Pharmacology Chapters 30 + 37 Flashcards

1
Q

what is pharmacology

A

the science of research, development and manufacturing of drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Organic drugs are

A

derived from living tissues, plants/animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

marijuana is a ____ drug

A

organic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Inorganic drugs are

A

drugs synthesized in a lab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

drugs found in pharmacy are an example of

A

inorganic drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are the 3 names that identify drugs

A

chemical, brand, generic names

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Chemical names of drugs are the

A

chemical formula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

brand names of drugs are

A

the same chemical make up of generic drugs but they’re controlled by businesses with registered trade marks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

generic names are

A

shorthand version of the chemical name, less expensive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

OTC drugs are AKA

A

patent medicine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

prescription drugs are aka

A

ethical drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

when a drug is applied directly to the site its considered a

A

local action drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

when taken internally its considered a

A

systemic action drug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the 3 routes of drug administration

A

oral, topical, and transdermal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

transdermal administration of a drug consists of a

A

patch releasing a controlled quantity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

breathing in a gaseous form of a drug is considered the

A

inhalation route

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

when placing a drug under the tongue its considered a

A

sublingual route of administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Subcutaneous injections enter

A

under the skin surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

intramuscular injections enter

A

directly into muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

intradermal injections are placed

A

into the skin (between layers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

intravenous injections go

A

into a vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

q.d means

A

once a day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

q is

A

every/per

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

b.i.d, t.i.d, q.i.d means to take a prescription __

A

twice a day, 3x a day, 4x a day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

p.o

A

by mouth orally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

get.

A

drops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

p.r.n

A

as needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

a.c

A

before meals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

p.c

A

after meals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

da or daw on a prescription means

A

dispense as written

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

q.h is to take every x hours, what would q.2h mean

A

take every 2 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

ut dict is to

A

take as directed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

when storing drugs you must be aware of

A

exposure to air, moisture, light, temperatures, and shelf life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

can an RDA phone in a prescription

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

a patient with history of drug abuse would show what symptoms

A

poor hygiene, bad diet, higher chance of periods infections, dry mouth, grinding, high amount or risk of caries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

schedule 1 drugs are known as

A

illicit drugs, no medical usefulness & high potential for abuse (can’t be prescribed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

schedule 2 drugs are

A

high risk for abuse, limited usefulness, need a prescription - narcotics/opioids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

schedule 3 drugs are

A

moderate analgesics, less risk for abuse. Renewable prescription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Schedule 4 drugs have a low abuse potential and

A

have medical usefulness, prescription can be renewed 5x/6months. (Ativan, Valium, Xanax)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

schedule 5 drugs are the lowest abuse potential and

A

renewable prescription (mediated cough syrup, preparations for diarrhea)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

which drug schedule is the most high risk

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what are the 4 stages of drug action In the body

A

absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

metabolizing a drug refers to

A

how fast the body processes and eliminates it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

enteral drug route is classified as drugs entering ___

A

directly into the GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

parenteral drug route is when drugs enter __

A

anywhere but the GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what are antibiotics used for

A

infection control, elimination of bacteria infections using penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

bactericidal antibiotics are to

A

kill all microorganisms and bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

bacteriostatic antibiotics are to

A

inhibit the growth of microorganisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

tetracycline is a example of __ antibiotics

A

bacteriostatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

when would you use a antibiotic prophylaxis

A

for high risk patients (heart conditions, artificial joints)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

why are antibiotic prophylaxis treatments used

A

to prevent bacterial infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what are common premedications given to patients

A

anti-anxiety, sedatives, antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is a suprainfection

A

secondary infection caused by opportunistic pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

supra infections can be caused by what two things

A

prolonged use of antibiotics, or stopping antibiotics before the prescription is finished

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

penicillin, cephalosporins, erythromycin, tetracycline, bacitracin, cholrhexidine are all examples of

A

antibiotics

56
Q

penicillin is a generic name for

A

a group of antibiotics

57
Q

cephalosporins are

A

broad spectrum, active against gram - and gram +

58
Q

the alternative typically prescribed for penicillin is

A

erythromycin

59
Q

which antibiotic caused permanent staining of teeth if taken in the second trimester

A

tetracycline

60
Q

tetracycline is used as a broad spectrum antibiotic to

A

eliminate periodontal disease bacteria

61
Q

mild staining from tetracycline appears as

A

light yellow-brown stains

62
Q

the antibiotic limited to topical application is called

A

bacitracin

63
Q

the antibiotic that controls plaque bacteria, gingivitis, and periodontal pockets is

A

chorhexadine. comes in mouthwash of chip inserted in pocket

64
Q

antibiotic resistance can occur when

A

you don’t finish out a prescription

65
Q

nystatin is an anti fungal agent and is used to treat

A

Candida albicans or thrush

66
Q

antiviral agents are used to reduce viral infection symptoms of

A

herpes, HIV, hepatitis

67
Q

an analgesic is a

A

painkiller to ease pain without losing consciousness

68
Q

two sub categories of analgesics

A

opioid and non-opioid

69
Q

analgesics are also divided by strength in 3 groups

A

mild, moderate, strong

70
Q

mild analgesics are bought ____ and __ is a brand name example

A

over the counter, Tylenol

71
Q

Aspirin is a mild analgesic and a ____ meaning it reduces fevers

A

antipyretic

72
Q

codeine is mixed with mild analgesics in order to

A

increase the effects of the codeine

73
Q

are mild analgesics opioids or nonopioids

A

nonopioids

74
Q

risks of aspirin

A

blood thinning, stomach irritation, allergy, curing of oral mucosa

75
Q

Moderate analgesics are to control moderate pain, they’re mixed with a __ to increase effects

