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dental assisting mda > Phase II Final > Flashcards

Phase II Final Flashcards

1
Q

How is plaque formed

A

by the presence of bacteria in the mouth (within saliva) combined with starches/sugars (carbohydrates) leftover from meals

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2
Q

After plaque is formed, what does it produce that leads to cavity formation if not removed

A

acids, acids draw minerals away from enamel in effort to neutralize them which weakens enamel.

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3
Q

the rate of ___ being faster than the rate of ___ causes cavity formation to occur

A

the rate of demineralization being faster than the rate of remineralization

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4
Q

what two types of bacteria are present in the mouth

A 
lactobacilli (high sugar diet)
Mutans streptococci (cariogenic)
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5
Q

3 minerals found in saliva that aid in remineralization

A

calcium, phosphorus, fluoride

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6
Q

how long does it take plaque to form

A

24 hours

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7
Q

list the stages leading to plaque build up

A
  1. acquired pellicle (thin protective coating)
  2. Materia alba (sticky white coating)
  3. Food debris - sticks to materia alba
  4. Plaque
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8
Q

what factors can contribute and worsen plaque accumulation

A

tight contacts / crowding
poor oral hygiene
amount of bacteria (genetic)
diet

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9
Q

Polishing with a prophy cup and paste is to remove what type of deposit

A

soft plaque deposit

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10
Q

What is cariogenic bacteria

A

bacteria in the mouth capable of causing caries. Acid producing
- Mutans streptococci / lactobaccili

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11
Q

What is an endogenous intrinsic stain?

A

a stain that originates within the tooth during development due to a systemic cause

  • formed before tooth eruption
    ex) tetracycline
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12
Q

What is a exogenous intrinsic stain?

A

a stain that is caused by an environmental source but is within the tooth structure and can’t be removed
- formed after tooth eruption

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13
Q

how are most extrinsic stains removed?

A

brushing, polishing or whitening

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14
Q

coffee, betel leaf, tea, wine stain are all examples of an

A

exogenous extrinsic stain

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15
Q

what is demineralization

A

the process of mineral loss from enamel

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16
Q

what is remineralization

A

the process of minerals being added to tooth surface

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17
Q

what is the sequence of remineralization

A

plaque forms, acids attack enamel, minerals are drawn out to neutralize(demineralization). Acid attack is over and remineralization occurs through saliva returning minerals to the teeth

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18
Q

Why is fluoride applied to the teeth

A

to remineralize the teeth to enforce the barrier against acid attacks and cavities forming

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19
Q

who benefits the most from fluoride applications?

A 
children in areas with non fluoridated water
Newley developing or erupting teeth
high risk of caries
ortho patients
xerostomia
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20
Q

what two sources is fluoride obtained from

A

systemic (food and water) or topically (toothpaste, office treatment)

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21
Q

what types of delivery is fluoride available

A

gel/foam trays or by paint on varnish techniques

- main form of topical is through daily toothpaste use

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22
Q

NAF 10% is known as ___ and is used on who?

A 
Sodium fluoride (neutral pH 7) 
used on patients with any kind of restorative work
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23
Q

APF 1.23% is known as ___ and only used on patient with a

A

acidulated phosphate fluoride (acidic pH)

only used on patients with virgin dentitions

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24
Q

what is the fluoride concentration in city water

A

1 PPM

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25
Q

what food source has high natural levels of fluoride in it?

A

Gelatin, salmon

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26
Q

what range of polishing paste abrasives is there?

A

extra course to microfine

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27
Q

when using a course abrasive for tenacious stains, what procedure steps are added as a result of that?

A

must work way down in order to a fine abrasive. Using a different polishing cup for each and rinsing between

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28
Q

why are courser abrasives used to remove hard stains?

A

reduces the chance of frictional heat trauma to the tooth. Instead of going over and over a stain, a more abrasive paste can take it off in one go

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29
Q

what dictates the abrasive used?

A

type of staining, - extent of staining

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30
Q

what causes gingival trauma during a coronal polish?

A

contact of the polishing cup with gingival tissues when trying to splay the cup. The speed of rotation causes trauma to the tissues.
Extent of trauma depends on how much contact occurred

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31
Q

what does gingival trauma look like?

A

blanching(white marks), swelling, redness, bleeding

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32
Q

what is the technique of polishing?

