Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

NPTE Exam > Cardiopulmonary Review Questions #4 > Flashcards

Cardiopulmonary Review Questions #4 Flashcards

1
Q

If left untreated, a deep vein thrombosis would be most likely to cause?

stroke
myocardial infarction
pulmonary embolism
anterior compartment syndrome

A

Pulmonary embolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What condition would be most commonly associated with transient pressure or discomfort resulting from myocardial ischemia?

aneurysm
angina pectoris
congenital heart defect
heart murmur

A

angina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What congenital condition would be most commonly associated with a malformation of the interior walls or valves of the heart?

atherosclerosis
endocarditis
cor pulmonale
congenital heart defect

A

congenital heart defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What condition would be most commonly associated with hypertrophy of the right ventricle caused by altered structure or function of the lungs?

hypertension
cor pulmonale
tetralogy of Fallot
atherosclerosis

A

cor pulmonale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for coronary artery disease?

poor nutrition
male gender
ethnicity
insufficient sleep

A

poor nutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the most common congenital heart defect?

atrial septal defect
tetralogy of Fallot
ventricular septal defect
patent ductus arteriosus

A

VSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following is not one of the four classic defects that compose the heart condition known as tetralogy of Fallot?

pulmonary stenosis
ventricular septal defect
aortic communication with both ventricles
right atrial hypertrophy

A

right atrial hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which condition causes enlargement of the cardiac muscle and is the leading cause of sudden death in young athletes?

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
cor pulmonale
tetralogy of Fallot
endocarditis

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the leading preventable cause of coronary artery disease?

alcoholism
hypertension
elevated low-density lipoproteins
smoking

A

smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following would be least likely to result in a deep vein thrombosis?

prolonged inactivity
injury to the endothelium
hypercoagulopathy
arterial insufficiency

A

arterial insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following would be considered an atrial septal defect?

mitral valve stenosis
patent foramen ovale
patent ductus arteriosus
bicuspid atresia

A

patent foramen ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A ventricular septal defect causes:

oxygenated blood to enter the left ventricle
deoxygenated blood to enter the right ventricle
oxygenated blood to enter the right ventricle
deoxygenated blood to enter the left ventricle

A

oxygenated blood to enter the right ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Obesity, prolonged bed rest, limb paralysis, congestive heart failure and use of oral contraceptives are all associated with an increased risk of developing:

myocardial infarction
diabetes mellitus
deep vein thrombosis
ischemic wounds

A

DVT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following would not be considered a general category of cardiac myopathy?

dilated
hypertrophic
paradoxical
restrictive

A

paradoxical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What surgical procedure would have the greatest incidence of deep vein thrombosis?

Achilles tendon repair
anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction
rotator cuff repair
total hip arthroplasty

A

THA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What condition would be most commonly associated with a progressive decrease in cardiac output that fails to meet the body’s demand for blood and oxygen?

heart failure
myocardial infarction
coronary artery disease
endocarditis

A

heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What condition would be most commonly associated with coronary artery blood flow being severely reduced or completely cut off causing irreversible necrosis to the myocardium?

heart failure
myocardial infarction
atherosclerosis
myocarditis

A

MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following abnormal lab values indicates the presence of an acute myocardial infarction?

elevated creatine kinase levels
elevated myoglobin levels
elevated albumin levels
elevated potassium levels

A

elevated creatine kinase levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of the following criteria indicates modification or termination of an exercise program for a patient with congestive heart failure?

ejection fraction above 40%
Borg rating of perceived exertion less than 3/10
mild dyspnea with ambulation
development of pulmonary crackles with exercise

A

development of pulmonary crackles with exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following etiologies would result in primary lymphedema?

radiation therapy for cancer
surgical removal of lymph nodes
congenital malformation of lymph vessels
lymphatic infection

A

congenital malformation of lymph vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Patients with congestive heart failure would most likely tolerate which position best?

Trendelenburg position
sitting
supine
left sidelying

A

sitting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the method by which pulmonary hypertension may lead to congestive heart failure?

increased right ventricle preload
increased left ventricle preload
increased right ventricle afterload
increased left ventricle afterload

A

increased right ventricle afterload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Myocardial injury is potentially reversible for how long following onset?