A

mild analgesic

76
Q

Strong analgesics are opioids with a high risk of

A

physical and psychological dependance

77
Q

Vasoconstrictors are used to

A

constrict blood vessels and decrease blood flow. They are added to anesthetics to slow down absorption time

78
Q

epinephrine is considered a

A

vasoconstrictor

79
Q

vasoconstrictors cannot be used if the patient has any type of ___

A

heart conditions

80
Q

Vasodialators are used to widen blood vessels to

A

ease workload of the heart for patients with chest pain like angina

81
Q

Anticoagulants are used in patients with heart conditions/risk of stoke in order to

A

prevent blood clots

82
Q

heparin, warfarin are examples of

A

anticoagulants

83
Q

what can anticoagulants not be combined with

A

blood thinners

84
Q

antipyretic agents are used to

A

reduce fevers

85
Q

what reduces inflammation and surpasses immune systems

A

corticosteroids

86
Q

Hemostatic agents are used to

A

control bleeding in a targeted area (dressings like gel foam)

87
Q

hemostatic agents can be used on ___ wounds

A

dry socket

88
Q

what are the 2 types of sedation in dentistry

A

conscious sedation and unconscious sedation

89
Q

general anaesthesia is __ sedation

A

unconscious

90
Q

local anesthesia is __ sedation

A

conscious (freezing)

91
Q

intravenous sedation provides minimal level of consciousness but enough to maintain a

A

airway

92
Q

Nitrous oxide is a

A

inhalation conscious sedation

93
Q

what color cylinder does nitrous come in

A

blue cylinder

94
Q

what is the scavenger system

A

prevents gas escaping into atmosphere

95
Q

nitrous oxide effects are reversible with the administration of

A

oxygen

96
Q

nasal obstruction is a contraindication of

A

inhalation sedation

97
Q

4 stages of general anesthesia

A

analgesia, excitement, general anesthesia and respiratory failure

98
Q

stage 2 and 4 of general anesthesia are

A

Undesirable

99
Q

Topical anesthesia needs ___ minutes to reach full effectiveness

A

1-2 minutes

100
Q

what has greater concentration topical or local

A

topical

101
Q

local anesthetic is a

A

injection the temporarily numbs a specific area

102
Q

how is local anesthetic reversed

A

by metabolizing

103
Q

vasoconstrictors in anesthetics come in a ratio, the smaller the ratio the ___ the concentration of vasoconstrictor

A

higher

104
Q

injections for anesthetic are based on location and ____ of the nerves

A

innervation

105
Q

Block injections are used on the mandible to

A

freeze the entire branch of nerve (whole arch)

106
Q

infiltration injections are used on the ___ and only effect ___

A

maxilla, a small portion of the arch/quadrant

107
Q

freezing of one tooth is called

A

local infiltration

108
Q

freezing of 2-3 teeth is called

A

field block injection

109
Q

Long needles are used for block injections on mandible and are ___ in length

A

1 5/8ths inch

110
Q

short needles are for infiltration of maxilla and are ___ in length

A

1 inch

111
Q

the cap of needles is called a

A

needle guard

112
Q

gauge of a needle refers to the

A

thickness

113
Q

the larger the gauge number the

A

thinner the needle

114
Q

lumen is the

A

hollow centre of needle

115
Q

should you use a anesthetic cartridge if its been frozen

A

no

116
Q

the rubber diaphragm is inserted into the syringe towards the

A

needle head

117
Q

induction means

A

the length of time from injection to start of effects

118
Q

duration is

A

length of time from induction to reversal complete

119
Q

short acting local anesthetic is ___ minutes of freezig

A

30

120
Q

long acting local is ___ mins of freezing

A

90

121
Q

intermediate acting local is ___ mins of freezing

A

60

122
Q

aspiration is the

A

pulling back of needle

123
Q

why do you aspirate a needle prior to pushing it

A

the check you’re not in a blood vessel

124
Q

the piston of a needle syringe has what on the end of it

A

a harpoon for aspirating

125
Q

nasopalatine nerve block innervates which teeth through the incisive foramen

A

the front 6, anteriors

126
Q

the greater palatine block nerve innervates the

A

posterior maxillary teeth

127
Q

ASA innervates the

A

1, 2, 3 of quads 1 and 2

128
Q

MSA innervates the

A

4,5,6 of quads 1 and 2

129
Q

PSA innervates the

A

6, 7, 8 of quads 1 and 2

130
Q

indications is the

A

anesthesia of one or two maxillary teeth and tissue

131
Q

inferior alveolar neve and lingual nerve block is injected at the

A

depression distal to retromolar pad

132
Q

buccal nerve block is injected at the

A

distal buccal of last molar

133
Q

mental and incisive nerve block is injected between

A

4 and 5 in mental foramen on buccal side

134
Q

what is parasthesia

A

persistent anesthesia, numbness lasts past when it should

135
Q

the end of the needle is called the

A

bevel