep their elbows extended to brace the fall
Reach forward with both arms
In the event of a forward (anterior) loss of balance, the patient should first release both crutches to the side, not in front of the body. Then the patient should reach forward with both arms and turn their face to one side. As they contact the floor, the elbows should bend to absorb the force and slowly lower the body to the ground.
When issuing a walker to a patient, what bony landmark would most approximate the height of the handgrip?
iliac crest
greater trochanter
anterior superior iliac spine
posterior superior iliac spine
Greater trochanter
Weakness in which muscle would make it extremely difficult to ambulate on crutches?
medial deltoid
erector spinae
latissimus dorsi
rhomboids
Lats
The latissimus dorsi is innervated by the thoracodorsal nerve (C6, C7, C8). With the origin fixed, the muscle acts to medially rotate, adduct, and extend the shoulder joint. Adequate latissimus dorsi strength is essential to effectively utilize crutches.
How far below the axilla should the top of a properly fitted axillary crutch be positioned?
2 inches
4 inches
6 inches
8 inches
2 inches
Which assistive device would be the least appropriate for a patient that is non-weight bearing due to a lower extremity fracture?
parallel bars
walker
axillary crutches
straight cane
straight cane
Which muscle group is most important when ambulating with axillary crutches?
wrist extensors
wrist flexors
scapular depressors
scapular elevators
Scapular depressors
Which assistive device provides the greatest amount of mobility?
bilateral axillary crutches
single-point cane
quad cane
hemi walker
Single point cane
Which assistive device would be most appropriate for maximizing function in a patient who is partial weight bearing on one lower extremity and is four weeks status post-bilateral mastectomy?
walking sticks
hemi walker
axillary crutches
Lofstrand crutches
Loftstrand crutches due to mastectomy
Which of the following factors is of least importance when selecting an assistive device?
the patient’s level of understanding
the patient’s height and weight
the patient’s upper and lower extremity strength
the patient’s level of coordination
Height and weight
How many finger widths of space should exist between the top of the crutch pads and the base of the axilla?
1 finger width
3 finger widths
5 finger widths
7 finger widths
3 finger widths
What injury may occur if a patient bears weight through their axilla on their crutches when ambulating?
axillary nerve compression
pectoralis major strain
glenohumeral subluxation
anterior glenohumeral ligament sprain
axillary nerve compression
What diagnosis would be the most likely to benefit from using a long handled sock assist?
Parkinson’s disease
systemic lupus erythematosus
total hip arthroplasty
traumatic brain injury
Total hip
What diagnosis would be the most likely to benefit from using a button hook adaptive device?
Alzheimer’s disease
cerebrovascular accident
T10 paraplegia
traumatic brain injury
CVA
Which instructions are most appropriate when ascending/descending stairs with unilateral extremity involvement?
ascend with the involved leg and descend with the involved leg
ascend with the uninvolved leg and descend with the uninvolved leg
ascend with the involved leg and descend with the uninvolved leg
ascend with the uninvolved leg and descend with the involved leg
Ascend with uninvolved, descend with the involved
What is the primary purpose of wearing a shoe with a medial sole flare?
resist dorsiflexion
resist plantar flexion
resist inversion
resist eversion
resist eversion
Which intervention would be the most appropriate to apply to the shoe of a patient with calcaneal spurring?
heel cushion
heel lift
metatarsal pad
rocker bar
Heel cushion
The most appropriate shoe modification for a patient with hammer toes is:
high toe box
medial longitudinal arch support
padded inner sole
rocker bar
High toe box
Hammer toes refer to contractures of the proximal interphalangeal joint of the second, third or fourth toe causing the toe to appear permanently bent. A high toe box provides additional space in the toe region which reduces pressure on the dorsal surface of the affected toes.
A floor-reaction ankle-foot orthosis would be most appropriate for a patient that:
demonstrates difficulty with knee flexion during gait
presents with a spinal cord injury at the level L1
demonstrates difficulty with knee extension during gait
presents with stroke and demonstrates poor balance
Difficulty with extension
Which of the following is the most appropriate for daytime use by a 14-year-old female with a mid-thoracic curve of 25 degrees?
Boston thoracolumbosacral orthosis
Philadelphia collar
Jewett brace
halo-vest
Boston orthosis
The Boston thoracolumbosacral orthosis is used for daytime bracing and is most effective for curves below 35 degrees. A spinal orthosis is often warranted for scoliotic curves ranging from 25-40 degrees. Surgical intervention may be necessary for curves over 40 degrees.
