Phase II Final Flashcards
1
Q
How is plaque formed
A
by the presence of bacteria in the mouth (within saliva) combined with starches/sugars (carbohydrates) leftover from meals
2
Q
After plaque is formed, what does it produce that leads to cavity formation if not removed
A
acids, acids draw minerals away from enamel in effort to neutralize them which weakens enamel.
3
Q
the rate of ___ being faster than the rate of ___ causes cavity formation to occur
A
the rate of demineralization being faster than the rate of remineralization
4
Q
what two types of bacteria are present in the mouth
A
lactobacilli (high sugar diet) Mutans streptococci (cariogenic)
5
Q
3 minerals found in saliva that aid in remineralization
A
calcium, phosphorus, fluoride
6
Q
how long does it take plaque to form
A
24 hours
7
Q
list the stages leading to plaque build up
A
- acquired pellicle (thin protective coating)
- Materia alba (sticky white coating)
- Food debris - sticks to materia alba
- Plaque
8
Q
what factors can contribute and worsen plaque accumulation
A
tight contacts / crowding
poor oral hygiene
amount of bacteria (genetic)
diet
9
Q
Polishing with a prophy cup and paste is to remove what type of deposit
A
soft plaque deposit
10
Q
What is cariogenic bacteria
A
bacteria in the mouth capable of causing caries. Acid producing
- Mutans streptococci / lactobaccili
11
Q
What is an endogenous intrinsic stain?
A
a stain that originates within the tooth during development due to a systemic cause
- formed before tooth eruption
ex) tetracycline
12
Q
What is a exogenous intrinsic stain?
A
a stain that is caused by an environmental source but is within the tooth structure and can’t be removed
- formed after tooth eruption
13
Q
how are most extrinsic stains removed?
A
brushing, polishing or whitening
14
Q
coffee, betel leaf, tea, wine stain are all examples of an
A
exogenous extrinsic stain
15
Q
what is demineralization
A
the process of mineral loss from enamel
16
Q
what is remineralization
A
the process of minerals being added to tooth surface
17
Q
what is the sequence of remineralization
A
plaque forms, acids attack enamel, minerals are drawn out to neutralize(demineralization). Acid attack is over and remineralization occurs through saliva returning minerals to the teeth
18
Q
Why is fluoride applied to the teeth
A
to remineralize the teeth to enforce the barrier against acid attacks and cavities forming
19
Q
who benefits the most from fluoride applications?
A
children in areas with non fluoridated water Newley developing or erupting teeth high risk of caries ortho patients xerostomia
20
Q
what two sources is fluoride obtained from
A
systemic (food and water) or topically (toothpaste, office treatment)
21
Q
what types of delivery is fluoride available
A
gel/foam trays or by paint on varnish techniques
- main form of topical is through daily toothpaste use
22
Q
NAF 10% is known as ___ and is used on who?
A
Sodium fluoride (neutral pH 7) used on patients with any kind of restorative work
23
Q
APF 1.23% is known as ___ and only used on patient with a
A
acidulated phosphate fluoride (acidic pH)
only used on patients with virgin dentitions
24
Q
what is the fluoride concentration in city water
A
1 PPM
25
what food source has high natural levels of fluoride in it?
Gelatin, salmon
26
what range of polishing paste abrasives is there?
extra course to microfine
27
when using a course abrasive for tenacious stains, what procedure steps are added as a result of that?
must work way down in order to a fine abrasive. Using a different polishing cup for each and rinsing between
28
why are courser abrasives used to remove hard stains?
reduces the chance of frictional heat trauma to the tooth. Instead of going over and over a stain, a more abrasive paste can take it off in one go
29
what dictates the abrasive used?
type of staining, - extent of staining
30
what causes gingival trauma during a coronal polish?
contact of the polishing cup with gingival tissues when trying to splay the cup. The speed of rotation causes trauma to the tissues.
Extent of trauma depends on how much contact occurred
31
what does gingival trauma look like?
blanching(white marks), swelling, redness, bleeding
32
what is the technique of polishing?
using short intermittent but overlapping strokes, begin by splaying cup on gingival third of tooth moving toward occlusal for each stroke
33
what is splaying a polishing cup
spreading it to reach slightly subgingivally
34
what is the max time per tooth while polishing
3-5 seconds a tooth
| 1-2 seconds per stroke
35
Contraindications of polishing?
