Non-Systems Review Questions #1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which assistive device would be least appropriate for a person that is partial weight bearing?

bilateral canes
Lofstrand crutches
platform walker
walker

A

Bilateral canes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The primary rationale for using a reverse walker instead of a traditional walker is to improve:

postural alignment
ease of movement
stability
upper extremity involvement

A

Postural alignment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which scenario would provide the best justification for using a platform attachment on a walker?

failure to demonstrate righting reactions
inability to bear weight through the wrist and hand
inability to bear full weight on the involved lower extremity
difficulty independently advancing the walker

A

Inability to bear weight through the wrist and hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which assistive device requires significant coordination, but is not appropriate for use with a patient that is partial weight bearing?

axillary crutches
bilateral canes
Lofstrand crutches
walker

A

bilateral canes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How much elbow flexion should exist when an individual is grasping the handgrips of axillary crutches with the wrists in a neutral position?

5-10 degrees
10-15 degrees
15-20 degrees
20-25 degrees

A

20-25 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the proper order of assistive devices from the greatest assistance to least assistance?

parallel bars, walker, axillary crutches, Lofstrand crutches, cane
parallel bars, axillary crutches, walker, Lofstrand crutches, cane
parallel bars, Lofstrand crutches, walker, axillary crutches, cane
parallel bars, Lofstrand crutches, axillary crutches, walker, cane

A

Parallel bars, walker, axillary crutches, Lofstrand crutches, cane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A walker is used with which gait pattern?

one-point
two-point
three-point
four-point

A

three point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When fitting a patient for axillary crutches, the base of each crutch should be placed where in relation to the patient’s body?

2 inches anterior, 6 inches lateral
2 inches anterior, 4 inches lateral
4 inches anterior, 4 inches lateral
6 inches anterior, 2 inches lateral

A

6 inches anterior, 2 inches lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When fitting a patient with Lofstrand crutches, where should the arm cuff be placed to ensure proper fit?

1.5 inches distal to the olecranon process
4.5 inches distal to the olecranon process
6 inches distal to the olecranon process
mid forearm

A

1.5 inches distal to the olecranon process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

For a patient who has significantly impaired balance and coordination, what would be the most appropriate assistive device for them to use?

single-point cane
Lofstrand crutches
rolling walker
quad cane

A

Rolling walker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which scenario would not require the use of a platform attachment on an assistive device?

a patient with significantly impaired balance
a patient with a transradial amputation
a patient with triceps weakness due to nerve damage
a patient with a fractured scaphoid

A

A patient with significantly impaired balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If a patient using bilateral axillary crutches loses their balance forward (anteriorly), they should:

reach forward with both arms
tuck their chin forward toward their chest
maintain their grasp on both crutches
keep their elbows extended to brace the fall

A

Reach forward with both arms

In the event of a forward (anterior) loss of balance, the patient should first release both crutches to the side, not in front of the body. Then the patient should reach forward with both arms and turn their face to one side. As they contact the floor, the elbows should bend to absorb the force and slowly lower the body to the ground.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When issuing a walker to a patient, what bony landmark would most approximate the height of the handgrip?

iliac crest
greater trochanter
anterior superior iliac spine
posterior superior iliac spine

A

Greater trochanter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Weakness in which muscle would make it extremely difficult to ambulate on crutches?

medial deltoid
erector spinae
latissimus dorsi
rhomboids

A

Lats

The latissimus dorsi is innervated by the thoracodorsal nerve (C6, C7, C8). With the origin fixed, the muscle acts to medially rotate, adduct, and extend the shoulder joint. Adequate latissimus dorsi strength is essential to effectively utilize crutches.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How far below the axilla should the top of a properly fitted axillary crutch be positioned?