A solid ankle cushion heel is most likely to be prescribed to which patient requiring a prosthesis?
an athlete who wishes to return to running and other sports
a child
a senior citizen who wishes to return to household and community ambulation
a female who wishes to return to hiking mountainous terrain
A senior citizen who wishes to return to household and community ambulation
A SACH is appropriate for all ages and genders, BUT is most useful for ambulation over even surfaces and household distances
Which of the following is the least restrictive type of ankle foot orthosis?
posterior leaf spring orthosis
modified ankle-foot orthosis
solid ankle-foot orthosis
dual channel ankle-foot orthosis
posterior leaf spring orthosis
A posterior leaf spring orthosis is a type of ankle-foot orthosis that provides a dorsiflexion assist during swing phase. The trim line is posterior to the malleoli and as a result the device offers minimal medial or lateral ankle support.
A Pavlik harness would result in the hip being positioned in:
hip flexion and abduction
hip flexion and adduction
hip extension and abduction
hip extension and adduction
Hip flexion and abduction
A Pavlik harness is the primary method of treating developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). DDH is a subluxed or dislocated hip in infancy as a result of abnormal congruency of the femoral head and acetabulum. The Pavlik harness maintains the infant’s hips in flexion and abduction to enhance acetabular development.
What is the name of this orthosis and what is its function
Pavlik harness - used to tread developmental hip dysplasia which is subluxed or dislocated hip during infancy
Which cervical orthosis effectively limits motion in all planes and allows for early mobility and rehabilitation after a vertebral fracture?
Jewett orthosis
Milwaukee brace
Boston brace
Minerva orthosis
Minerva orthosis
The Minerva orthosis positions the head and applies stabilizing forces under and around the chin and occiput to restrict flexion and extension, lateral motion and rotation of the head and cervical spine. The remaining options would not limit mobility in the cervical spine.
What is the name of this orthosis and its function?
Restricts cervical motion in all planes to allow for early mobility and rehab after a avertebral fracture
Which variable would be the most compelling to warrant use of a scoliosis brace?
10 degree scoliotic curve
rapid progression of an existing curve
significant pain impacting functional activities
subjective report of instability
Rapid progression of an existing curve
Bracing is used with patients with 20-40 degree curves. But bracing can be used with rapid progression of a curve before it gets to 20
Which type of diagnostic imaging is designed to show motion in joints through x-ray imaging?
computed tomography
fluoroscopy
myelography
venography
Fluoroscopy
What is the primary disadvantage of using fluoroscopy as an imaging technique?
excessive radiation exposure
inability to determine density of bone structures
poor resolution of images
severity of tissue damage
excessive radiation exposure
Which of the following imaging techniques shows the greatest detail in soft tissue structures?
magnetic resonance imaging
computed tomography
fluoroscopy
x-ray
MRI
Which imaging technique provides the best view of a disc protrusion, differentiating between the nucleus pulposus and the annulus fibrosus?
computed tomography
plain film radiography
magnetic resonance imaging
xeroradiography
MRI
Which diagnostic test refers to a radiograph that visualizes injected radiopaque dye in an artery?
arteriography
arthrography
venography
computed tomography
arteriography
Which diagnostic test refers to an invasive test utilizing a contrast medium to provide visualization of joint structures through radiographs?
arteriography
arthrography
bone scan
computed tomography
arthrography
Which diagnostic test is an invasive test which utilizes isotopes to identify stress fractures, infection, and tumors?
fluoroscopy
computed tomography
bone scan
magnetic resonance imaging
bone scan
Which diagnostic test produces cross-sectional images based on x-ray attenuation and is commonly used to diagnose spinal lesions and in diagnostic studies of the brain?
fluoroscopy
computed tomography
bone scan
magnetic resonance imaging
CT scan
Which diagnostic test is non-invasive and relies on the transmission and reflection of high frequency sound waves to produce cross-sectional images in a variety of planes?
fluoroscopy
computed tomography
Doppler ultrasonography
magnetic resonance imaging
Doppler ultrasonography
Which diagnostic test is an invasive test that combines fluoroscopy and radiography to evaluate the spinal subarachnoid space?
myelography
electroencephalography
electromyography
computed tomography
myelography
Which of the following medical imaging devices produces images from radioactive emissions?
magnetic resonance imaging
functional magnetic resonance imaging
positron emission tomography
radiographs
PET scan
Which medical imaging technique would best detect an intracranial bleed such as a stroke?
computed tomography scan
functional magnetic resonance imaging
positron emission tomography
magnetic resonance imaging
CT scan
What technique used to quantify body fat is also used to analyze bone mineral content?