- no stains present
- incipient lesions/decay present
- high risk of caries
- sensitivity
- respiratory issues
36
what are 4 things to keep in mind and be cautious of while polishing?
- bacteriemia
- aerosols produced
- loss of enamel surface
- frictional heat production
37
periodontal disease subdivides into two categories being
periodontitis
| gingivitis
38
what is periodontitis
the inflammation of supporting tissues of the teeth (involves bone/tissues/ligaments)
39
how does the progression of periodontitis occur
it begins in the gingival tissue, then the connective tissues (periodontal ligaments) then into the alveolar bone
40
what is damaged more and more as periodontitis progresses?
the connective tissue attachment (epithelial attachment) at the bottom of the pocket is destroyed. This exposes more root surfaces and deepens the sulcus
41
what is gingivitis? is it irreversible
it is inflammation of the gingival tissues due to over abundance of bacteria. Causes redness, swelling and bleeding of gum tissue.
Is reversible with improved oral hygiene practices
42
who benefits from the modified bass/ bass brushing technique? Who would you recommend it too
its suitable for the average healthy patient, or those with periodontal issues
43
what brushing technique is designed for patients with recession and root exposure
modified still mans, avoids direct contact with the sulcus and stimulates the gums
44
fones method of brushing is circular motions and only recommended for who
children, Not suitable to clean adult teeth
45
a patient with braces or who just healed from periodontal surgery would benefit most from ___ brushing technique
the charters method
46
what are some aids to recommend to periodontal patients
```
Interdental tip (stimulates)
sulca brush (to clean)
wedge stimulator
```
47
What is chlorahexadine
a chemotherapeutic mouth rinse. Provides antibacterial effects and reduces bacteria presence. Promotes healing and can ease pain
48
chlorahexadine is a antibiotic?
no it is a antiseptic because it targets more than one type of bacteria
49
Periodontal treatment beings with what?
scaling and root planing to remove calculus, gingival curettage to remove any necrotic tissues from the sulcus
50
What is the purpose of scaling/root planing and gingival curettage in relation to periodontal disease?
it removes any rough surfaces and excess bacteria. A smooth surface free of trapped bacteria promotes healing and prevents further progression
51
What is the proper flossing 'procedure'?
using the spool method, wrap 18 inches of floss around middle fingers.
- Use index fingers to apply gentle pressure when flossing the mandible
- Use thumbs to apply gentle pressure to maxilla
52
Should you snap floss past the contact point? Why or why not?
You should not snap the floss in because it risks causing damage to the Col
- Instead you should wiggle the floss past the contact and hug the tooth ( C shape)
53
What is the col and where is it located?
Col is a non keratinized depression located between both interdental papillae. Since its not keratinized its a fragile tissue susceptible to damage
54
In toothpaste, what ingredient is responsible for foaming inorder to loosen debris
the detergent
55
Humectants in dentifrice is to
retain moisture
56
what does the binder ingredient in toothpaste do?
it prevents separation of the liquid and solid components
57
Toothpastes contain preservatives in order to prevent what?
bacterial growth
58
Mouthrinses often contain a ___ to shrink tissues
astringent
59
Buffering and deodorizing ingredients in mouth rinse provide what effects?
```
buffering = reduces acidity
Deodorizing = Reduces odour
```
60
Ethics (moral conduct) refers to ___
right vs wrong behaviour, involves many grey areas and very few absolutes
- Subjective to personal interpretation
61
how are ethical standards compared to legalities
ethical standards are always held higher than legal standings
- a situation may be legal but unethical, a situation can never be illegal and ethical
62
non-malificence
to do no harm
63
veracity
to tell the truth
64
autonomy
self determination
65
beneficence
well being
66
dental jurisprudence
application of the principles of the law in relation to dentistry
67
respondent superior is latin for "let the master answer", what does it refer to in dentistry?
that the employer (dentist/company) is responsible and liable for actions of their employees
68
what is malpractice?
professional negligence
69
the act of omission refers to
failure to preform an act that any reasonable practitioner would preform
70
act of commission refers to
preforming an act that any reasonable practitioner wouldn't preform
71
when taking a preliminary impression, where would you be positioned for each arch?