A

using short intermittent but overlapping strokes, begin by splaying cup on gingival third of tooth moving toward occlusal for each stroke

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33
Q

what is splaying a polishing cup

A

spreading it to reach slightly subgingivally

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34
Q

what is the max time per tooth while polishing

A

3-5 seconds a tooth

1-2 seconds per stroke

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35
Q

Contraindications of polishing?

A
  • no stains present
  • incipient lesions/decay present
  • high risk of caries
  • sensitivity
  • respiratory issues
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36
Q

what are 4 things to keep in mind and be cautious of while polishing?

A
  • bacteriemia
  • aerosols produced
  • loss of enamel surface
  • frictional heat production
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37
Q

periodontal disease subdivides into two categories being

A

periodontitis

gingivitis

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38
Q

what is periodontitis

A

the inflammation of supporting tissues of the teeth (involves bone/tissues/ligaments)

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39
Q

how does the progression of periodontitis occur

A

it begins in the gingival tissue, then the connective tissues (periodontal ligaments) then into the alveolar bone

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40
Q

what is damaged more and more as periodontitis progresses?

A

the connective tissue attachment (epithelial attachment) at the bottom of the pocket is destroyed. This exposes more root surfaces and deepens the sulcus

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41
Q

what is gingivitis? is it irreversible

A

it is inflammation of the gingival tissues due to over abundance of bacteria. Causes redness, swelling and bleeding of gum tissue.

Is reversible with improved oral hygiene practices

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42
Q

who benefits from the modified bass/ bass brushing technique? Who would you recommend it too

A

its suitable for the average healthy patient, or those with periodontal issues

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43
Q

what brushing technique is designed for patients with recession and root exposure

A

modified still mans, avoids direct contact with the sulcus and stimulates the gums

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44
Q

fones method of brushing is circular motions and only recommended for who

A

children, Not suitable to clean adult teeth

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45
Q

a patient with braces or who just healed from periodontal surgery would benefit most from ___ brushing technique

A

the charters method

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46
Q

what are some aids to recommend to periodontal patients

A 
Interdental tip (stimulates)
sulca brush (to clean)
wedge stimulator
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47
Q

What is chlorahexadine

A

a chemotherapeutic mouth rinse. Provides antibacterial effects and reduces bacteria presence. Promotes healing and can ease pain

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48
Q

chlorahexadine is a antibiotic?

A

no it is a antiseptic because it targets more than one type of bacteria

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49
Q

Periodontal treatment beings with what?

A

scaling and root planing to remove calculus, gingival curettage to remove any necrotic tissues from the sulcus

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50
Q

What is the purpose of scaling/root planing and gingival curettage in relation to periodontal disease?

A

it removes any rough surfaces and excess bacteria. A smooth surface free of trapped bacteria promotes healing and prevents further progression

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51
Q

What is the proper flossing ‘procedure’?

A

using the spool method, wrap 18 inches of floss around middle fingers.

  • Use index fingers to apply gentle pressure when flossing the mandible
  • Use thumbs to apply gentle pressure to maxilla
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52
Q

Should you snap floss past the contact point? Why or why not?

A

You should not snap the floss in because it risks causing damage to the Col
- Instead you should wiggle the floss past the contact and hug the tooth ( C shape)

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53
Q

What is the col and where is it located?

A

Col is a non keratinized depression located between both interdental papillae. Since its not keratinized its a fragile tissue susceptible to damage

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54
Q

In toothpaste, what ingredient is responsible for foaming inorder to loosen debris

A

the detergent

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55
Q

Humectants in dentifrice is to

A

retain moisture

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56
Q

what does the binder ingredient in toothpaste do?

A

it prevents separation of the liquid and solid components

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57
Q

Toothpastes contain preservatives in order to prevent what?

A

bacterial growth

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58
Q

Mouthrinses often contain a ___ to shrink tissues

A

astringent

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59
Q

Buffering and deodorizing ingredients in mouth rinse provide what effects?

A 
buffering = reduces acidity
Deodorizing = Reduces odour
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60
Q

Ethics (moral conduct) refers to ___

A

right vs wrong behaviour, involves many grey areas and very few absolutes
- Subjective to personal interpretation

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61
Q

how are ethical standards compared to legalities

A

ethical standards are always held higher than legal standings
- a situation may be legal but unethical, a situation can never be illegal and ethical

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62
Q

non-malificence

A

to do no harm

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63
Q

veracity

A

to tell the truth

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64
Q

autonomy

A

self determination

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65
Q

beneficence

A

well being

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66
Q

dental jurisprudence

A

application of the principles of the law in relation to dentistry

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67
Q

respondent superior is latin for “let the master answer”, what does it refer to in dentistry?