2 inches
4 inches
6 inches
8 inches

A

2 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which assistive device would be the least appropriate for a patient that is non-weight bearing due to a lower extremity fracture?

parallel bars
walker
axillary crutches
straight cane

A

straight cane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which muscle group is most important when ambulating with axillary crutches?

wrist extensors
wrist flexors
scapular depressors
scapular elevators

A

Scapular depressors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which assistive device provides the greatest amount of mobility?

bilateral axillary crutches
single-point cane
quad cane
hemi walker

A

Single point cane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which assistive device would be most appropriate for maximizing function in a patient who is partial weight bearing on one lower extremity and is four weeks status post-bilateral mastectomy?

walking sticks
hemi walker
axillary crutches
Lofstrand crutches

A

Loftstrand crutches due to mastectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following factors is of least importance when selecting an assistive device?

the patient’s level of understanding
the patient’s height and weight
the patient’s upper and lower extremity strength
the patient’s level of coordination

A

Height and weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How many finger widths of space should exist between the top of the crutch pads and the base of the axilla?

1 finger width
3 finger widths
5 finger widths
7 finger widths

A

3 finger widths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What injury may occur if a patient bears weight through their axilla on their crutches when ambulating?

axillary nerve compression
pectoralis major strain
glenohumeral subluxation
anterior glenohumeral ligament sprain

A

axillary nerve compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What diagnosis would be the most likely to benefit from using a long handled sock assist?

Parkinson’s disease
systemic lupus erythematosus
total hip arthroplasty
traumatic brain injury

A

Total hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What diagnosis would be the most likely to benefit from using a button hook adaptive device?

Alzheimer’s disease
cerebrovascular accident
T10 paraplegia
traumatic brain injury