```
Maxillary = from the side towards the back
Mandibular = from the side toward the front
```
72
a proper fitting impression tray would ___
reach and cover maxillary tuberosities, retromolar pads and have 1/4 inch of space infront of the anteriors
73
what can you do if a tray isn't long enough or have adequate depth
use of utility/beading wax to lengthen or add height to a tray
74
What is done to an impression before its sent off to the lab?
rinsed with cold water to remove bioburden, sprayed with disinfectant and packaged with a damp paper towel in a sealable plastic bag
75
what type of disinfectant is safe for use on impression material?
iodophors or sodium hypochlorite
| - dosent cause any distortion
76
4 most common final impression materials?
- Poly siloxane
- polysuflide
- polyether
- silicone
77
What is ideal water temperature to use when mixing alginate
20-21 degrees C (68-70 degrees F)
78
What happens when you use warmer or cooler water to mix alginate
cooler water lengthens setting and working time
| warm water shortens setting and working time
79
2 types of primary matrix systems?
T-Band
| Spot welded band
80
Matrix systems?
Toffelmire retainer (posterior)
Sectional matrix band (kidney bean + tension ring)
Celluloid/Mylar strip (anterior)
Automatrix (coil and wrench)
81
What were toffelmire retainers originally designed for
class II amalgam restorations
82
What is the proper placement of a toffelmire + matrix band
diagonal slot + smaller band circumference toward the gingiva
- Directed toward screw Q1 + Q3
- Directed toward the T Q2 + Q4
83
how many mm below the gingiva should the matrix band sit
1.5 mm
84
using a ball burnisher the matrix band is contoured, what is placed following that?
a wedge is placed to create the space for a new contact to be constructed with material
85
why is the wedge always removed after the band?
to prevent fracture of the new contact during removal of the band, reenforces the material
86
who benefits most from sealant placement
Children in high caries risk age group (6-15) benefit the most but anyone can receive a sealant if the have deep pits and fissures
87
Sealant procedure steps?
- isolate, clean with non fluoridated pumic
- Etch, rinse > dry
- Apply material mesial to distal / remove bubbles and cure
- Check retention, floss, check bite
88
What is the common reason for sealant failure
saliva or moisture contamination once surface is etched
89
oral irrigation - reduces bacteria levels in interproximal and subgingival areas. Who benefits most from using?
ortho patients, gingivitis, implants, diabetes
| - often used by those who can't or don't want to floss
90
when are sutures removed?
5-7 days after placement
91
Suture removal producer steps?
- swab with antiseptic
- grasp suture with cotton pliers, cut under the knot using scissors
- grasp knot and gently tug toward suture site to remove
* always count # removed in comparison to chart #
92
Plain catgut, Chromic catgut, Vicryl, Monocryl are all ___ suture materials
absorbable
93
Silk, nylon, polyester are all types of ____ sutures
non absorbable
94
Name 4 common suture placement patterns
interrupted
continuous uninterrupted
mattress (horizontal or vertical)
Continuous box
95
A patient is getting a filling done, the dentist requests you place the dam. Upon intra oral exam you see the tooth to be clamped and adjacent teeth have heavy plaque build up, what do you do?
Polish the teeth with a extra fine abrasive to remove the plaque, rinse and dry the area. Then place the dental dam
96
Why would you polish areas with plaque prior to placing a dental dam?
to avoid pushing bacteria subgingivally when the clamp is placed. Could cause an infection or irritation
97
what would be a contraindication of dental dam placement
herpes, cracks/blisters in lip corners, claustrophobia, respiratory issues, latex allergy
98
Once placed, where does the jaws of a clamp sit?
below the height of contour, at or below the Cementoenamel junction
99
what is a prophy jet?
it is an air polishing unit that used water/air/sodium bicarbonate ti remove plaque/debris and stains on teeth
can be used in place of traditional handpiece polishing
100
why is it so important to obtain and update medical history of patients
many things in a medical history can contraindicate aspects of treatment, by having all the info present the team is able to modify treatment to ensure safety. As well it gives background
101
the trigeminal nerve (5th cranial nerve) is the main supply to the oral cavity, how many branches are there?