A

that the employer (dentist/company) is responsible and liable for actions of their employees

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68
Q

what is malpractice?

A

professional negligence

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69
Q

the act of omission refers to

A

failure to preform an act that any reasonable practitioner would preform

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70
Q

act of commission refers to

A

preforming an act that any reasonable practitioner wouldn’t preform

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71
Q

when taking a preliminary impression, where would you be positioned for each arch?

A 
Maxillary = from the side towards the back
Mandibular = from the side toward the front
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72
Q

a proper fitting impression tray would ___

A

reach and cover maxillary tuberosities, retromolar pads and have 1/4 inch of space infront of the anteriors

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73
Q

what can you do if a tray isn’t long enough or have adequate depth

A

use of utility/beading wax to lengthen or add height to a tray

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74
Q

What is done to an impression before its sent off to the lab?

A

rinsed with cold water to remove bioburden, sprayed with disinfectant and packaged with a damp paper towel in a sealable plastic bag

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75
Q

what type of disinfectant is safe for use on impression material?

A

iodophors or sodium hypochlorite

- dosent cause any distortion

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76
Q

4 most common final impression materials?

A
  • Poly siloxane
  • polysuflide
  • polyether
  • silicone
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77
Q

What is ideal water temperature to use when mixing alginate

A

20-21 degrees C (68-70 degrees F)

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78
Q

What happens when you use warmer or cooler water to mix alginate

A

cooler water lengthens setting and working time

warm water shortens setting and working time

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79
Q

2 types of primary matrix systems?

A

T-Band

Spot welded band

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80
Q

Matrix systems?

A

Toffelmire retainer (posterior)
Sectional matrix band (kidney bean + tension ring)
Celluloid/Mylar strip (anterior)
Automatrix (coil and wrench)

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81
Q

What were toffelmire retainers originally designed for

A

class II amalgam restorations

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82
Q

What is the proper placement of a toffelmire + matrix band

A

diagonal slot + smaller band circumference toward the gingiva

  • Directed toward screw Q1 + Q3
  • Directed toward the T Q2 + Q4
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83
Q

how many mm below the gingiva should the matrix band sit

A

1.5 mm

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84
Q

using a ball burnisher the matrix band is contoured, what is placed following that?

A

a wedge is placed to create the space for a new contact to be constructed with material

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85
Q

why is the wedge always removed after the band?

A

to prevent fracture of the new contact during removal of the band, reenforces the material

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86
Q

who benefits most from sealant placement

A

Children in high caries risk age group (6-15) benefit the most but anyone can receive a sealant if the have deep pits and fissures

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87
Q

Sealant procedure steps?

A
  • isolate, clean with non fluoridated pumic
  • Etch, rinse > dry
  • Apply material mesial to distal / remove bubbles and cure
  • Check retention, floss, check bite
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88
Q

What is the common reason for sealant failure

A

saliva or moisture contamination once surface is etched

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89
Q

oral irrigation - reduces bacteria levels in interproximal and subgingival areas. Who benefits most from using?

A

ortho patients, gingivitis, implants, diabetes

- often used by those who can’t or don’t want to floss

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90
Q

when are sutures removed?

A

5-7 days after placement

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91
Q

Suture removal producer steps?

A
  • swab with antiseptic
  • grasp suture with cotton pliers, cut under the knot using scissors
  • grasp knot and gently tug toward suture site to remove
  • always count # removed in comparison to chart #
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92
Q

Plain catgut, Chromic catgut, Vicryl, Monocryl are all ___ suture materials

A

absorbable

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93
Q

Silk, nylon, polyester are all types of ____ sutures

A

non absorbable

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94
Q

Name 4 common suture placement patterns

A

interrupted
continuous uninterrupted
mattress (horizontal or vertical)
Continuous box

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95
Q

A patient is getting a filling done, the dentist requests you place the dam. Upon intra oral exam you see the tooth to be clamped and adjacent teeth have heavy plaque build up, what do you do?

