Phase II Final Flashcards
How is plaque formed
by the presence of bacteria in the mouth (within saliva) combined with starches/sugars (carbohydrates) leftover from meals
After plaque is formed, what does it produce that leads to cavity formation if not removed
acids, acids draw minerals away from enamel in effort to neutralize them which weakens enamel.
the rate of ___ being faster than the rate of ___ causes cavity formation to occur
the rate of demineralization being faster than the rate of remineralization
what two types of bacteria are present in the mouth
lactobacilli (high sugar diet) Mutans streptococci (cariogenic)
3 minerals found in saliva that aid in remineralization
calcium, phosphorus, fluoride
how long does it take plaque to form
24 hours
list the stages leading to plaque build up
- acquired pellicle (thin protective coating)
- Materia alba (sticky white coating)
- Food debris - sticks to materia alba
- Plaque
what factors can contribute and worsen plaque accumulation
tight contacts / crowding
poor oral hygiene
amount of bacteria (genetic)
diet
Polishing with a prophy cup and paste is to remove what type of deposit
soft plaque deposit
What is cariogenic bacteria
bacteria in the mouth capable of causing caries. Acid producing
- Mutans streptococci / lactobaccili
What is an endogenous intrinsic stain?
a stain that originates within the tooth during development due to a systemic cause
- formed before tooth eruption
ex) tetracycline
What is a exogenous intrinsic stain?
a stain that is caused by an environmental source but is within the tooth structure and can’t be removed
- formed after tooth eruption
how are most extrinsic stains removed?
brushing, polishing or whitening
coffee, betel leaf, tea, wine stain are all examples of an
exogenous extrinsic stain
what is demineralization
the process of mineral loss from enamel
what is remineralization
the process of minerals being added to tooth surface
what is the sequence of remineralization
plaque forms, acids attack enamel, minerals are drawn out to neutralize(demineralization). Acid attack is over and remineralization occurs through saliva returning minerals to the teeth
Why is fluoride applied to the teeth
to remineralize the teeth to enforce the barrier against acid attacks and cavities forming
who benefits the most from fluoride applications?
children in areas with non fluoridated water Newley developing or erupting teeth high risk of caries ortho patients xerostomia
what two sources is fluoride obtained from
systemic (food and water) or topically (toothpaste, office treatment)
what types of delivery is fluoride available
gel/foam trays or by paint on varnish techniques
- main form of topical is through daily toothpaste use
NAF 10% is known as ___ and is used on who?
Sodium fluoride (neutral pH 7) used on patients with any kind of restorative work
APF 1.23% is known as ___ and only used on patient with a
acidulated phosphate fluoride (acidic pH)
only used on patients with virgin dentitions
what is the fluoride concentration in city water
1 PPM
what food source has high natural levels of fluoride in it?
Gelatin, salmon
what range of polishing paste abrasives is there?
extra course to microfine
when using a course abrasive for tenacious stains, what procedure steps are added as a result of that?
must work way down in order to a fine abrasive. Using a different polishing cup for each and rinsing between
why are courser abrasives used to remove hard stains?
reduces the chance of frictional heat trauma to the tooth. Instead of going over and over a stain, a more abrasive paste can take it off in one go
what dictates the abrasive used?
type of staining, - extent of staining
what causes gingival trauma during a coronal polish?
contact of the polishing cup with gingival tissues when trying to splay the cup. The speed of rotation causes trauma to the tissues.
Extent of trauma depends on how much contact occurred
what does gingival trauma look like?
blanching(white marks), swelling, redness, bleeding
what is the technique of polishing?
using short intermittent but overlapping strokes, begin by splaying cup on gingival third of tooth moving toward occlusal for each stroke
what is splaying a polishing cup
spreading it to reach slightly subgingivally
what is the max time per tooth while polishing
3-5 seconds a tooth
1-2 seconds per stroke
Contraindications of polishing?
- no stains present
- incipient lesions/decay present
- high risk of caries
- sensitivity
- respiratory issues
what are 4 things to keep in mind and be cautious of while polishing?