30 minutes
1 hour
6 hours
12 hours

A

30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Stage 1 hypertension is characterized by which systolic and diastolic blood pressure values respectively?

systolic less than 120 mm Hg and diastolic less than 80 mm Hg
systolic 120 – 129 mm Hg and diastolic less than 80 mm Hg
systolic 130 – 139 mm Hg or diastolic 80-89 mm Hg
systolic at least 140 mm Hg or diastolic at least 90 mm Hg or diastolic

A

systolic 130 – 139 mm Hg or diastolic 80-89 mm Hg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What condition can result in the compression of the heart by fluid? pericardial effusion pulmonary effusion pleuritis heart valve insufficiency
pericardial effusion
26
What deficit in myocardial performance is typically associated with pericarditis? decrease in myocardial expansion increase in ejection fraction decreased heart rate increased cardiac output
decrease in myocardial expansion
27
Why would a patient with congestive heart failure tend to experience a rapid weight gain? increased blood volume increased stroke volume increased fluid retention increased blood pressure
increased fluid retention
28
Rheumatic heart disease often occurs following an acute infection of what type of bacteria? streptococcus influenza staphylococcus escherichia coli
streptococcus
29
A heart valve that does not open completely is considered: incompetent closed insufficient stenotic
stenotic
30
A prolapsed valve in the heart is most likely to affect the: aortic valve mitral valve tricuspid valve pulmonary valve
mitral valve
31
What classification of drug best describes Lasix? antiarrhythmic anticoagulant calcium channel blocker diuretic
diuretic
32
Which pharmacological agent would be most likely prescribed to treat acute angina pectoris? anticoagulant agents calcium channel blockers nitrate agents positive inotropic agents
nitrate agents
33
Which type of medication is given prophylactically to prevent thrombus formation? antiplatelet agents calcium-channel blockers nitrates thrombolytic agents
antiplatelet
34
What classification of drug best describes Coumadin? beta blocker agents calcium channel blocker agents antiarrhythmic agents anticoagulant agents
anticoagulant
35
What classification of drug best describes Lipitor? antihyperlipidemia agents anticoagulant agents thrombolytic agents nitrate agents
antihyperlipidemia agents
36
What classification of drug best describes aspirin? antihyperlipidemia agents nitrate agents antithrombotic agents diuretic agents
antithrombotic
37
Which of the following would be classified as a calcium channel blocker agent? Propranolol Verapamil Digoxin Lipitor
Verapamil
38
Which pharmacological agent would be most likely prescribed to treat pericarditis? anti-inflammatory agents nitrate agents calcium channel blockers aspirin
anti-inflammatory
39
Which pharmacological agent would not be considered a bronchodilator? albuterol plavix levalbuterol corticosteroids
plavix
40
What effect would beta blockers have on a patient’s vital signs? increase in both heart rate and blood pressure increase in heart rate and decrease in blood pressure decrease in both heart rate and blood pressure decrease in heart rate and increase in blood pressure
decrease in both
41
Which of the following nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is often utilized following myocardial infarction? acetylsalicylic acid ibuprofen naproxen acetaminophen
acetylsalicyclic acid
42
What classification of drugs functions to increase the force of myocardial contraction? calcium channel blocker agents beta blockers positive inotropic agents nitrate agents
positive inotropic agents
43
Which of the following is used to treat cardiac arrhythmia? sodium channel blockers nitroglycerin anticoagulants benzodiazepines
sodium channel blockers
44
In patients with congestive heart failure, prolonged use of Lasix may lead to: thiamine deficiency vitamin C deficiency renal disease anemia
thiamine deficiency
45
Which substance facilitates endothelial vasodilation? insulin epinephrine caffeine nitric oxide
nitric oxide
46
Which of the following agents raises an individual’s blood pressure at rest and increases the blood pressure response to exercise? calcium channel blockers nitrates nicotine diuretics
nicotine
47
Which category of drug acts to strengthen the myocardium? cardiac glycosides beta blockers diuretics nitrates
cardiac glycosides
48