A

Polish the teeth with a extra fine abrasive to remove the plaque, rinse and dry the area. Then place the dental dam

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96
Q

Why would you polish areas with plaque prior to placing a dental dam?

A

to avoid pushing bacteria subgingivally when the clamp is placed. Could cause an infection or irritation

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97
Q

what would be a contraindication of dental dam placement

A

herpes, cracks/blisters in lip corners, claustrophobia, respiratory issues, latex allergy

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98
Q

Once placed, where does the jaws of a clamp sit?

A

below the height of contour, at or below the Cementoenamel junction

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99
Q

what is a prophy jet?

A

it is an air polishing unit that used water/air/sodium bicarbonate ti remove plaque/debris and stains on teeth

can be used in place of traditional handpiece polishing

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100
Q

why is it so important to obtain and update medical history of patients

A

many things in a medical history can contraindicate aspects of treatment, by having all the info present the team is able to modify treatment to ensure safety. As well it gives background

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101
Q

the trigeminal nerve (5th cranial nerve) is the main supply to the oral cavity, how many branches are there?

A

2 main (maxillary and mandibular)

  • 5 sub branches of maxillary
  • 6 sub branches of mandibular
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102
Q

what are the nerves in the maxillary branch

A
  • Nasopalatine & greater palatine

- ASA, MSA, PSA

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103
Q

What nerves come from the mandibular branch

A
  • Buccal, Lingual, Inferior Alveolar (mental, incisive, mylohyoid)
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104
Q

the nasopalatine nerve is reached through the incisive foramen behind 1.1 - 2.1, what does it effect?

A

the hard palate and 3-3 anterior teeth

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105
Q

the Greater palatine nerve supplies the soft palate, where is the injection point?

A

lingual of 6/7’s

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106
Q

all the nerves in the mandibular branch can be reached through different points in the retromolar pad except 2, which two are a different location?

A

the mental nerve (through mental foramen 4-5) and incisive nerve

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107
Q

vitamins do not produce energy, but they are __

A

necessary for energy to be released from foods

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108
Q

Vitamins B1, B2, B12 are all for energy release, what would deficiency cause

A

anemia

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109
Q

a vitamin D deficiency would cause

A

rickets in children and calcium loss in adults

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110
Q

what is vitamin A helpful in forming

A

mucous membranes and teeth

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111
Q

Which vitamin deficiency causes swollen or bleeding gums

A

vitamin C

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112
Q

Vitamin K is responsible for blood clotting, what happens when deficient?

A

bleeding disorders, clotting disorders

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113
Q

topical anesthetic is used for what?

A

to provide temporary numbing when injecting LA, reduce gag reflex during impressions etc

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114
Q

what is the active ingredient in topical

A

benzocaine of lidocaine

115
Q

Waste amalgam is store in what type of container?

A

air tight, dry, labelled container

116
Q

Why are vital signs taken? and what are the categories

A

to establish the patients normal for monitoring

- Blood pressure, pulse, temperature, respiration

117
Q

what are the sounds produced during BP readings called?

A

kortokoff sounds

  • systolic : pressure exerted by muscle to pump blood
  • diastolic : Heart muscle at rest
118
Q

average BP of an adult?

A

less than 120 over less than 80

119
Q

which artery is used for a blood pressure reading

A

the racial artery, located on inner side of elbow (antecubital area)

120
Q

average pulse of a healthy adult

A

60-100 BPM

121
Q

Pulse can be taken on the radial, brachial or carotid artery, which is most common?

A

radial

122
Q

when taking a pulse which finger do you not use

A

your thumb, it radiates your own heartbeat and can cause discrepancies

123
Q

what rate of respiration is average for adults

A

10-20 breaths per minute

124
Q

36.4-37.0 degrees C is a average ___

A

temperature (forehead reading)

125
Q

Type I dental cements are formulated as luting agents (adhesive) for use on

A

crowns, bridges, brackets - Can be permanent or temporary. Still a luting agent the strength just differs

126
Q

Anything indirectly made is attached to tooth surface using what kind of cement

A

type I luting agents

127
Q

Type II dental cements are used as ___

A

restorative materials (IRM, Sealant)

128
Q

Type III dental cements are ___ and are placed within the prep

A

liners and bases

129
Q

which dental cement is very versatile and comes with a fluoride realease

A

glass ionomers

130
Q

glass ionomer type Iv is used for ___

A

sealants (flowable)