- bacteriemia
- aerosols produced
- loss of enamel surface
- frictional heat production
periodontal disease subdivides into two categories being
periodontitis
gingivitis
what is periodontitis
the inflammation of supporting tissues of the teeth (involves bone/tissues/ligaments)
how does the progression of periodontitis occur
it begins in the gingival tissue, then the connective tissues (periodontal ligaments) then into the alveolar bone
what is damaged more and more as periodontitis progresses?
the connective tissue attachment (epithelial attachment) at the bottom of the pocket is destroyed. This exposes more root surfaces and deepens the sulcus
what is gingivitis? is it irreversible
it is inflammation of the gingival tissues due to over abundance of bacteria. Causes redness, swelling and bleeding of gum tissue.
Is reversible with improved oral hygiene practices
who benefits from the modified bass/ bass brushing technique? Who would you recommend it too
its suitable for the average healthy patient, or those with periodontal issues
what brushing technique is designed for patients with recession and root exposure
modified still mans, avoids direct contact with the sulcus and stimulates the gums
fones method of brushing is circular motions and only recommended for who
children, Not suitable to clean adult teeth
a patient with braces or who just healed from periodontal surgery would benefit most from ___ brushing technique
the charters method
what are some aids to recommend to periodontal patients
Interdental tip (stimulates) sulca brush (to clean) wedge stimulator
What is chlorahexadine
a chemotherapeutic mouth rinse. Provides antibacterial effects and reduces bacteria presence. Promotes healing and can ease pain
chlorahexadine is a antibiotic?
no it is a antiseptic because it targets more than one type of bacteria
Periodontal treatment beings with what?
scaling and root planing to remove calculus, gingival curettage to remove any necrotic tissues from the sulcus
What is the purpose of scaling/root planing and gingival curettage in relation to periodontal disease?
it removes any rough surfaces and excess bacteria. A smooth surface free of trapped bacteria promotes healing and prevents further progression
What is the proper flossing ‘procedure’?
using the spool method, wrap 18 inches of floss around middle fingers.
- Use index fingers to apply gentle pressure when flossing the mandible
- Use thumbs to apply gentle pressure to maxilla
Should you snap floss past the contact point? Why or why not?
You should not snap the floss in because it risks causing damage to the Col
- Instead you should wiggle the floss past the contact and hug the tooth ( C shape)
What is the col and where is it located?
Col is a non keratinized depression located between both interdental papillae. Since its not keratinized its a fragile tissue susceptible to damage
In toothpaste, what ingredient is responsible for foaming inorder to loosen debris
the detergent
Humectants in dentifrice is to
retain moisture
what does the binder ingredient in toothpaste do?
it prevents separation of the liquid and solid components
Toothpastes contain preservatives in order to prevent what?
bacterial growth
Mouthrinses often contain a ___ to shrink tissues
astringent
Buffering and deodorizing ingredients in mouth rinse provide what effects?
buffering = reduces acidity Deodorizing = Reduces odour
Ethics (moral conduct) refers to ___
right vs wrong behaviour, involves many grey areas and very few absolutes
- Subjective to personal interpretation
how are ethical standards compared to legalities
ethical standards are always held higher than legal standings
- a situation may be legal but unethical, a situation can never be illegal and ethical
non-malificence
to do no harm
veracity
to tell the truth
autonomy
self determination
beneficence
well being
dental jurisprudence
application of the principles of the law in relation to dentistry
respondent superior is latin for “let the master answer”, what does it refer to in dentistry?
that the employer (dentist/company) is responsible and liable for actions of their employees
what is malpractice?
professional negligence
the act of omission refers to
failure to preform an act that any reasonable practitioner would preform
act of commission refers to
preforming an act that any reasonable practitioner wouldn’t preform
when taking a preliminary impression, where would you be positioned for each arch?
Maxillary = from the side towards the back Mandibular = from the side toward the front
a proper fitting impression tray would ___
reach and cover maxillary tuberosities, retromolar pads and have 1/4 inch of space infront of the anteriors
what can you do if a tray isn’t long enough or have adequate depth
use of utility/beading wax to lengthen or add height to a tray
What is done to an impression before its sent off to the lab?
rinsed with cold water to remove bioburden, sprayed with disinfectant and packaged with a damp paper towel in a sealable plastic bag
what type of disinfectant is safe for use on impression material?
iodophors or sodium hypochlorite
- dosent cause any distortion
4 most common final impression materials?