skinfold measurements
bioelectric impedance
dual energy X-ray absorptiometry
hydrostatic weighing
dual energy X-ray absorptiometry
During a cerebral angiography, radiopaque dyes are injected into which artery?
vertebral artery
pulmonary artery
middle cerebral artery
anterior cerebral artery
vertebral artery
Which scenario is not considered to be a contraindication for magnetic resonance imaging?
presence of a pacemaker
presence of pins
presence of artificial heart valves
presence of a tumor
presence of a tumor
Which test is the most effective in initially demonstrating a bone or joint abnormality?
magnetic resonance imaging
computed tomography scan
plain film radiographs
ultrasound
plain film radiograph
All of the following are cross-sectional imaging techniques except:
conventional radiography
magnetic resonance imaging
computed tomography
positron emission tomography
conventional radiography
What are the black areas produced on a radiograph called?
radiodense
radiolucent
radiopaque
radio waves
radiolucent
Which diagnostic procedure allows direct visual examination of the bladder, ureteral orifices, and urethra?
x-ray
cystoscopy
intravenous pyelogram
retrograde pyelogram
cystoscopy
Which diagnostic test records the electrical activity of the superficial layers of the brain?
electroencephalography
electromyography
computed tomography
magnetic resonance imaging
electroencephalography
What is the most likely method to obtain a sample of synovial fluid for analysis?
arthrocentesis
blood draw
lumbar puncture
urinalysis
arthrocentesis
Which medical device would be used to remove fluid from the pleural space after surgery?
central venous line
chest tube
intraventricular catheter
vascular access port
chest tube
Which type of catheter would require an incision in the lower abdominal area?
condom catheter
external catheter
Foley catheter
suprapubic catheter
suprapubic
Which type of feeding equipment is most likely to inhibit a cough?
gastric tube
gastrojejunal tube
jejunostomy tube
nasogastric tube
nasogastric
Which medical device is used for long-term administration of substances into the venous system such as chemotherapeutic agents, total parenteral nutrition, and antibiotics?
arterial line
intracranial pressure monitor
pulmonary artery (Swan-Ganz) catheter
indwelling right atrial (Hickman) catheter
(Swan-Ganz) catheter
indwelling right atrial (Hickman) catheter
How many liters of oxygen per minute is the maximum provided from a nasal cannula?
3 liters per minute
4 liters per minute
5 liters per minute
6 liters per minute
6
A patient who has had an endotracheal tube inserted will have the most difficulty with which activity?
talking
suctioning
bedside exercises
ambulation
talking
A central venous pressure catheter measures pressures in which heart chamber?
right atrium
right ventricle
left atrium
left ventricle
right atrium
Which of the following functions can be performed with an arterial line?
obtain blood samples
administer medications
administer nutrition
insert a coronary stent
obtain blood samples
Which of the following is a possible complication with use of an intravenous line?
myocardial infarction
stroke
pulmonary embolism
seizure
PE
Which of the following oxygen delivery systems would most likely be used for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
nasal catheter
nasal cannula
oronasal mask
tracheostomy mask
nasal cannula
When ambulating with a patient using a Foley catheter, where should the collection bag be placed?
at the level of the bladder
above the level of the bladder
below the level of the bladder
on the floor
below the level of the bladder
Which of the following is most commonly used in a hospital setting for short-term feeding?
percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy
percutaneous endoscopic jejunostomy
nasogastric tube
total parenteral nutrition
nasogastric tube
Which ventilator setting delivers a constant tidal volume?
computer-assisted control ventilation
mechanical control ventilation
pressure control ventilation
volume control ventilation
volume control ventilation
What type of medical device is depicted in the image?
intravenous line
peripherally inserted central catheter line
central venous catheter
arterial line
IV
Which patient would be the most appropriate candidate for nasogastric feeding?
patient with dysfunctional gag reflex
patient with gastroesophageal reflux
patient with high risk for aspiration
patient in a com
patient in a coma
Which of the following is not a vehicle for medication administration through inhalation?
face mask
nebulizer
positive-pressure breathing machine
intravenous device
IV device
What is the most common method of patient-controlled analgesia?
epidural
transdermal
regional
intravenous
intravenous
The most appropriate form of nutrition for a newborn whose mother is HIV positive would be:
intravenous feeding
parenteral nutrition
breast feeding
bottle feeding
bottle feeding
What type of enteral nutrition line is depicted in the image?
nasogastric tube
nasojejunal tube
gastrostomy
jejunostomy
gastrostomy