2 main (maxillary and mandibular)
- 5 sub branches of maxillary
- 6 sub branches of mandibular
102
what are the nerves in the maxillary branch
- Nasopalatine & greater palatine
| - ASA, MSA, PSA
103
What nerves come from the mandibular branch
- Buccal, Lingual, Inferior Alveolar (mental, incisive, mylohyoid)
104
the nasopalatine nerve is reached through the incisive foramen behind 1.1 - 2.1, what does it effect?
the hard palate and 3-3 anterior teeth
105
the Greater palatine nerve supplies the soft palate, where is the injection point?
lingual of 6/7's
106
all the nerves in the mandibular branch can be reached through different points in the retromolar pad except 2, which two are a different location?
the mental nerve (through mental foramen 4-5) and incisive nerve
107
vitamins do not produce energy, but they are __
necessary for energy to be released from foods
108
Vitamins B1, B2, B12 are all for energy release, what would deficiency cause
anemia
109
a vitamin D deficiency would cause
rickets in children and calcium loss in adults
110
what is vitamin A helpful in forming
mucous membranes and teeth
111
Which vitamin deficiency causes swollen or bleeding gums
vitamin C
112
Vitamin K is responsible for blood clotting, what happens when deficient?
bleeding disorders, clotting disorders
113
topical anesthetic is used for what?
to provide temporary numbing when injecting LA, reduce gag reflex during impressions etc
114
what is the active ingredient in topical
benzocaine of lidocaine
115
Waste amalgam is store in what type of container?
air tight, dry, labelled container
116
Why are vital signs taken? and what are the categories
to establish the patients normal for monitoring
| - Blood pressure, pulse, temperature, respiration
117
what are the sounds produced during BP readings called?
kortokoff sounds
- systolic : pressure exerted by muscle to pump blood
- diastolic : Heart muscle at rest
118
average BP of an adult?
less than 120 over less than 80
119
which artery is used for a blood pressure reading
the racial artery, located on inner side of elbow (antecubital area)
120
average pulse of a healthy adult
60-100 BPM
121
Pulse can be taken on the radial, brachial or carotid artery, which is most common?
radial
122
when taking a pulse which finger do you not use
your thumb, it radiates your own heartbeat and can cause discrepancies
123
what rate of respiration is average for adults
10-20 breaths per minute
124
36.4-37.0 degrees C is a average ___
temperature (forehead reading)
125
Type I dental cements are formulated as luting agents (adhesive) for use on
crowns, bridges, brackets - Can be permanent or temporary. Still a luting agent the strength just differs
126
Anything indirectly made is attached to tooth surface using what kind of cement
type I luting agents
127
Type II dental cements are used as ___
restorative materials (IRM, Sealant)
128
Type III dental cements are ___ and are placed within the prep
liners and bases
129
which dental cement is very versatile and comes with a fluoride realease
glass ionomers
130
glass ionomer type Iv is used for ___
sealants (flowable)
131
GI type V is for cementation of
ortho bands
132
ZOE contains eugenol, what does that provide to the tooth
sedative soothing effect for irritation
133
ZOE type I is used for
cementation of provisional coverage (temp bond)
134
ZOE type III IRM is used as a ___ and for ___
thermal base and for temporary restorations
135
Polycarboxylate is used as a
permanent cement and non irritating base
136
which dental cement is the most irritating and exhibits an exothermic reaction when mixed
zinc phosphate
137
when mixing zinc phosphate, would you mix it on a paper pad?
no, its mixed on a cool glass slab (68F) to help dissipate the heat
138
Zinc phosphate can be used as a
permanent cement and insulating base
139
when are treatment plans created and why?
they're created following initial examination, patient is presented multiple options for the treatment and fees are discussed prior to any treatment being completed
140
what does it mean to be the beneficiary of dental insurance
the person who benefits from it, policy holder
141
what are the three types of benefits plans
- traditional benefits (fee for service) AKA indemnity plans
- managed care dental plans (low cost for everyone-limited)
- Government plans(public health - limited)
142
What is a co-payment in relation to insurance
when the plan requires beneficiary to pay a fixed dollar amount at time of service
143
the subscriber of a benefit plan is the one who __
carries the plan
144
what is coordination of benefits
two plans paying, primary one covers majority and the secondary covers the remainder
145
which permanent tooth erupts first in a deciduous dentition?
the maxillary and mandibular central incisors (6-7 years)
146
which permanent teeth erupt last in a deciduous dentition? what do they get replaced with
All primary second molars (age 10-12) replaced by second premolars
147
Name all the tooth surfaces
mesial, distal, buccal, facial, lingual, occlusal, incisal
148
how would you correct a charting error?