- Poly siloxane
- polysuflide
- polyether
- silicone
What is ideal water temperature to use when mixing alginate
20-21 degrees C (68-70 degrees F)
What happens when you use warmer or cooler water to mix alginate
cooler water lengthens setting and working time
warm water shortens setting and working time
2 types of primary matrix systems?
T-Band
Spot welded band
Matrix systems?
Toffelmire retainer (posterior)
Sectional matrix band (kidney bean + tension ring)
Celluloid/Mylar strip (anterior)
Automatrix (coil and wrench)
What were toffelmire retainers originally designed for
class II amalgam restorations
What is the proper placement of a toffelmire + matrix band
diagonal slot + smaller band circumference toward the gingiva
- Directed toward screw Q1 + Q3
- Directed toward the T Q2 + Q4
how many mm below the gingiva should the matrix band sit
1.5 mm
using a ball burnisher the matrix band is contoured, what is placed following that?
a wedge is placed to create the space for a new contact to be constructed with material
why is the wedge always removed after the band?
to prevent fracture of the new contact during removal of the band, reenforces the material
who benefits most from sealant placement
Children in high caries risk age group (6-15) benefit the most but anyone can receive a sealant if the have deep pits and fissures
Sealant procedure steps?
- isolate, clean with non fluoridated pumic
- Etch, rinse > dry
- Apply material mesial to distal / remove bubbles and cure
- Check retention, floss, check bite
What is the common reason for sealant failure
saliva or moisture contamination once surface is etched
oral irrigation - reduces bacteria levels in interproximal and subgingival areas. Who benefits most from using?
ortho patients, gingivitis, implants, diabetes
- often used by those who can’t or don’t want to floss
when are sutures removed?
5-7 days after placement
Suture removal producer steps?
- swab with antiseptic
- grasp suture with cotton pliers, cut under the knot using scissors
- grasp knot and gently tug toward suture site to remove
- always count # removed in comparison to chart #
Plain catgut, Chromic catgut, Vicryl, Monocryl are all ___ suture materials
absorbable
Silk, nylon, polyester are all types of ____ sutures
non absorbable
Name 4 common suture placement patterns
interrupted
continuous uninterrupted
mattress (horizontal or vertical)
Continuous box
A patient is getting a filling done, the dentist requests you place the dam. Upon intra oral exam you see the tooth to be clamped and adjacent teeth have heavy plaque build up, what do you do?
Polish the teeth with a extra fine abrasive to remove the plaque, rinse and dry the area. Then place the dental dam
Why would you polish areas with plaque prior to placing a dental dam?
to avoid pushing bacteria subgingivally when the clamp is placed. Could cause an infection or irritation
what would be a contraindication of dental dam placement
herpes, cracks/blisters in lip corners, claustrophobia, respiratory issues, latex allergy
Once placed, where does the jaws of a clamp sit?
below the height of contour, at or below the Cementoenamel junction
what is a prophy jet?
it is an air polishing unit that used water/air/sodium bicarbonate ti remove plaque/debris and stains on teeth
can be used in place of traditional handpiece polishing
why is it so important to obtain and update medical history of patients
many things in a medical history can contraindicate aspects of treatment, by having all the info present the team is able to modify treatment to ensure safety. As well it gives background
the trigeminal nerve (5th cranial nerve) is the main supply to the oral cavity, how many branches are there?
