Pharmacology Chapters 30 + 37 Flashcards
1
Q
what is pharmacology
A
the science of research, development and manufacturing of drugs
2
Q
Organic drugs are
A
derived from living tissues, plants/animals
3
Q
marijuana is a ____ drug
A
organic
4
Q
Inorganic drugs are
A
drugs synthesized in a lab
5
Q
drugs found in pharmacy are an example of
A
inorganic drugs
6
Q
what are the 3 names that identify drugs
A
chemical, brand, generic names
7
Q
Chemical names of drugs are the
A
chemical formula
8
Q
brand names of drugs are
A
the same chemical make up of generic drugs but they’re controlled by businesses with registered trade marks
9
Q
generic names are
A
shorthand version of the chemical name, less expensive
10
Q
OTC drugs are AKA
A
patent medicine
11
Q
prescription drugs are aka
A
ethical drugs
12
Q
when a drug is applied directly to the site its considered a
A
local action drug
13
Q
when taken internally its considered a
A
systemic action drug
14
Q
what are the 3 routes of drug administration
A
oral, topical, and transdermal
15
Q
transdermal administration of a drug consists of a
A
patch releasing a controlled quantity
16
Q
breathing in a gaseous form of a drug is considered the
A
inhalation route
17
Q
when placing a drug under the tongue its considered a
A
sublingual route of administration
18
Q
Subcutaneous injections enter
A
under the skin surface
19
Q
intramuscular injections enter
A
directly into muscle
20
Q
intradermal injections are placed
A
into the skin (between layers)
21
Q
intravenous injections go
A
into a vein
22
Q
q.d means
A
once a day
23
Q
q is
A
every/per
24
Q
b.i.d, t.i.d, q.i.d means to take a prescription __
A
twice a day, 3x a day, 4x a day
25
p.o
by mouth orally
26
get.
drops
27
p.r.n
as needed
28
a.c
before meals
29
p.c
after meals
30
da or daw on a prescription means
dispense as written
31
q.h is to take every x hours, what would q.2h mean
take every 2 hours
32
ut dict is to
take as directed
33
when storing drugs you must be aware of
exposure to air, moisture, light, temperatures, and shelf life
34
can an RDA phone in a prescription
no
35
a patient with history of drug abuse would show what symptoms
poor hygiene, bad diet, higher chance of periods infections, dry mouth, grinding, high amount or risk of caries
36
schedule 1 drugs are known as
illicit drugs, no medical usefulness & high potential for abuse (can't be prescribed)
37
schedule 2 drugs are
high risk for abuse, limited usefulness, need a prescription - narcotics/opioids
38
schedule 3 drugs are
moderate analgesics, less risk for abuse. Renewable prescription
39
Schedule 4 drugs have a low abuse potential and
have medical usefulness, prescription can be renewed 5x/6months. (Ativan, Valium, Xanax)
40
schedule 5 drugs are the lowest abuse potential and
renewable prescription (mediated cough syrup, preparations for diarrhea)
41
which drug schedule is the most high risk
2
42
what are the 4 stages of drug action In the body
absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion
43
metabolizing a drug refers to
how fast the body processes and eliminates it
44
enteral drug route is classified as drugs entering ___
directly into the GI tract
45
parenteral drug route is when drugs enter __
anywhere but the GI tract
46
what are antibiotics used for
infection control, elimination of bacteria infections using penicillin
47
bactericidal antibiotics are to
kill all microorganisms and bacteria
48
bacteriostatic antibiotics are to
inhibit the growth of microorganisms
49
tetracycline is a example of __ antibiotics
bacteriostatic
50
when would you use a antibiotic prophylaxis
for high risk patients (heart conditions, artificial joints)
51
why are antibiotic prophylaxis treatments used
to prevent bacterial infections
52
what are common premedications given to patients
anti-anxiety, sedatives, antibiotics
53
What is a suprainfection
secondary infection caused by opportunistic pathogens
54
supra infections can be caused by what two things
prolonged use of antibiotics, or stopping antibiotics before the prescription is finished
55
penicillin, cephalosporins, erythromycin, tetracycline, bacitracin, cholrhexidine are all examples of
antibiotics
56
penicillin is a generic name for
a group of antibiotics
57
cephalosporins are
broad spectrum, active against gram - and gram +
58
the alternative typically prescribed for penicillin is
erythromycin
59
which antibiotic caused permanent staining of teeth if taken in the second trimester
tetracycline
60
tetracycline is used as a broad spectrum antibiotic to
eliminate periodontal disease bacteria
61
mild staining from tetracycline appears as
light yellow-brown stains
62
the antibiotic limited to topical application is called
bacitracin
63
the antibiotic that controls plaque bacteria, gingivitis, and periodontal pockets is
chorhexadine. comes in mouthwash of chip inserted in pocket
64
antibiotic resistance can occur when
you don't finish out a prescription
65
nystatin is an anti fungal agent and is used to treat
Candida albicans or thrush
66
antiviral agents are used to reduce viral infection symptoms of
herpes, HIV, hepatitis
67