with a single line through the mistake, and initial and date to recognize
149
Blacks classification : Class I
pits and fissures of molars/premolars/lingual anteriors
150
Blacks classification : Class II
occlusal/proximal surfaces of molars and premolars
151
Blacks Classification : Class III
proximal of anteriors, not including incisal
152
Blacks Classification : Class IV
proximal and incisal edge of anteriors
153
Blacks Classification : Class V
cervical third of any tooth
154
Blacks Classification : Class VI
incisal edge or cusp tips
155
Which salivary gland produces the most saliva (65%)
the submandibular gland / Wharton's duct
156
The largest salivary gland is the _
parotid gland, located near the ear
157
Which duct attaches to the parotid salivary gland
the stensons duct
158
the sublingual gland is the ____ and attaches to the bartholins duct
the smallest (10%), located under the tongue
159
where is the submandibular gland located and where does it drain to
located along the jaw line, drains to either side of the tongue tie
160
when using the HVE what is the ideal positioning for moisture control
placed with the bevel parallel to the tooth, slightly distal and at or slightly above occlusal surface
Quad 1 + 4, anteriors = lingual
Quad 2 + 3 = Buccal
161
Nitrous oxide (N20) is administered how?
beginning with 100% O2, slowly titrating N2O till result achieved, then reversing when needed with 100% O2 for 3-5 mins
162
What is a scavenger system
reduces the amount of N2O that is released into the air
163
how will a patient feel when on N2O?
light tingling sensation, general numbness and lightheaded
164
who would nitrous oxide be contraindicated for
pregnant women, nasal obstructions, respiratory issues,
165
what are the 4 components of composite resin?
Organic resin matrix, filler, coupling agent, pigment
166
inorganic fillers in composite are what kind of materials?
quartz, glass, silica - Particle size dictates refinement of material
167
a composite hybrid is ideal because ___
it combines the particle size ideal for strength with the one that has ideal surface texture. Creating a smooth strong material
168
what is a coupling agent in composite for
to chemically bind fillers with the resin matrix
169
if composite is a darker color would it effect the curing time?
it would take longer to cure
170
What types of material is used to pour study models/casts
dental stone
plaster
die stone
high strength stone > all gypsum material
171
water to powder ratio for plaster?
100g powder to 45-50 mL water
172
water to powder ratio for stone?
100g powder to 28-30 mL water
173
what happens when improper ratios are mixed for gypsum material
durability of product goes down. Produces a weaker version
174
what are common medical emergencies seen in the dental office?
```
Syncope(fainting)
postural hypotension (sudden change in position)
Angina
Seizures
Asthma attack
hyperventilation
```
175
How would you treat an angina attack?
typically lasts 3-8 mins (severe chest pain), can administer nitroglycerin in tablet, spray or patch form
176
how is hyperventilation treated?
by calming the patient, breathing with them, instruct to breate into cupped hands to return carbon dioxide
177
type 1 diabetes is someone who is
insulin dependant
178
type 2 diabetes is someone who
isn't insulin dependant, manages diet
179
What is hypoglycaemia and how is it treated
it is a decrease in glucose levels, administer glucose to regulate levels
180
Hyperglycemia is an over abundance of glucose in the blood, how would you treat this
administer pt insulin
181
on a radiograph, a radiolucent structure appears as?
a darker area, this is because the beams pass through easier
182
on a radiograph how would a radiopaque structure appear?
as a white light area, beams are reflected back off the structure
183
what are some radiopaque structures
enamel, restorative material, appliances, bone, metal
184
what are a few radiolucent structures
foramens, pulp canals, tissues, cavities, sinuses
185
sterilization procedure order
transport, preclean, package, sterilize, storage, delivery, quality
186
what 3 things are used to 'preclean' instruments?
- holding solutions (enzymatic solution, detergent) *only prevents hardening of debris (no dinsinfection)
- Ultrasonic cleaning (removes debris- docent disinfect)
- Automated washers (disinfects due to high heat)
187
What is the most common form of sterilization today?
use of a steam under pressure sterilization (autoclave)
| - uses high pressure steam at high heat to kill all forms of life
188
what is the common temp for an autoclave
270F for 30 mins
189
Chemical vapour steam sterilization isn't favourable because it uses ___
formaldehyde, acetone, ketone, alcohol. Needs a lot of ventilation to prevent harmful inhalation
190
Whats the difference between forced and static air dry heat sterilization?
forced air acts in a similar way to a convection over - circulates the air around the chamber
Static air is the rising of hot air with no circulation
191
what temp does dry heat sterilization occur? (higher)
320F - 375F
192
What is a process indicator used for?