2 main (maxillary and mandibular)
- 5 sub branches of maxillary
- 6 sub branches of mandibular
what are the nerves in the maxillary branch
- Nasopalatine & greater palatine
- ASA, MSA, PSA
What nerves come from the mandibular branch
- Buccal, Lingual, Inferior Alveolar (mental, incisive, mylohyoid)
the nasopalatine nerve is reached through the incisive foramen behind 1.1 - 2.1, what does it effect?
the hard palate and 3-3 anterior teeth
the Greater palatine nerve supplies the soft palate, where is the injection point?
lingual of 6/7’s
all the nerves in the mandibular branch can be reached through different points in the retromolar pad except 2, which two are a different location?
the mental nerve (through mental foramen 4-5) and incisive nerve
vitamins do not produce energy, but they are __
necessary for energy to be released from foods
Vitamins B1, B2, B12 are all for energy release, what would deficiency cause
anemia
a vitamin D deficiency would cause
rickets in children and calcium loss in adults
what is vitamin A helpful in forming
mucous membranes and teeth
Which vitamin deficiency causes swollen or bleeding gums
vitamin C
Vitamin K is responsible for blood clotting, what happens when deficient?
bleeding disorders, clotting disorders
topical anesthetic is used for what?
to provide temporary numbing when injecting LA, reduce gag reflex during impressions etc
what is the active ingredient in topical
benzocaine of lidocaine
Waste amalgam is store in what type of container?
air tight, dry, labelled container
Why are vital signs taken? and what are the categories
to establish the patients normal for monitoring
- Blood pressure, pulse, temperature, respiration
what are the sounds produced during BP readings called?
kortokoff sounds
- systolic : pressure exerted by muscle to pump blood
- diastolic : Heart muscle at rest
average BP of an adult?
less than 120 over less than 80
which artery is used for a blood pressure reading
the racial artery, located on inner side of elbow (antecubital area)
average pulse of a healthy adult
60-100 BPM
Pulse can be taken on the radial, brachial or carotid artery, which is most common?
radial
when taking a pulse which finger do you not use
your thumb, it radiates your own heartbeat and can cause discrepancies
what rate of respiration is average for adults
10-20 breaths per minute
36.4-37.0 degrees C is a average ___
temperature (forehead reading)
Type I dental cements are formulated as luting agents (adhesive) for use on
crowns, bridges, brackets - Can be permanent or temporary. Still a luting agent the strength just differs
Anything indirectly made is attached to tooth surface using what kind of cement
type I luting agents
Type II dental cements are used as ___
restorative materials (IRM, Sealant)
Type III dental cements are ___ and are placed within the prep
liners and bases
which dental cement is very versatile and comes with a fluoride realease
glass ionomers
glass ionomer type Iv is used for ___
sealants (flowable)
GI type V is for cementation of
ortho bands
ZOE contains eugenol, what does that provide to the tooth
sedative soothing effect for irritation
ZOE type I is used for
cementation of provisional coverage (temp bond)
ZOE type III IRM is used as a ___ and for ___
thermal base and for temporary restorations
Polycarboxylate is used as a
permanent cement and non irritating base
which dental cement is the most irritating and exhibits an exothermic reaction when mixed
zinc phosphate
when mixing zinc phosphate, would you mix it on a paper pad?
no, its mixed on a cool glass slab (68F) to help dissipate the heat
Zinc phosphate can be used as a
permanent cement and insulating base
when are treatment plans created and why?
they’re created following initial examination, patient is presented multiple options for the treatment and fees are discussed prior to any treatment being completed
what does it mean to be the beneficiary of dental insurance
the person who benefits from it, policy holder
what are the three types of benefits plans
- traditional benefits (fee for service) AKA indemnity plans
- managed care dental plans (low cost for everyone-limited)
- Government plans(public health - limited)
What is a co-payment in relation to insurance
when the plan requires beneficiary to pay a fixed dollar amount at time of service
the subscriber of a benefit plan is the one who __
carries the plan
what is coordination of benefits
two plans paying, primary one covers majority and the secondary covers the remainder
which permanent tooth erupts first in a deciduous dentition?
the maxillary and mandibular central incisors (6-7 years)
which permanent teeth erupt last in a deciduous dentition? what do they get replaced with
All primary second molars (age 10-12) replaced by second premolars
Name all the tooth surfaces
mesial, distal, buccal, facial, lingual, occlusal, incisal
how would you correct a charting error?