131
Q

GI type V is for cementation of

A

ortho bands

132
Q

ZOE contains eugenol, what does that provide to the tooth

A

sedative soothing effect for irritation

133
Q

ZOE type I is used for

A

cementation of provisional coverage (temp bond)

134
Q

ZOE type III IRM is used as a ___ and for ___

A

thermal base and for temporary restorations

135
Q

Polycarboxylate is used as a

A

permanent cement and non irritating base

136
Q

which dental cement is the most irritating and exhibits an exothermic reaction when mixed

A

zinc phosphate

137
Q

when mixing zinc phosphate, would you mix it on a paper pad?

A

no, its mixed on a cool glass slab (68F) to help dissipate the heat

138
Q

Zinc phosphate can be used as a

A

permanent cement and insulating base

139
Q

when are treatment plans created and why?

A

they’re created following initial examination, patient is presented multiple options for the treatment and fees are discussed prior to any treatment being completed

140
Q

what does it mean to be the beneficiary of dental insurance

A

the person who benefits from it, policy holder

141
Q

what are the three types of benefits plans

A
  • traditional benefits (fee for service) AKA indemnity plans
  • managed care dental plans (low cost for everyone-limited)
  • Government plans(public health - limited)
142
Q

What is a co-payment in relation to insurance

A

when the plan requires beneficiary to pay a fixed dollar amount at time of service

143
Q

the subscriber of a benefit plan is the one who __

A

carries the plan

144
Q

what is coordination of benefits

A

two plans paying, primary one covers majority and the secondary covers the remainder

145
Q

which permanent tooth erupts first in a deciduous dentition?

A

the maxillary and mandibular central incisors (6-7 years)

146
Q

which permanent teeth erupt last in a deciduous dentition? what do they get replaced with

A

All primary second molars (age 10-12) replaced by second premolars

147
Q

Name all the tooth surfaces

A

mesial, distal, buccal, facial, lingual, occlusal, incisal

148
Q

how would you correct a charting error?

A

with a single line through the mistake, and initial and date to recognize

149
Q

Blacks classification : Class I

A

pits and fissures of molars/premolars/lingual anteriors

150
Q

Blacks classification : Class II

A

occlusal/proximal surfaces of molars and premolars

151
Q

Blacks Classification : Class III

A

proximal of anteriors, not including incisal

152
Q

Blacks Classification : Class IV

A

proximal and incisal edge of anteriors

153
Q

Blacks Classification : Class V

A

cervical third of any tooth

154
Q

Blacks Classification : Class VI

A

incisal edge or cusp tips

155
Q

Which salivary gland produces the most saliva (65%)

A

the submandibular gland / Wharton’s duct

156
Q

The largest salivary gland is the _

A

parotid gland, located near the ear

157
Q

Which duct attaches to the parotid salivary gland

A

the stensons duct

158
Q

the sublingual gland is the ____ and attaches to the bartholins duct

A

the smallest (10%), located under the tongue

159
Q

where is the submandibular gland located and where does it drain to

A

located along the jaw line, drains to either side of the tongue tie

160
Q

when using the HVE what is the ideal positioning for moisture control

A

placed with the bevel parallel to the tooth, slightly distal and at or slightly above occlusal surface

Quad 1 + 4, anteriors = lingual
Quad 2 + 3 = Buccal

161
Q

Nitrous oxide (N20) is administered how?

A

beginning with 100% O2, slowly titrating N2O till result achieved, then reversing when needed with 100% O2 for 3-5 mins

162
Q

What is a scavenger system

A

reduces the amount of N2O that is released into the air

163
Q

how will a patient feel when on N2O?

A

light tingling sensation, general numbness and lightheaded

164
Q

who would nitrous oxide be contraindicated for

A

pregnant women, nasal obstructions, respiratory issues,

165
Q

what are the 4 components of composite resin?

A

Organic resin matrix, filler, coupling agent, pigment

166
Q

inorganic fillers in composite are what kind of materials?

A

quartz, glass, silica - Particle size dictates refinement of material

167
Q

a composite hybrid is ideal because ___

A

it combines the particle size ideal for strength with the one that has ideal surface texture. Creating a smooth strong material

168
Q

what is a coupling agent in composite for

A

to chemically bind fillers with the resin matrix

169
Q

if composite is a darker color would it effect the curing time?