process indicators are used to measure single parameters(temp) of a sterilization cycle being reached -
193
Where would a process indicator be placed?
placed on the outside of a package like cassette tape (or already on the bag)
194
Process integrators are placed inside a package or cassette and measure what?
indicate when multiple parameters have been met during a sterilization cycle. ex) time, temp, pressure
195
do process indicators/integrators indicate sterility of an item?
no, just that parameters have been met
196
What would a cross check be considered?
a process integrator
197
What is biological monitoring used for
to determine sterilization has occurred and the integrity of the machine
198
what is inside of a BI
endospores , typically tuberculocidal spores because if it can kill those (very heat resistant) it will kill everything else
199
what is antiseptic applied to
living tissue
200
when cleaning a surface, why do we wipe twice?
once to remove bioburden (blood and saliva), second to disinfect the surface
201
High level disinfectants are designed to kill ___
all microorganisms but not spores
202
Intermediate level disinfectants destroy __ and inactive spores
bacteria
203
What are the characteristics of an ideal surface disinfectant
- kills broad range of bacteria
- residual activity
- minimally toxic
- dosent damage surface
204
Gluteraldehyde and chloride dioxide are
high level disinfectant
205
What are 3 types of intermediate level disinfectants
iodophors (stain red)
synthetic phenols
Sodium hypochlorite (bleach)
alcohol (evaporates)
206
Universal precautions states that ...
we should treat all bodily fluids (blood, saliva) as if they're potentially infectious
207
water borne bacteria levels must be kept below ___ to be used in dental water lines
500 CFU (colony forming units)
208
what are the two types of bacteria present in waterlines
Planktonic microbes = free floating bacteria
| Biofilm = Attached to walls of hoses and unit
209
why do we flush the water lines before, after and between patients ?
to reduce bacterial colonization within the water supply
210
A way to reduce bacteria within the water lines is to have a ___ unit
self contained unit
211
what is a pathogen
bacteria that is capable of causing disease
212
3 components of a cell
cell membrane ; outer layer
cytoplasm ; fluid
nucleus ; genetic information (DNA and RNA)
213
OTC drugs are also referred to as
patent medicines - ex) Tylenol, Advil, ibuprofen
214
Prescription drugs are also known as
ethical drugs, controlled substances requiring administering by doctor
215
3 forms of a drug name
- generic : shorthand of chemical name
- chemical : named after chemical formula
- brand : commercially produced and trademarked
216
drugs are classified into schedules, as the number increases what decreases
the drugs risk for causing addiction and medical usefulness increases
217
what schedule of drug is most commonly used In dental?
schedule 3 - combination narcotics (Tylenol w/ codeine)
218
what is an analgesic
a pain medicine
- opioid : moderate to severe(codeine)
- non-opioid : mild to moderate (Tylenol)
219
What are antibiotics prescribed for
to eliminate or prevent infections
- bactericidal : kills microorganism directly
- bacteriostatic : inhibits production of microorganisms, allows body to eliminate
220
what is a retraction cord used for?
to mechanically displace gingival tissues to widen and deepen the sulcus
221
when is retraction cord placed?
after the prep, before final impression to obtain the margins of the prep
222
when would you use two cords? and do both need to be removed
for a already deep/wide sulcus. The second can be left in during the final impression
223
what is the procedure for placing and removing cord?
placed with a blunt instrument in a clockwise direction, removed with cotton pliers in counter clock wise direction
224
what kind of chemicals can impregnated retraction cords contain?
- epinepherine : shrinks tissues (vasoconstrictor)
- aluminum chloride : safe for use on cardiopatients
- hemostatic solution : to control bleeding
225
when would surgical retraction be used
for hypertrophied tissues, gingival hyperplasia
226
what is the difference between over bite and overjet?
overbite is increased vertical overlap of mandibular incisors
overjet is excessive protrusion of maxillary indoors
227
which cells form enamel
ameloblasts
228
odontoblasts are for forming
dentin
229
which cells form cementum
cementoblasts
230
fibroblasts develop
pulp tissue
231
which cells break down and deposit bone
osteoblasts deposit new bone
| osteoclasts break down bone
232
bud stage (initiation) is the __ stage of development
first
233
cap stage (proliferation) is the second stage and when the __
tooth cells grow and increase in number
234
bell stage is aka
morphodifferentiation and histodifferentiation
235
what is morphodifferentiation
the tooth cells develop shape and size, DEJ and CEJ form
236
what is hisodifferentiation
cells differentiate and specialize
237
what is coalesce
the fusion of cusps
238
what are the 4 types of pulp vitality testing?