A

CVA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Which instructions are most appropriate when ascending/descending stairs with unilateral extremity involvement? ascend with the involved leg and descend with the involved leg ascend with the uninvolved leg and descend with the uninvolved leg ascend with the involved leg and descend with the uninvolved leg ascend with the uninvolved leg and descend with the involved leg
Ascend with uninvolved, descend with the involved
26
What is the primary purpose of wearing a shoe with a medial sole flare? resist dorsiflexion resist plantar flexion resist inversion resist eversion
resist eversion
27
Which intervention would be the most appropriate to apply to the shoe of a patient with calcaneal spurring? heel cushion heel lift metatarsal pad rocker bar
Heel cushion
28
The most appropriate shoe modification for a patient with hammer toes is: high toe box medial longitudinal arch support padded inner sole rocker bar
High toe box Hammer toes refer to contractures of the proximal interphalangeal joint of the second, third or fourth toe causing the toe to appear permanently bent. A high toe box provides additional space in the toe region which reduces pressure on the dorsal surface of the affected toes.
29
A floor-reaction ankle-foot orthosis would be most appropriate for a patient that: demonstrates difficulty with knee flexion during gait presents with a spinal cord injury at the level L1 demonstrates difficulty with knee extension during gait presents with stroke and demonstrates poor balance
Difficulty with extension
30
Which of the following is the most appropriate for daytime use by a 14-year-old female with a mid-thoracic curve of 25 degrees? Boston thoracolumbosacral orthosis Philadelphia collar Jewett brace halo-vest
Boston orthosis The Boston thoracolumbosacral orthosis is used for daytime bracing and is most effective for curves below 35 degrees. A spinal orthosis is often warranted for scoliotic curves ranging from 25-40 degrees. Surgical intervention may be necessary for curves over 40 degrees.
31
A solid ankle cushion heel is most likely to be prescribed to which patient requiring a prosthesis? an athlete who wishes to return to running and other sports a child a senior citizen who wishes to return to household and community ambulation a female who wishes to return to hiking mountainous terrain
A senior citizen who wishes to return to household and community ambulation A SACH is appropriate for all ages and genders, BUT is most useful for ambulation over even surfaces and household distances
32
Which of the following is the least restrictive type of ankle foot orthosis? posterior leaf spring orthosis modified ankle-foot orthosis solid ankle-foot orthosis dual channel ankle-foot orthosis
posterior leaf spring orthosis A posterior leaf spring orthosis is a type of ankle-foot orthosis that provides a dorsiflexion assist during swing phase. The trim line is posterior to the malleoli and as a result the device offers minimal medial or lateral ankle support.
33
A Pavlik harness would result in the hip being positioned in: hip flexion and abduction hip flexion and adduction hip extension and abduction hip extension and adduction
Hip flexion and abduction A Pavlik harness is the primary method of treating developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH). DDH is a subluxed or dislocated hip in infancy as a result of abnormal congruency of the femoral head and acetabulum. The Pavlik harness maintains the infant’s hips in flexion and abduction to enhance acetabular development.
34
What is the name of this orthosis and what is its function
Pavlik harness - used to tread developmental hip dysplasia which is subluxed or dislocated hip during infancy
35
Which cervical orthosis effectively limits motion in all planes and allows for early mobility and rehabilitation after a vertebral fracture? Jewett orthosis Milwaukee brace Boston brace Minerva orthosis
Minerva orthosis The Minerva orthosis positions the head and applies stabilizing forces under and around the chin and occiput to restrict flexion and extension, lateral motion and rotation of the head and cervical spine. The remaining options would not limit mobility in the cervical spine.
36
What is the name of this orthosis and its function?
Restricts cervical motion in all planes to allow for early mobility and rehab after a avertebral fracture
37
Which variable would be the most compelling to warrant use of a scoliosis brace? 10 degree scoliotic curve rapid progression of an existing curve significant pain impacting functional activities subjective report of instability
Rapid progression of an existing curve Bracing is used with patients with 20-40 degree curves. But bracing can be used with rapid progression of a curve before it gets to 20
38
Which type of diagnostic imaging is designed to show motion in joints through x-ray imaging? computed tomography fluoroscopy myelography venography
Fluoroscopy
39
What is the primary disadvantage of using fluoroscopy as an imaging technique? excessive radiation exposure inability to determine density of bone structures poor resolution of images severity of tissue damage
excessive radiation exposure
40
Which of the following imaging techniques shows the greatest detail in soft tissue structures? magnetic resonance imaging computed tomography fluoroscopy x-ray
MRI
41
Which imaging technique provides the best view of a disc protrusion, differentiating between the nucleus pulposus and the annulus fibrosus? computed tomography plain film radiography magnetic resonance imaging xeroradiography
MRI
42
Which diagnostic test refers to a radiograph that visualizes injected radiopaque dye in an artery? arteriography arthrography venography computed tomography
arteriography
43
Which diagnostic test refers to an invasive test utilizing a contrast medium to provide visualization of joint structures through radiographs? arteriography arthrography bone scan computed tomography
arthrography
44
Which diagnostic test is an invasive test which utilizes isotopes to identify stress fractures, infection, and tumors? fluoroscopy computed tomography bone scan magnetic resonance imaging
bone scan
45