A

it would take longer to cure

170
Q

What types of material is used to pour study models/casts

A

dental stone
plaster
die stone
high strength stone > all gypsum material

171
Q

water to powder ratio for plaster?

A

100g powder to 45-50 mL water

172
Q

water to powder ratio for stone?

A

100g powder to 28-30 mL water

173
Q

what happens when improper ratios are mixed for gypsum material

A

durability of product goes down. Produces a weaker version

174
Q

what are common medical emergencies seen in the dental office?

A 
Syncope(fainting)
postural hypotension (sudden change in position)
Angina
Seizures
Asthma attack
hyperventilation
175
Q

How would you treat an angina attack?

A

typically lasts 3-8 mins (severe chest pain), can administer nitroglycerin in tablet, spray or patch form

176
Q

how is hyperventilation treated?

A

by calming the patient, breathing with them, instruct to breate into cupped hands to return carbon dioxide

177
Q

type 1 diabetes is someone who is

A

insulin dependant

178
Q

type 2 diabetes is someone who

A

isn’t insulin dependant, manages diet

179
Q

What is hypoglycaemia and how is it treated

A

it is a decrease in glucose levels, administer glucose to regulate levels

180
Q

Hyperglycemia is an over abundance of glucose in the blood, how would you treat this

A

administer pt insulin

181
Q

on a radiograph, a radiolucent structure appears as?

A

a darker area, this is because the beams pass through easier

182
Q

on a radiograph how would a radiopaque structure appear?

A

as a white light area, beams are reflected back off the structure

183
Q

what are some radiopaque structures

A

enamel, restorative material, appliances, bone, metal

184
Q

what are a few radiolucent structures

A

foramens, pulp canals, tissues, cavities, sinuses

185
Q

sterilization procedure order

A

transport, preclean, package, sterilize, storage, delivery, quality

186
Q

what 3 things are used to ‘preclean’ instruments?

A
  • holding solutions (enzymatic solution, detergent) *only prevents hardening of debris (no dinsinfection)
  • Ultrasonic cleaning (removes debris- docent disinfect)
  • Automated washers (disinfects due to high heat)
187
Q

What is the most common form of sterilization today?

A

use of a steam under pressure sterilization (autoclave)

- uses high pressure steam at high heat to kill all forms of life

188
Q

what is the common temp for an autoclave

A

270F for 30 mins

189
Q

Chemical vapour steam sterilization isn’t favourable because it uses ___

A

formaldehyde, acetone, ketone, alcohol. Needs a lot of ventilation to prevent harmful inhalation

190
Q

Whats the difference between forced and static air dry heat sterilization?

A

forced air acts in a similar way to a convection over - circulates the air around the chamber
Static air is the rising of hot air with no circulation

191
Q

what temp does dry heat sterilization occur? (higher)

A

320F - 375F

192
Q

What is a process indicator used for?

A

process indicators are used to measure single parameters(temp) of a sterilization cycle being reached -

193
Q

Where would a process indicator be placed?

A

placed on the outside of a package like cassette tape (or already on the bag)

194
Q

Process integrators are placed inside a package or cassette and measure what?

A

indicate when multiple parameters have been met during a sterilization cycle. ex) time, temp, pressure

195
Q

do process indicators/integrators indicate sterility of an item?

A

no, just that parameters have been met

196
Q

What would a cross check be considered?

A

a process integrator

197
Q

What is biological monitoring used for

A

to determine sterilization has occurred and the integrity of the machine

198
Q

what is inside of a BI

A

endospores , typically tuberculocidal spores because if it can kill those (very heat resistant) it will kill everything else

199
Q

what is antiseptic applied to

A

living tissue

200
Q

when cleaning a surface, why do we wipe twice?

A

once to remove bioburden (blood and saliva), second to disinfect the surface

201
Q

High level disinfectants are designed to kill ___

A

all microorganisms but not spores

202
Q

Intermediate level disinfectants destroy __ and inactive spores

A

bacteria

203
Q

What are the characteristics of an ideal surface disinfectant

A
  • kills broad range of bacteria
  • residual activity
  • minimally toxic
  • dosent damage surface
204
Q

Gluteraldehyde and chloride dioxide are

A

high level disinfectant

205
Q

What are 3 types of intermediate level disinfectants

A

iodophors (stain red)
synthetic phenols
Sodium hypochlorite (bleach)
alcohol (evaporates)

206
Q

Universal precautions states that …

A

we should treat all bodily fluids (blood, saliva) as if they’re potentially infectious

207
Q

water borne bacteria levels must be kept below ___ to be used in dental water lines

A

500 CFU (colony forming units)

208
Q

what are the two types of bacteria present in waterlines

A

Planktonic microbes = free floating bacteria

Biofilm = Attached to walls of hoses and unit

209
Q

why do we flush the water lines before, after and between patients ?

A

to reduce bacterial colonization within the water supply

210
Q

A way to reduce bacteria within the water lines is to have a ___ unit

A

self contained unit

211
Q

what is a pathogen

A

bacteria that is capable of causing disease

212
Q

3 components of a cell

A

cell membrane ; outer layer
cytoplasm ; fluid
nucleus ; genetic information (DNA and RNA)

213
Q

OTC drugs are also referred to as

A

patent medicines - ex) Tylenol, Advil, ibuprofen

214
Q

Prescription drugs are also known as

A

ethical drugs, controlled substances requiring administering by doctor

215
Q

3 forms of a drug name

A
  • generic : shorthand of chemical name
  • chemical : named after chemical formula
  • brand : commercially produced and trademarked
216
Q

drugs are classified into schedules, as the number increases what decreases

A

the drugs risk for causing addiction and medical usefulness increases

217
Q

what schedule of drug is most commonly used In dental?

A

schedule 3 - combination narcotics (Tylenol w/ codeine)

218
Q

what is an analgesic

A

a pain medicine

  • opioid : moderate to severe(codeine)
  • non-opioid : mild to moderate (Tylenol)
219
Q

What are antibiotics prescribed for

A

to eliminate or prevent infections

  • bactericidal : kills microorganism directly
  • bacteriostatic : inhibits production of microorganisms, allows body to eliminate
220
Q

what is a retraction cord used for?

A

to mechanically displace gingival tissues to widen and deepen the sulcus

221
Q

when is retraction cord placed?

A

after the prep, before final impression to obtain the margins of the prep

222
Q

when would you use two cords? and do both need to be removed

A

for a already deep/wide sulcus. The second can be left in during the final impression

223
Q

what is the procedure for placing and removing cord?

A

placed with a blunt instrument in a clockwise direction, removed with cotton pliers in counter clock wise direction

224
Q

what kind of chemicals can impregnated retraction cords contain?

A
  • epinepherine : shrinks tissues (vasoconstrictor)
  • aluminum chloride : safe for use on cardiopatients
  • hemostatic solution : to control bleeding
225
Q

when would surgical retraction be used

A

for hypertrophied tissues, gingival hyperplasia

226
Q

what is the difference between over bite and overjet?

A

overbite is increased vertical overlap of mandibular incisors
overjet is excessive protrusion of maxillary indoors

227
Q

which cells form enamel

A

ameloblasts

228
Q

odontoblasts are for forming

A

dentin

229
Q

which cells form cementum

A

cementoblasts

230
Q

fibroblasts develop

A

pulp tissue

231
Q

which cells break down and deposit bone

A

osteoblasts deposit new bone

osteoclasts break down bone

232
Q

bud stage (initiation) is the __ stage of development

A

first

233
Q

cap stage (proliferation) is the second stage and when the __

A

tooth cells grow and increase in number

234
Q

bell stage is aka

A

morphodifferentiation and histodifferentiation

235
Q

what is morphodifferentiation

A

the tooth cells develop shape and size, DEJ and CEJ form

236
Q

what is hisodifferentiation

A

cells differentiate and specialize

237
Q

what is coalesce

A

the fusion of cusps

238
Q

what are the 4 types of pulp vitality testing?

A
  • electronic pulp test
  • percussion test
  • palpation test
  • thermal test
239
Q

what is the goal of an electrical pulp test?

A

to determine if pulp is necrotic or not

240
Q

percussion and palpation tests are used to determine if

A

periapical tissues are inflammed

241
Q

heat thermal pulp tests are the least effective because they can indicate __

A

heat tests response can indicate both reversible and irreversible pulpits

242
Q

thermal tests are to indicate if

A

reversible or irreversible pulpits

243
Q

what is a control tooth?

A

used during pulp vitality testing. The same tooth as suspect just in opposing quad, used to establish a normal

244
Q

what’s the biggest difference from oral surgery vs a general dentist practice

A

OS requires a sterile field, sterile water, sterile gloves, surgical scrubs

245
Q

why are there many different types of extraction forceps

A

to accommodate the crown size, location, root direction etc

246
Q

universal extraction forceps are useable on __

A

the left and right of one arch

247
Q

extraction, biopsy, sutures, gingivectomy, alveoplasty etc are all ___

A

oral surgery procedures

248
Q

what does post op care in oral surgery focus on?

A

controlling bleeding, swelling and keeping the wound clean

249
Q

what is alveolar osteitis?

A

dry socket

250
Q

Occlusion is the

A

relationship between maxillary and mandible when in a fully closed position

251
Q

What is centric occlusion

A

occurs when the jaw is fully closed and there is maximal contact between arches

252
Q

function occlusion occurs during

A

chewing or biting motions

253
Q

the abnormal or malpoitioned relationship of the maxilla and mandible is called

A

malocclusion

254
Q

all the classes of occlusion are based on which tooth

A

the maxillary first molar MB cusp in relation to the mandibular first molar MB groove

255
Q

Class I occlusion is Neutrocclusion meaning

A

the arch is occluding properly, anterior teeth may be malaligned
- MB cusp of max 1st molar occludes with MB groove of mand 1st molar

256
Q

Class II = distocclusion meaning that the

A

MB cusp occludes mesially to the MB groove

257
Q

Class II Div 1 is an overbite in which the anterior teeth ___

A

protrude

258
Q

Class II Div 2 is an overbite with an anterior __

A

flare of the laterals

259
Q

what is class III occlusion called

A

mesiocclusion - underbite

- MB cusp occludes distal to the MB groove

260
Q

the curve of spee is formed by

A

occlusion, seen from side profile

261
Q

The curve of Wilson is formed when a line is drawn from

A

last molar quad 4 to last molar quad 3, seen from lingual view

262
Q

A Childs actual age in years and months is referred to as their

A

chronologic age

263
Q

what is a Childs mental age referring to

A

the Childs level of intellectual capacity

264
Q

a Childs emotional maturity is referred to as their

A

emotional age

265
Q

what is the Frankl scale designed for?

A

to measure a Childs behaviour during dental treatment

266
Q

What are the major facial muscles

A

orbicularis oris
buccinator
mentalis
zygomatic major

267
Q

temporalis, masseter, internal/external pterygoids are all the major muscles of ___

A

mastication, responsible for opening and closing the jaw

268
Q

which muscles are in the floor of the mouth

A

geniohyoid
stylohyoid
mylohyoid
gastric

269
Q

Which cranial nerve innervates the facial muscles

A

the seventh cranial nerve (facial)

270
Q

Name the 3 muscles of the tongue

A

genioglossus
hyoglossus
styloglossus

271
Q

FDI numbering system number the teeth in what way

A

2 digit system, first digit represents the quadrant / second digit represents the tooth

272
Q

what is FDI primary system

A

same as permanent, quads are just #5-8 and teeth are #1-5

273
Q

How does the universal system number teeth

A

1-32 beginning in upper right, ending lower right

274
Q

how is the primary dentition numbered in universal

A

it is organized with letters A-T

275
Q

Palmer notation uses the name tooth numbers as FDI, with the addition of what?

A

brackets indicating the quadrant

276
Q

Primary dentition in palmer notation?

A

uses brackets and letters A-E

277
Q

Are all anterior teeth succedaneous?

A

yes

278
Q

What are some landmarks of anterior teeth

A
  • cingulum : rpunded area on cervical lingual
  • Marginal ridges : mesial/distal ridges around cingulum
  • Fossa : depression on lingual surface
279
Q

What are mamelons

A

ridges on the incsial surface of Newley erupted permanent teeth. Wear away over time

280
Q

which posterior teeth are nonsuccedaneous

A

molars

281
Q

how many cusps do each molar have

A

4 (MB, ML, DB, DL)

282
Q

which tooth is the largest in the maxilla

A

the maxillary first molars

283
Q

which premolar can have 3 cusps

A

the mandibular second premolar

- known as tricanineate

dental assisting mda (35 decks)

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