- electronic pulp test
- percussion test
- palpation test
- thermal test
239
what is the goal of an electrical pulp test?
to determine if pulp is necrotic or not
240
percussion and palpation tests are used to determine if
periapical tissues are inflammed
241
heat thermal pulp tests are the least effective because they can indicate __
heat tests response can indicate both reversible and irreversible pulpits
242
thermal tests are to indicate if
reversible or irreversible pulpits
243
what is a control tooth?
used during pulp vitality testing. The same tooth as suspect just in opposing quad, used to establish a normal
244
what's the biggest difference from oral surgery vs a general dentist practice
OS requires a sterile field, sterile water, sterile gloves, surgical scrubs
245
why are there many different types of extraction forceps
to accommodate the crown size, location, root direction etc
246
universal extraction forceps are useable on __
the left and right of one arch
247
extraction, biopsy, sutures, gingivectomy, alveoplasty etc are all ___
oral surgery procedures
248
what does post op care in oral surgery focus on?
controlling bleeding, swelling and keeping the wound clean
249
what is alveolar osteitis?
dry socket
250
Occlusion is the
relationship between maxillary and mandible when in a fully closed position
251
What is centric occlusion
occurs when the jaw is fully closed and there is maximal contact between arches
252
function occlusion occurs during
chewing or biting motions
253
the abnormal or malpoitioned relationship of the maxilla and mandible is called
malocclusion
254
all the classes of occlusion are based on which tooth
the maxillary first molar MB cusp in relation to the mandibular first molar MB groove
255
Class I occlusion is Neutrocclusion meaning
the arch is occluding properly, anterior teeth may be malaligned
- MB cusp of max 1st molar occludes with MB groove of mand 1st molar
256
Class II = distocclusion meaning that the
MB cusp occludes mesially to the MB groove
257
Class II Div 1 is an overbite in which the anterior teeth ___
protrude
258
Class II Div 2 is an overbite with an anterior __
flare of the laterals
259
what is class III occlusion called
mesiocclusion - underbite
| - MB cusp occludes distal to the MB groove
260
the curve of spee is formed by
occlusion, seen from side profile
261
The curve of Wilson is formed when a line is drawn from
last molar quad 4 to last molar quad 3, seen from lingual view
262
A Childs actual age in years and months is referred to as their
chronologic age
263
what is a Childs mental age referring to
the Childs level of intellectual capacity
264
a Childs emotional maturity is referred to as their
emotional age
265
what is the Frankl scale designed for?
to measure a Childs behaviour during dental treatment
266
What are the major facial muscles
orbicularis oris
buccinator
mentalis
zygomatic major
267
temporalis, masseter, internal/external pterygoids are all the major muscles of ___
mastication, responsible for opening and closing the jaw
268
which muscles are in the floor of the mouth
geniohyoid
stylohyoid
mylohyoid
gastric
269
Which cranial nerve innervates the facial muscles
the seventh cranial nerve (facial)
270
Name the 3 muscles of the tongue
genioglossus
hyoglossus
styloglossus
271
FDI numbering system number the teeth in what way
2 digit system, first digit represents the quadrant / second digit represents the tooth
272
what is FDI primary system
same as permanent, quads are just #5-8 and teeth are #1-5
273
How does the universal system number teeth
1-32 beginning in upper right, ending lower right
274
how is the primary dentition numbered in universal
it is organized with letters A-T
275
Palmer notation uses the name tooth numbers as FDI, with the addition of what?
brackets indicating the quadrant
276
Primary dentition in palmer notation?
uses brackets and letters A-E
277
Are all anterior teeth succedaneous?
yes
278
What are some landmarks of anterior teeth
- cingulum : rpunded area on cervical lingual
- Marginal ridges : mesial/distal ridges around cingulum
- Fossa : depression on lingual surface
279
What are mamelons
ridges on the incsial surface of Newley erupted permanent teeth. Wear away over time
280
which posterior teeth are nonsuccedaneous
molars
281
how many cusps do each molar have
4 (MB, ML, DB, DL)
282
which tooth is the largest in the maxilla
the maxillary first molars
283
which premolar can have 3 cusps
the mandibular second premolar
| - known as tricanineate