an analgesic is a
painkiller to ease pain without losing consciousness
68
two sub categories of analgesics
opioid and non-opioid
69
analgesics are also divided by strength in 3 groups
mild, moderate, strong
70
mild analgesics are bought ____ and __ is a brand name example
over the counter, Tylenol
71
Aspirin is a mild analgesic and a ____ meaning it reduces fevers
antipyretic
72
codeine is mixed with mild analgesics in order to
increase the effects of the codeine
73
are mild analgesics opioids or nonopioids
nonopioids
74
risks of aspirin
blood thinning, stomach irritation, allergy, curing of oral mucosa
75
Moderate analgesics are to control moderate pain, they're mixed with a __ to increase effects
mild analgesic
76
Strong analgesics are opioids with a high risk of
physical and psychological dependance
77
Vasoconstrictors are used to
constrict blood vessels and decrease blood flow. They are added to anesthetics to slow down absorption time
78
epinephrine is considered a
vasoconstrictor
79
vasoconstrictors cannot be used if the patient has any type of ___
heart conditions
80
Vasodialators are used to widen blood vessels to
ease workload of the heart for patients with chest pain like angina
81
Anticoagulants are used in patients with heart conditions/risk of stoke in order to
prevent blood clots
82
heparin, warfarin are examples of
anticoagulants
83
what can anticoagulants not be combined with
blood thinners
84
antipyretic agents are used to
reduce fevers
85
what reduces inflammation and surpasses immune systems
corticosteroids
86
Hemostatic agents are used to
control bleeding in a targeted area (dressings like gel foam)
87
hemostatic agents can be used on ___ wounds
dry socket
88
what are the 2 types of sedation in dentistry
conscious sedation and unconscious sedation
89
general anaesthesia is __ sedation
unconscious
90
local anesthesia is __ sedation
conscious (freezing)
91
intravenous sedation provides minimal level of consciousness but enough to maintain a
airway
92
Nitrous oxide is a
inhalation conscious sedation
93
what color cylinder does nitrous come in
blue cylinder
94
what is the scavenger system
prevents gas escaping into atmosphere
95
nitrous oxide effects are reversible with the administration of
oxygen
96
nasal obstruction is a contraindication of
inhalation sedation
97
4 stages of general anesthesia
analgesia, excitement, general anesthesia and respiratory failure
98
stage 2 and 4 of general anesthesia are
Undesirable
99
Topical anesthesia needs ___ minutes to reach full effectiveness
1-2 minutes
100
what has greater concentration topical or local
topical
101
local anesthetic is a
injection the temporarily numbs a specific area
102
how is local anesthetic reversed
by metabolizing
103
vasoconstrictors in anesthetics come in a ratio, the smaller the ratio the ___ the concentration of vasoconstrictor
higher
104
injections for anesthetic are based on location and ____ of the nerves
innervation
105
Block injections are used on the mandible to
freeze the entire branch of nerve (whole arch)
106
infiltration injections are used on the ___ and only effect ___
maxilla, a small portion of the arch/quadrant
107
freezing of one tooth is called
local infiltration
108
freezing of 2-3 teeth is called
field block injection
109
Long needles are used for block injections on mandible and are ___ in length
1 5/8ths inch
110
short needles are for infiltration of maxilla and are ___ in length
1 inch
111
the cap of needles is called a
needle guard
112
gauge of a needle refers to the
thickness
113
the larger the gauge number the
thinner the needle
114
lumen is the
hollow centre of needle
115
should you use a anesthetic cartridge if its been frozen
no
116
the rubber diaphragm is inserted into the syringe towards the
needle head
117
induction means
the length of time from injection to start of effects
118
duration is
length of time from induction to reversal complete
119
short acting local anesthetic is ___ minutes of freezig
30
120
long acting local is ___ mins of freezing
90
121
intermediate acting local is ___ mins of freezing
60
122
aspiration is the
pulling back of needle
123
why do you aspirate a needle prior to pushing it
the check you're not in a blood vessel
124
the piston of a needle syringe has what on the end of it
a harpoon for aspirating
125
nasopalatine nerve block innervates which teeth through the incisive foramen
the front 6, anteriors
126
the greater palatine block nerve innervates the
posterior maxillary teeth
127
ASA innervates the
1, 2, 3 of quads 1 and 2
128
MSA innervates the
4,5,6 of quads 1 and 2
129
PSA innervates the
6, 7, 8 of quads 1 and 2
130
indications is the
anesthesia of one or two maxillary teeth and tissue
131
inferior alveolar neve and lingual nerve block is injected at the
depression distal to retromolar pad
132
buccal nerve block is injected at the
distal buccal of last molar
133
mental and incisive nerve block is injected between
4 and 5 in mental foramen on buccal side
134
what is parasthesia
persistent anesthesia, numbness lasts past when it should
135
the end of the needle is called the
bevel