Which diagnostic test produces cross-sectional images based on x-ray attenuation and is commonly used to diagnose spinal lesions and in diagnostic studies of the brain? fluoroscopy computed tomography bone scan magnetic resonance imaging
CT scan
46
Which diagnostic test is non-invasive and relies on the transmission and reflection of high frequency sound waves to produce cross-sectional images in a variety of planes? fluoroscopy computed tomography Doppler ultrasonography magnetic resonance imaging
Doppler ultrasonography
47
Which diagnostic test is an invasive test that combines fluoroscopy and radiography to evaluate the spinal subarachnoid space? myelography electroencephalography electromyography computed tomography
myelography
48
Which of the following medical imaging devices produces images from radioactive emissions? magnetic resonance imaging functional magnetic resonance imaging positron emission tomography radiographs
PET scan
49
Which medical imaging technique would best detect an intracranial bleed such as a stroke? computed tomography scan functional magnetic resonance imaging positron emission tomography magnetic resonance imaging
CT scan
50
What technique used to quantify body fat is also used to analyze bone mineral content? skinfold measurements bioelectric impedance dual energy X-ray absorptiometry hydrostatic weighing
dual energy X-ray absorptiometry
51
During a cerebral angiography, radiopaque dyes are injected into which artery? vertebral artery pulmonary artery middle cerebral artery anterior cerebral artery
vertebral artery
52
Which scenario is not considered to be a contraindication for magnetic resonance imaging? presence of a pacemaker presence of pins presence of artificial heart valves presence of a tumor
presence of a tumor
53
Which test is the most effective in initially demonstrating a bone or joint abnormality? magnetic resonance imaging computed tomography scan plain film radiographs ultrasound
plain film radiograph
54
All of the following are cross-sectional imaging techniques except: conventional radiography magnetic resonance imaging computed tomography positron emission tomography
conventional radiography
55
What are the black areas produced on a radiograph called? radiodense radiolucent radiopaque radio waves
radiolucent
56
Which diagnostic procedure allows direct visual examination of the bladder, ureteral orifices, and urethra? x-ray cystoscopy intravenous pyelogram retrograde pyelogram
cystoscopy
57
Which diagnostic test records the electrical activity of the superficial layers of the brain? electroencephalography electromyography computed tomography magnetic resonance imaging
electroencephalography
58
What is the most likely method to obtain a sample of synovial fluid for analysis? arthrocentesis blood draw lumbar puncture urinalysis
arthrocentesis
59
Which medical device would be used to remove fluid from the pleural space after surgery? central venous line chest tube intraventricular catheter vascular access port
chest tube
60
Which type of catheter would require an incision in the lower abdominal area? condom catheter external catheter Foley catheter suprapubic catheter
suprapubic
61
Which type of feeding equipment is most likely to inhibit a cough? gastric tube gastrojejunal tube jejunostomy tube nasogastric tube
nasogastric
62
Which medical device is used for long-term administration of substances into the venous system such as chemotherapeutic agents, total parenteral nutrition, and antibiotics? arterial line intracranial pressure monitor pulmonary artery (Swan-Ganz) catheter indwelling right atrial (Hickman) catheter
(Swan-Ganz) catheter indwelling right atrial (Hickman) catheter
63
How many liters of oxygen per minute is the maximum provided from a nasal cannula? 3 liters per minute 4 liters per minute 5 liters per minute 6 liters per minute
6
64
A patient who has had an endotracheal tube inserted will have the most difficulty with which activity? talking suctioning bedside exercises ambulation
talking
65
A central venous pressure catheter measures pressures in which heart chamber? right atrium right ventricle left atrium left ventricle
right atrium
66
Which of the following functions can be performed with an arterial line? obtain blood samples administer medications administer nutrition insert a coronary stent
obtain blood samples
67
Which of the following is a possible complication with use of an intravenous line? myocardial infarction stroke pulmonary embolism seizure
PE
68
Which of the following oxygen delivery systems would most likely be used for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease? nasal catheter nasal cannula oronasal mask tracheostomy mask
nasal cannula
69
When ambulating with a patient using a Foley catheter, where should the collection bag be placed? at the level of the bladder above the level of the bladder below the level of the bladder on the floor
below the level of the bladder
70
Which of the following is most commonly used in a hospital setting for short-term feeding? percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy percutaneous endoscopic jejunostomy nasogastric tube total parenteral nutrition
nasogastric tube
71
Which ventilator setting delivers a constant tidal volume? computer-assisted control ventilation mechanical control ventilation pressure control ventilation volume control ventilation
volume control ventilation
72
What type of medical device is depicted in the image? intravenous line peripherally inserted central catheter line central venous catheter arterial line
IV
73
Which patient would be the most appropriate candidate for nasogastric feeding? patient with dysfunctional gag reflex patient with gastroesophageal reflux patient with high risk for aspiration patient in a com
patient in a coma
74
Which of the following is not a vehicle for medication administration through inhalation? face mask nebulizer positive-pressure breathing machine intravenous device
IV device
75
What is the most common method of patient-controlled analgesia? epidural transdermal regional intravenous
intravenous
76
The most appropriate form of nutrition for a newborn whose mother is HIV positive would be: intravenous feeding parenteral nutrition breast feeding bottle feeding
bottle feeding
77
What type of enteral nutrition line is depicted in the image? nasogastric tube nasojejunal tube gastrostomy jejunostomy
gastrostomy
78