with a single line through the mistake, and initial and date to recognize
Blacks classification : Class I
pits and fissures of molars/premolars/lingual anteriors
Blacks classification : Class II
occlusal/proximal surfaces of molars and premolars
Blacks Classification : Class III
proximal of anteriors, not including incisal
Blacks Classification : Class IV
proximal and incisal edge of anteriors
Blacks Classification : Class V
cervical third of any tooth
Blacks Classification : Class VI
incisal edge or cusp tips
Which salivary gland produces the most saliva (65%)
the submandibular gland / Wharton’s duct
The largest salivary gland is the _
parotid gland, located near the ear
Which duct attaches to the parotid salivary gland
the stensons duct
the sublingual gland is the ____ and attaches to the bartholins duct
the smallest (10%), located under the tongue
where is the submandibular gland located and where does it drain to
located along the jaw line, drains to either side of the tongue tie
when using the HVE what is the ideal positioning for moisture control
placed with the bevel parallel to the tooth, slightly distal and at or slightly above occlusal surface
Quad 1 + 4, anteriors = lingual
Quad 2 + 3 = Buccal
Nitrous oxide (N20) is administered how?
beginning with 100% O2, slowly titrating N2O till result achieved, then reversing when needed with 100% O2 for 3-5 mins
What is a scavenger system
reduces the amount of N2O that is released into the air
how will a patient feel when on N2O?
light tingling sensation, general numbness and lightheaded
who would nitrous oxide be contraindicated for
pregnant women, nasal obstructions, respiratory issues,
what are the 4 components of composite resin?
Organic resin matrix, filler, coupling agent, pigment
inorganic fillers in composite are what kind of materials?
quartz, glass, silica - Particle size dictates refinement of material
a composite hybrid is ideal because ___
it combines the particle size ideal for strength with the one that has ideal surface texture. Creating a smooth strong material
what is a coupling agent in composite for
to chemically bind fillers with the resin matrix
if composite is a darker color would it effect the curing time?
it would take longer to cure
What types of material is used to pour study models/casts
dental stone
plaster
die stone
high strength stone > all gypsum material
water to powder ratio for plaster?
100g powder to 45-50 mL water
water to powder ratio for stone?
100g powder to 28-30 mL water
what happens when improper ratios are mixed for gypsum material
durability of product goes down. Produces a weaker version
what are common medical emergencies seen in the dental office?
Syncope(fainting) postural hypotension (sudden change in position) Angina Seizures Asthma attack hyperventilation
How would you treat an angina attack?
typically lasts 3-8 mins (severe chest pain), can administer nitroglycerin in tablet, spray or patch form
how is hyperventilation treated?
by calming the patient, breathing with them, instruct to breate into cupped hands to return carbon dioxide
type 1 diabetes is someone who is
insulin dependant
type 2 diabetes is someone who
isn’t insulin dependant, manages diet
What is hypoglycaemia and how is it treated
it is a decrease in glucose levels, administer glucose to regulate levels
Hyperglycemia is an over abundance of glucose in the blood, how would you treat this
administer pt insulin
on a radiograph, a radiolucent structure appears as?
a darker area, this is because the beams pass through easier
on a radiograph how would a radiopaque structure appear?
as a white light area, beams are reflected back off the structure
what are some radiopaque structures
enamel, restorative material, appliances, bone, metal
what are a few radiolucent structures
foramens, pulp canals, tissues, cavities, sinuses
sterilization procedure order
transport, preclean, package, sterilize, storage, delivery, quality
what 3 things are used to ‘preclean’ instruments?
- holding solutions (enzymatic solution, detergent) *only prevents hardening of debris (no dinsinfection)
- Ultrasonic cleaning (removes debris- docent disinfect)
- Automated washers (disinfects due to high heat)
What is the most common form of sterilization today?
use of a steam under pressure sterilization (autoclave)
- uses high pressure steam at high heat to kill all forms of life
what is the common temp for an autoclave
270F for 30 mins
Chemical vapour steam sterilization isn’t favourable because it uses ___
formaldehyde, acetone, ketone, alcohol. Needs a lot of ventilation to prevent harmful inhalation
Whats the difference between forced and static air dry heat sterilization?
forced air acts in a similar way to a convection over - circulates the air around the chamber
Static air is the rising of hot air with no circulation
what temp does dry heat sterilization occur? (higher)
320F - 375F
What is a process indicator used for?
process indicators are used to measure single parameters(temp) of a sterilization cycle being reached -
Where would a process indicator be placed?
placed on the outside of a package like cassette tape (or already on the bag)
Process integrators are placed inside a package or cassette and measure what?
indicate when multiple parameters have been met during a sterilization cycle. ex) time, temp, pressure
do process indicators/integrators indicate sterility of an item?
no, just that parameters have been met
What would a cross check be considered?
a process integrator
What is biological monitoring used for
to determine sterilization has occurred and the integrity of the machine
what is inside of a BI
endospores , typically tuberculocidal spores because if it can kill those (very heat resistant) it will kill everything else
what is antiseptic applied to
living tissue
when cleaning a surface, why do we wipe twice?
once to remove bioburden (blood and saliva), second to disinfect the surface
High level disinfectants are designed to kill ___
all microorganisms but not spores
Intermediate level disinfectants destroy __ and inactive spores
bacteria
What are the characteristics of an ideal surface disinfectant
- kills broad range of bacteria
- residual activity
- minimally toxic
- dosent damage surface
Gluteraldehyde and chloride dioxide are
high level disinfectant
What are 3 types of intermediate level disinfectants
iodophors (stain red)
synthetic phenols
Sodium hypochlorite (bleach)
alcohol (evaporates)
Universal precautions states that …
we should treat all bodily fluids (blood, saliva) as if they’re potentially infectious
water borne bacteria levels must be kept below ___ to be used in dental water lines
500 CFU (colony forming units)
what are the two types of bacteria present in waterlines
Planktonic microbes = free floating bacteria
Biofilm = Attached to walls of hoses and unit
why do we flush the water lines before, after and between patients ?
to reduce bacterial colonization within the water supply
A way to reduce bacteria within the water lines is to have a ___ unit
self contained unit
what is a pathogen
bacteria that is capable of causing disease
3 components of a cell
cell membrane ; outer layer
cytoplasm ; fluid
nucleus ; genetic information (DNA and RNA)
OTC drugs are also referred to as
patent medicines - ex) Tylenol, Advil, ibuprofen
Prescription drugs are also known as
ethical drugs, controlled substances requiring administering by doctor
3 forms of a drug name
- generic : shorthand of chemical name
- chemical : named after chemical formula
- brand : commercially produced and trademarked
drugs are classified into schedules, as the number increases what decreases
the drugs risk for causing addiction and medical usefulness increases
what schedule of drug is most commonly used In dental?
schedule 3 - combination narcotics (Tylenol w/ codeine)
what is an analgesic
a pain medicine
- opioid : moderate to severe(codeine)
- non-opioid : mild to moderate (Tylenol)
What are antibiotics prescribed for
to eliminate or prevent infections
- bactericidal : kills microorganism directly
- bacteriostatic : inhibits production of microorganisms, allows body to eliminate
what is a retraction cord used for?
to mechanically displace gingival tissues to widen and deepen the sulcus
when is retraction cord placed?
after the prep, before final impression to obtain the margins of the prep
when would you use two cords? and do both need to be removed
for a already deep/wide sulcus. The second can be left in during the final impression
what is the procedure for placing and removing cord?
placed with a blunt instrument in a clockwise direction, removed with cotton pliers in counter clock wise direction
what kind of chemicals can impregnated retraction cords contain?
- epinepherine : shrinks tissues (vasoconstrictor)
- aluminum chloride : safe for use on cardiopatients
- hemostatic solution : to control bleeding
when would surgical retraction be used
for hypertrophied tissues, gingival hyperplasia
what is the difference between over bite and overjet?
overbite is increased vertical overlap of mandibular incisors
overjet is excessive protrusion of maxillary indoors
which cells form enamel
ameloblasts
odontoblasts are for forming
dentin
which cells form cementum
cementoblasts
fibroblasts develop
pulp tissue
which cells break down and deposit bone
osteoblasts deposit new bone
osteoclasts break down bone
bud stage (initiation) is the __ stage of development
first
cap stage (proliferation) is the second stage and when the __
tooth cells grow and increase in number
bell stage is aka
morphodifferentiation and histodifferentiation
what is morphodifferentiation
the tooth cells develop shape and size, DEJ and CEJ form
what is hisodifferentiation
cells differentiate and specialize
what is coalesce
the fusion of cusps
what are the 4 types of pulp vitality testing?
- electronic pulp test
- percussion test
- palpation test
- thermal test
what is the goal of an electrical pulp test?
to determine if pulp is necrotic or not
percussion and palpation tests are used to determine if
periapical tissues are inflammed
heat thermal pulp tests are the least effective because they can indicate __
heat tests response can indicate both reversible and irreversible pulpits
thermal tests are to indicate if
reversible or irreversible pulpits
what is a control tooth?
used during pulp vitality testing. The same tooth as suspect just in opposing quad, used to establish a normal
what’s the biggest difference from oral surgery vs a general dentist practice
OS requires a sterile field, sterile water, sterile gloves, surgical scrubs
why are there many different types of extraction forceps
to accommodate the crown size, location, root direction etc
universal extraction forceps are useable on __
the left and right of one arch
extraction, biopsy, sutures, gingivectomy, alveoplasty etc are all ___
oral surgery procedures
what does post op care in oral surgery focus on?
controlling bleeding, swelling and keeping the wound clean
what is alveolar osteitis?
dry socket
Occlusion is the
relationship between maxillary and mandible when in a fully closed position
What is centric occlusion
occurs when the jaw is fully closed and there is maximal contact between arches
function occlusion occurs during
chewing or biting motions
the abnormal or malpoitioned relationship of the maxilla and mandible is called
malocclusion
all the classes of occlusion are based on which tooth
the maxillary first molar MB cusp in relation to the mandibular first molar MB groove
Class I occlusion is Neutrocclusion meaning
the arch is occluding properly, anterior teeth may be malaligned
- MB cusp of max 1st molar occludes with MB groove of mand 1st molar
Class II = distocclusion meaning that the
MB cusp occludes mesially to the MB groove
Class II Div 1 is an overbite in which the anterior teeth ___
protrude
Class II Div 2 is an overbite with an anterior __
flare of the laterals
what is class III occlusion called
mesiocclusion - underbite
- MB cusp occludes distal to the MB groove
the curve of spee is formed by
occlusion, seen from side profile
The curve of Wilson is formed when a line is drawn from
last molar quad 4 to last molar quad 3, seen from lingual view
A Childs actual age in years and months is referred to as their
chronologic age
what is a Childs mental age referring to
the Childs level of intellectual capacity
a Childs emotional maturity is referred to as their
emotional age
what is the Frankl scale designed for?
to measure a Childs behaviour during dental treatment
What are the major facial muscles
orbicularis oris
buccinator
mentalis
zygomatic major
temporalis, masseter, internal/external pterygoids are all the major muscles of ___
mastication, responsible for opening and closing the jaw
which muscles are in the floor of the mouth
geniohyoid
stylohyoid
mylohyoid
gastric
Which cranial nerve innervates the facial muscles
the seventh cranial nerve (facial)
Name the 3 muscles of the tongue
genioglossus
hyoglossus
styloglossus
FDI numbering system number the teeth in what way
2 digit system, first digit represents the quadrant / second digit represents the tooth
what is FDI primary system
same as permanent, quads are just #5-8 and teeth are #1-5
How does the universal system number teeth
1-32 beginning in upper right, ending lower right
how is the primary dentition numbered in universal
it is organized with letters A-T
Palmer notation uses the name tooth numbers as FDI, with the addition of what?
brackets indicating the quadrant
Primary dentition in palmer notation?
uses brackets and letters A-E
Are all anterior teeth succedaneous?
yes
What are some landmarks of anterior teeth
- cingulum : rpunded area on cervical lingual
- Marginal ridges : mesial/distal ridges around cingulum
- Fossa : depression on lingual surface
What are mamelons
ridges on the incsial surface of Newley erupted permanent teeth. Wear away over time
which posterior teeth are nonsuccedaneous
molars
how many cusps do each molar have
4 (MB, ML, DB, DL)
which tooth is the largest in the maxilla
the maxillary first molars
which premolar can have 3 cusps
the mandibular second premolar
- known as tricanineate