Which of the following types of me`edication would not be used to treat hypertension? thiazide diuretics beta blockers angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors digoxin
digoxin
49
What is a commonly used treatment for an acute pulmonary embolism? antihyperlipidemia agent angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor agent rapid acting fibrinolytic agent alpha adrenergic antagonist agent
rapid acting fibrinolytic agent
50
What type of pharmacological agent is commonly used to treat asthma? analgesics antitussives bronchodilators expectorants
bronchodilators
51
What condition is the drug digitalis commonly used to treat? arteriosclerosis cardiac arrhythmias chronic obstructive pulmonary disease pulmonary stenosis
cardiac arrhythmias
52
What type of drug is commonly used to remove mucus from the lungs? antitussives analgesics bronchodilators expectorants
exportants
53
An example of an adrenergic drug is: acetylcholine nicotine epinephrine choline
epinephrine
54
Which action on the heart or vascular system results from utilization of a cholinergic drug? dilation of innervated vessels increased venous return decreased internodal delay increased force of contraction
dilation of innervated vessels
55
Why would a patient taking beta blockers have a diminished heart rate response with exercise? sympathetic nervous system inhibition decrease in sodium and potassium decrease in circulating blood volume widespread system vasoconstriction
sympathetic nervous system inhibition
56
Which medical condition is most often assessed by using the Mantoux test? herpes zoster impetigo measles tuberculosis
TB
57
What condition would be most commonly associated with a buildup of fluid in the space between the lungs and the chest cavity? pleural effusion pneumonia pulmonary edema asthma
pleural effusion
58
What condition would be most commonly associated with an inflammation of the lungs usually caused by bacterial, viral, fungal or parasitic infection? pleural effusion pneumonia emphysema cystic fibrosis
pneumonia
59
What condition would be most commonly associated with a collection of fluid in the alveoli within the lungs, making it difficult to breathe? pulmonary fibrosis pneumonia pleural effusion pulmonary edema
pulmonary edema
60
What condition would be most commonly associated with one or more arteries in the lungs becoming blocked? pulmonary embolism emphysema pulmonary fibrosis restrictive lung disease
PE
61
What condition would be most commonly associated with irreversible reduced elasticity and increased stiffness of the lungs secondary to alveolar scarring? pulmonary edema pulmonary fibrosis restrictive lung disease chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
pulmonary fibrosis
62
Which condition would be most likely to produce blood-tinged sputum? bronchopneumonia tuberculosis bronchiectasis heart failure
TB
63
Which of the following conditions is considered to be a restrictive lung disease? bronchiectasis cystic fibrosis acute respiratory distress syndrome emphysema
acute respiratory distress syndrome
64
An embolus dislodged from the bifurcation of the right and left pulmonary artery is termed: fibrin clot deep vein thrombosis pulmonary embolism saddle embolus
saddle embolus
65
Which of the following is most likely to result in decreased lung compliance? asthma pneumonia pulmonary fibrosis cystic fibrosis
pulmonary fibrosis
66
What is the method by which pulmonary embolism may lead to congestive heart failure? elevated aortic pressure elevated pulmonary artery pressure left ventricular hypertrophy pulmonary valve stenosis
elevated pulmonary artery pressure
67
Which organism is the most common cause of pneumonia? haemophilus influenzae pseudomonas aeruginosa staphylococcus aureus streptococcus pneumoniae
streptococcus pneumoniae
68
Which of the following correctly states the expected blood gas measurements in a patient with respiratory alkalosis? elevated pH, normal HCO3, decreased PCO2 elevated pH, HCO3 and PCO2 decreased pH, and HCO3, normal PCO2 decreased pH, normal HCO3, normal PCO2
elevated pH, normal HCO3, decreased PCO2
69
Where do the majority of blood clots originate that result in a pulmonary embolus? upper extremity arteries upper extremity veins lower extremity arteries lower extremity veins
LE veins
70
What type of sputum is most commonly associated with pulmonary edema? fetid purulent hemoptysis frothy
frothy

NPTE Exam (54 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions