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Fall 2024 > Pharm Test 3 > Flashcards

Pharm Test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

in general, diuretics decrease bp by

A

decreasing blood volume by increasing urinary volume

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2
Q

why is carbonic anhydrase not recommended as a front line diuretic?

A

because of it’s toxicity: decreases K+ and lowering the body pH by wasting HCO3

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3
Q

where does mannitol work?

A

throughout the entire nephron but primarily in the proximal convoluted tubule

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4
Q

mannitol contributes to the _______ of the urine

A

osmolality

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5
Q

what kind of diuretic is mannitol?

A

osmotic

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6
Q

what is an osmotic diuretic?

A

A drug that is going to affect the osmolality of the fluid that’s in the nephron.

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7
Q

what is osmolality?

A

the number of dissolved particles that are in a solution.

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8
Q

what is a normal body osmolality?

A

300mOsm/kg

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9
Q

what is the osmolality of the renal cortex?

A

300 mOsm/kg

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10
Q

what is the osmolality of the kidney as we descend into the renal medulla?

A

It increases as high as 1200mOsm/kg

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11
Q

why is the osmolality so high in the renal medulla?

A

as we’re reabsorbing the sodium, before it gets into the blood stream, it goes into the medulla first.

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12
Q

what is an impermeable solute?

A

a solute that cannot be reabsorbed from the nephron back into the blood.

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13
Q

how does mannitol work?

A

It is a sugar alcohol that increases the osmolality of the inside of the nephron. Since it’s more concentrated in the nephron water stays in the nephron and goes into the medulla to be excreted.

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14
Q

what is the s2 segment of the nephron?

A

The fairly straight portion of the proximal tubule before it reaches the loop of Henle. It has special transporters that can transport much larger substances into the urine.

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15
Q

why don’t we have water leaving in the ascending portion of the loop of Henle? what kind of transport do we have instead?

A

because this section is water impermeable

Na+ leaving via the NKCC2 pump in order to balance the osmolality in the nephron.

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16
Q

what kind of ion movement happens in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle?

A

NKCC2 pumps Na+, K+ and 2 Cl- INTO the Thick Ascending Limb
K+ leak channels leak K+ OUT of the thick ascending limb into urine
this positive efflux pushes
Ca++ and Mg++ INTO the Thick ascending limb

Na+/K+ ATPase pumping Na+ OUT of the Thick ascending limb

K+Cl- cotransports both OUT of the Thick ascending limb into the interstitium.

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17
Q

which part of the loop of Henle is permeable to water? Which direction does water go?

A

the descending portion

water leaves the nephron to try and balance out the really high osmolality in the renal medulla

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18
Q

what is moving in/out of the collecting tubule?

A

water leaves

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19
Q

where do loop diuretics work? How?

A

the thick ascending limb. It blocks the NKCC2 pump so more sodium stays in the urine. water follows.

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20
Q

which electrolytes get depleted or less absorbed when using loop diuretics?

A

Na+
K+
Cl-
Mg++
Ca++

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21
Q

what is the difference between loop diuretics and carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?

A

Loop diuretics don’t effect bicarb

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22
Q

what is toxicity of loop diuretics?

A

allergic reactions. Loop diuretics are Sulfonamides.

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23
Q

what is the only loop diuretic that is not a sulfonamide?

A

Ethacrynic Acid

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24
Q

why is there less water movement in the distal convoluted tubule?

A

because the osmolality in the renal cortex is closer to 300mOsm/kg which is balanced

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25
Q

What kind of electrolyte movement can we expect in the distal convoluted tubule?

A

Na+ and Cl- going INTO the Distal Convoluted Tubule

Ca++ leak channels INTO the DCT thanks to parathyroid hormone

Na+/K+ ATPase pumping sodium OUT of the DCT

NCX pumping Na+ IN and Ca++ OUT of the DCT

Ca+/H ATPase pumping Ca++ OUT and H+ INTO the DCT

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26
Q

what do thiazide diuretics target?

A

the NCC
Na+ and Cl- co transport into the DCT
it also gets rid of a little bit of bicarb

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27
Q

what is the prototype thiazide drug?

A

hydrochlorothiazide

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28
Q

which diuretics are sulfonamides?

A

loop and thiazides

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29
Q

thiazides don’t work as well as _____

A

loop diuretics

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30
Q

When combining diuretics, you want to combine what types?

A

drugs that work on different parts of the nephron.

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31
Q

where is the final site in the kidney that sodium can be reabsorbed?

A

the collecting tubule

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32
Q

where in the kidney is the most important site for K+ secretion?

A

the collecting tubule

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33
Q

where is aldosterone released from?

A

the adrenal cortex

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34
Q

we have sodium reabsorption in the collecting tubule d/t

A

aldosterone being released in response to low bp. aldosterone binds to the receptor inside the collecting tubule and increases the activity of ENaC

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35
Q

what is ENaC?

A

a sodium transporter pulling sodium out of the urine and into the collecting tubule

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36
Q

what are the principal cells responsive to in the collecting duct of the kidney?

A

aldosterone

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37
Q

what is the normal without drugs movement of Cl-, Na+, and K+ in the collecting tubule?

A

More Na+ moves into the Collecting Tubule than K+ leaves the CT. This makes the urine net negative which drives Cl- through the cells to the interstitium

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38
Q

what is the movement of Cl-, Na+, and K+ in the collecting tubule when you give potassium wasting diuretics with affects on sodium?

A

Cl- moves through the cells to the interstitium

LOTS of Na+ moves into the Collecting Tubule (because it was blocked from being absorbed higher up)

LOTS of K+ leaves the CT (to balance out Na+)

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39
Q

what is the movement of HCO3-, Na+, and K+ in the collecting tubule when you give potassium wasting diuretics with affects on bicarb? (acetazolamide)

A

Bicarb can’t move between the cells so this makes the urine extra negative

LOTS and LOTS of Na+ moves into the Collecting Tubule (because it was blocked from being absorbed higher up)

LOTS and LOTS of K+ leaves the CT (to balance out Na+)

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40
Q

what drug antagonizes aldosterone in the kidney?

A

Spironolactone

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41
Q

why is spironolactone K sparing?

A

because you block aldosterone in the collecting tubule. This blocks Na+ reabsorption which makes the urine more Positive so K+ stays within the collecting tubule.

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42
Q

what drug is similar to Spironolactone and how does it work?

A

Amiloride

it blocks the ENaC pump

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43
Q

what is Conn’s syndrome?

A

an increase in aldosterone production d/t a tumor or hyperplasia. this works as a diuretic

would use a K+ sparing diuretic

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44
Q

what is a contraindication to taking a K+ sparing diuretic?

A

pt is taking K+ supplements

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45
Q

toxicity of K+ sparing drugs

A

hyperkalemia

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46
Q

what is the antidiuretic hormone in the collecting duct?

A

vasopressin

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47
Q

what does vasopressin do in the kidneys?

A

increases cAMP which moves aquaporin channels to the cell wall so that water can rush into the collecting duct and then the interstitium.

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48
Q

why would a patient not produce ADH?

A

possibly d/t their blood pressure being too high already

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49
Q

what drug blocks the receptor for ADH?

A

Conivaptan a K+ sparing diuretic

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50
Q

What is Mannitol normally used for?

A

to decrease ICP
to promote removal of renal toxins

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51
Q

Describe 2 drugs that reduce potassium loss during sodium diuresis.

A

Potassium sparing diuretics:
Block aldosterone receptors (spironolactone)

Inhibition of sodium flux through ion channels in luminal membrane (amiloride)

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52
Q

List the potential side effects of mannitol

A

Extracellular volume expansion d/t rapidly distributed fluids to extracellular compartments. This can lead to congestion and hyponatremia prior to diuresis.
Dehydration
Hypernatremia
Hyperkalemia
In patients with renal failure - hyponatremia

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53
Q

What is the major application for acetazolamide?

A

Used in acute mountain sickness because blocks carbonic anhydrase in CNS

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54
Q

What is the major application for thiazides?

A

diuretic when K+ needs to be preserved

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55
Q

What is the major application for loop diuretics?

A

Most efficacious diuretic, used for fluid overload, especially when K+ wasting is okay

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56
Q

What is the major application for potassium sparing diuretics?

A

Useful in patients with hypokalemia

Most useful in states of mineralocorticoid excess (result in overproduction of aldosterone)

Primary - over produce aldosterone
Conn’s syndrome
Pituitary gland tumor
Results in Ectopic ACTH production

Secondary
CHF
Nephrotic syndrome
Use of other diuretics that waste potassium

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57
Q

What are the toxicities associated with acetazolamide?

A

K+ depletion
Acidosis

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58
Q

What are the toxicities associated with thiazides?

A

allergic reaction.
sulfonamide

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59
Q

What are the toxicities associated with loop diuretics?

A

allergic reaction.
sulfonamide

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60
Q

What are the toxicities associated with potassium sparing diuretics?

A

Hyperkalemia

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61
Q

What is diabetes insipidus?

A

insufficient ADH which leads to excessive thirst and urination.

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62
Q

What is one of the treatments for neurogenic Diabetes insipidus?

A

Thiazide diuretics.
It depletes the patient further and leads to decreased urinary output overall.

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63
Q

what are the symptoms of asthma?

A

wheezing, breathlessness, chest tightness, coughing, and symptoms increased at night and early morning

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64
Q

what are the factors involved in asthma?

A
  • Airway inflammation causing obstruction
  • Increased responsiveness of trachea and bronchi to various stimuli
  • Widespread narrowing of airways
  • Contraction of airway smooth muscle
  • Mucosal thickening
    edema, cellular infiltration
  • Mucous plugs
  • Involves WBC’s and epithelial cells
  • Reversible
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65
Q

What is the hygiene hypothesis?

A

We are more clean now than we used to be as primal humans so our body attacks its own cells rather than other pathogens
Causes of asthma attack: allergens, respiratory infections, irritants, certain meds, exercise, GERD, and anxiety/stress

66
Q

what are the symptoms of Croup

A

seal-like barking cough
If viral: rhinorrhea, sore throat, and fever

67
Q

What is COPD?

A

Chronic bronchitis + Emphysema
the most severe of obstructive disorders.

68
Q

what are the symptoms of bronchitis?

A

Hypersecretion of mucus and chronic productive cough that lasts for at least 3 months of the year and for at least 2 consecutive years

69
Q

what are the symptoms of emphysema

A

dyspnea and wheezing

70
Q

what are the factors involved in croup

A

Acute laryngotracheobronchitis
Can be from a viral infection that causes the airway to become hyperreactive

common in young children

71
Q

what are the factors involved in bronchitis

A

Inspired irritants increase mucus production and the size and number of mucous glands
The mucus is thicker than normal

72
Q

what are the factors involved in emphysema?

A

Abnormal permanent enlargement of the gas-exchange airways accompanied by destruction of alveolar walls without obvious fibrosis
Loss of elastic recoil
Distended alveoli cause less efficient gas exchange

73
Q

what are severe cases of croup treated with?

A

nebulized epinephrine

74
Q

Why do smokers have a nasty cough, especially in the morning?

A

It decreases cilia so they have a harder time moving mucous in the airway

75
Q

what is the most common chronic disease in children?

A

asthma

76
Q

what is the FEV1?

A

Bronchial hyperreactivity test.

A positive test is when there is a marked fall in forced expiratory volume over 1 second provoked by inhaling increasing concentrations of histamine or methacholine.

Monitor to make sure that they don’t have an asthma attack during this

77
Q

What is PEF?

A

Peak expiratory flow

Maximum flow of forced expiration

What is the maximum amount of expiration that they can force out of that flow meter?

78
Q

Describe the immune response to allergens as it pertains to dendritic cells

A

found in the mucosa/lining of respiratory tract, they interact with the allergen & they swallow it up and break it down.

Also referred to as antigen presenting cells since they are now going to present the antigen on the surface of their cells/cell membrane with an MHC II receptor (receptor that activates certain inflammatory cells in the immune system)
It then migrates to the closest lymph node and presents it to a T-Cell

79
Q

Describe the immune response to allergens as it pertains to T cells

A

Helper T cells are activated in the case of an allergen reaction to an innocuous substance such as pet dander or dust mite feces.

The helper T cell releases interleukin IV and the interleukin IV (Dupixent blocks IL4 here) activates the B cells that produce antibodies

80
Q

Describe the immune response to allergens as it pertains to B cells

A

cells that produce antibodies and turn into plasma cells and memory cells (long lived and can have a significant reaction next time that pathogen is encountered)

81
Q

Describe the immune response to allergens as it pertains to plasma cells

A

antibody producing factories that recognize this specific allergen as foreign
In an allergic response, these antibodies are a specific subtype called IgE
IgE antibodies bind to the surface of mast cells

82
Q

Describe the immune response to allergens as it pertains to mast cells

A

Found in the connective tissues that line the airway and the gastrointestinal tract.

Big sacks of histamine, leukotrienes and prostaglandins.

On the first exposure of an allergen, Plasma cells place Ige antibodies on mast cells marking it for future exposure.
Upon second exposure, the allergen binds to Ige and you have mast cell degranulation. It opens and spills out histamine, leukotrienes and prostaglandins which gives you allergic response symptoms.

83
Q

Describe the immune response to allergens as it pertains to neutrophils

A

release proteases(break down proteins) and cytokines (signaling compound to control the rate of activity)

Causes both smooth muscle constriction and vasodilation causing leakiness of the vessels= tissue swelling

84
Q

Describe the immune response to allergens as it pertains to eosinophils

A

same response as neutrophils

85
Q

What kind of autocoids are released when you have an asthmatic response?

A

less histamine and more leukotriene and prostaglandin

86
Q

what are the mediators released in the early stages of asthma?

A

Histamine
leukotrienes
prostaglandins
tryptase

Cause swelling and constriction and rush of WBC’s to further the allergic reaction

87
Q

What are the mediators released in the late stages of asthma?

A

2-8 hours later
Leukotrienes
Histamine

88
Q

Mucus production is the body’s defense against irritants and microorganisms
Produced by

A

goblet and epithelial cells

89
Q

List the primary pathways of the arachidonic acid cascade, and its main products.

A

Arachidonic acid produces

LOX pathway- produces leukotrienes
COX pathway- produces prostaglandins

90
Q

What are the ANS effects on airway diameter

A

Normal: slightly closed off resting airway tone d/t parasympathetic vagal stimulation.

In asthma:
Greatest resistance is in medium bronchi d/t further airway constriction

91
Q

Describe the 2 broad categories of treatment for asthma and COPD

A

Short-term relievers: sympathomimetics
Contraction of smooth muscle → beta agonists

Long term controllers: corticosteroids
Edema and cellular infiltration → anti-inflammatory agents

Antihistamines have small benefit in asthma

92
Q

List the major classes of drugs used in asthma and COPD.

A

Short term relievers:
* Beta agonists-Epi, isoproterenol, albuterol, salmeterol/Formotorol

  • anti-muscarinic- IV atropine, Inhaled. Ipratropium bromide
  • Methylxanthines- Theophylline(strong tea)

Long term controllers:
* Steroids-Prednisone, fluticasone

  • monoclonal antibodies- Omalizumab
  • Leukotriene antagonists: Lipoxygenase inhibitors- Montelukast
    Receptor inhibitors

can use anti-IgE monoclonal antibodies. This targets portion of IgE that binds to mast cells and does not activate IgE already on mast cells.

93
Q

What is the most effective treatment for COPD, how does it work?

A

A methylxanthine called Theophylline.

Phospho Diesterase inhibitor (PDE) to relax smooth muscle in the airways, is anti-inflammatory, and inhibits adenosine receptors

94
Q

What is found in concentrated tea that can help COPD patients?

A

Theophylline

95
Q

What are anti muscarinic drugs used in COPD?

A

Atropine
Ipratropium bromide(atrovent)- more selective than atropine
Tiotropium(Spiriva)- longer lasting

96
Q

Describe the mechanisms of action of sympathomimetics used in asthma

A

Relax airway smooth muscle
And…
Inhibit some substances from mast cells
Inhibit microvascular leakage
Increase mucociliary transport

97
Q

Describe the mechanisms of action of corticosteroids used in asthma

A

Inhibits immune response by blocking transcription/translation

  • steroid enters cell binds to glucocorticoid receptor (GR) and moves to nucleus
  • Through Transactivation binding of the activated GR homodimer to a glucocorticosteroid response element (GRE) in the promoter region of steroid-sensitive genes leads to the transcription of genes encoding anti-inflammatory mediators.
  • Through Transrepression the glucocorticoid receptor–corticosteroid complex interacts with large co-activator molecules with intrinsic histone acetyltransferase (HAT) activity
  • thus switching off expression of the inflammatory genes that are activated
98
Q

what is a side effect of corticosteroids?

A

may increase osteoporosis and stunt growth rate in children
oropharyngeal candidiasis

99
Q

Identify treatment considerations for specific patients with mild asthma and/or COPD

A

Beta receptor agonist on an as needed basis

100
Q

Identify treatment considerations for specific patients with moderate asthma and/or COPD

A

Inhaled corticosteroid - different depending on the severity of the symptoms
Oral leukotriene receptor antagonist

101
Q

Identify treatment considerations for specific patients with frequent asthma and/or COPD

A

inhaled corticosteroids

102
Q

Identify treatment considerations for specific patients with severe asthma and/or COPD

A

inhaled corticosteroids
Anti-IgE antibody
Oxygen
beta-2 agonist (nebulizer)
Systemic steroids- Prednisone, Methylprednisone
Intubation
Mechanical ventilation

103
Q

What is Trelegy/ ellipta?

A

anti-inflammatory steroid, anticholinergic, and beta 2 agonist

used for COPD

104
Q

What is the Asthma progression?

A
  1. short acting beta 2 agonist
  2. If symptoms are twice a month, also include a low dose inhaled corticosteroid
  3. If they are greater than that, combine the inhaled corticosteroid with a long acting beta 2 agonist like femoderol
  4. Even worse than this, combine with a leukotriene receptor antagonist
  5. When it is affecting lung function, then we will combine with a medium dose inhaled corticosteroid
  6. Last step, use IgE antibodies1.
105
Q

What is an autacoid?

A

General term for things that are released locally and have an effect locally
NOT neurotransmitter

106
Q

Examples of autacoids

A

histamine, serotonin, prostaglandins and leukotrienes
cause things like itchiness (pruritus)

107
Q

What is the effects of Histamine in the brain?

A

excitatory

108
Q

What does Histamine do in the stomach?

A

produces hydrochloric acid to digest food

109
Q

why do some people itch when given morphine?

A

because of histamine release

110
Q

Where is H1 found?

A

brain, smooth muscle, endothelium

111
Q

Where is H2 found?

A

brain, heart, GI, mast cells

112
Q

where is H3 found?

A

brain

113
Q

what is the cardiovascular effects of histamine?

A

vasodilation causes decreased BP
Increased HR d/t reflex tachycardia

114
Q

what is a secondary response of Histamine in the lungs?

A

bronchoconstriction

115
Q

Where is serotonin found?

A

90% found in Gut
also a neurotransmitter

116
Q

what does 5-HT do in the gut?

A

causes peristalsis
can lead to diarrhea

117
Q

what is a precursor to melatonin?

A

5-HT

118
Q

What does serotonin do in regards to platelets?

A

vasoconstricts injured blood vessels

got it’s name because it is found in “Serum” and gives vessel “tone”

119
Q

what is the response of 5-HT in the respiratory system?

A

ACh release= constriction
hyperventilation

120
Q

What is the triple response of allergy testing and mediators?

A

Histamine
Wheal- swelling
Flare- redness
sensory nerve endings-itchy

121
Q

what are the 2 groups of H1 antihistamines?

A

1st Gen H1 receptor antagonists:
Systemic + CNS
Resembles antimuscarinic drugs
Effects:
Crosses BBB and has sedative effects and some Anticholinergic activity (antiemetic)

2nd Gen H1 receptor antagonists:
More systemic, less CNS
Does not cross BBB
Effects:
Less sedation because it has a lower CNS distribution

122
Q

How does Epi reverse histamine effects?

A

works on alpha and beta NOT histamine receptors

Constricting blood vessels
Dilating airways

123
Q

1st gen H1 antagonist drugs

A
  • dramamine
  • Phenergan
  • Benadryl
    Atarax
    Chlor-Trimeton
124
Q

2nd gen H1 antagonist drugs

A
  • Allegra
  • Clarintin
  • Zyrtec
125
Q

1st and 2nd gen Histamine antagonists have equal

A

efficacy

126
Q

List the uses of the H2 antihistamines

A

Shuts down production of hydrochloric (stomach) acid
Not as effective as PPIs
Heavy OTC use

127
Q

Contrast PPIs and H2 antihistamines

A

PPI’s have replaced H2 antihistamines

128
Q

Name 2 members of PPI group

A

Nexium
Omeprazole

129
Q

Describe platelet response all the way to fibrin clot (pharm)

A
  • Platelets bind to damaged vessels → they aggregate →
  • platelet degranulation releases serotonin → this increases tone in the blood vessel → vasoconstriction →
  • so we don’t bleed out and have time to form a fibrin clot → fibrin clot forms to prevent blood loss
130
Q

Where is serotonin produced?

A

Raphe Nuclei

131
Q

What are the 3 main 5-HT agonist targets? and associated drugs?

A

5-HT1A Buspirone (anxiety)
5-HT1B Sumatriptan (migraines)
5-HT1D Sumatriptan (migraines)

132
Q

what is the only ion channel serotonin receptor?
Where is it found?
What reflex is it associated with?

A

(5HT3)
Found in area postrema → area associated with nausea reflex → give ondansetron (antagonist that binds to 5HT3)

133
Q

What are the 2 main 5-HT antagonist targets? and associated drugs?

A

(5HT 2A
Location: smooth muscle, platelets and cerebral cortex
Drugs: Phenoxybenzamine, cyproheptadine)(not on his review)
5HT 3
Location: Area postrema
Drug: ondansetron

134
Q

Serotonin agonists used to be good for what?

A

weight loss.
No longer allowed in America

135
Q

Preventatives for Migraine HA(not on his med review?)

A

Beta-blockers, CCBs, ACEi
* Help with the throbbing pain from a headache

Antidepressants - SSRIs, TCAs

Anti-seizure- valproate, topiramate

Botox
* Paralyze facial muscles so that tensed facial muscles can not cause a migraine

MAbs -Aimovig
* Aimovig - targets CGRP
CGRP plays important role in migraines
Aimovig is an anti-CGRP antibody that binds to the protein itself and prevents it from binding to its receptors.

136
Q

Treatments for migraines HA

A

Pain: ASA, NSAIDS, ASA + caffeine, opioids (severe headache)

Triptans(on review)

Ergotamine - less effective than triptans
Anti-nausea - chlorpromazine, ondansetron

Glucocorticoids (more for prevention) - prednisone

Others:
CCB, TCAs, SSRIs, Beta blockers

137
Q

Toxicity associated with Triptan

A

Can wear off → recurrence of migraine
Coronary vasospasm - rare
(On review) Serotonin syndrome
Mainly in pt taking triptans + SSRIs, MAOIs or St. John’s wort

138
Q

Describe the action of sumatriptan

A

5HT receptor Agonists (1B/1D)
Prevent dilation and stretching of pain endings

139
Q

what is sumatriptan used for?

A

Mainstay of migraine treatment

140
Q

what are the contributing factors to serotonin syndrome?

A

MDMA, SSRIs, MAOIs, St John’s Wort, Triptans with any of the previous ones (anything that increases serotonin)

141
Q

what are the contributing factors to Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

Dopamine blocking anti psychotic drugs

142
Q

what are the contributing factors to malignant hyperthermia

A

Succs , volatile anesthetics (sevo)

Mutation of Ryr receptor → keeps it open for long → calcium efflux for longer → increased muscle cell rigidity

143
Q

What are the treatments for serotonin syndrome

A

Sedation (benzo)
Paralysis
Intubation
Ventilation
Consider 5-HT blocker

144
Q

What are the treatments for neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

Diphenhydramine (parenteral benadryl)
Cooling if high temp
Benzos if needed

145
Q

What are the treatments for malignant hyperthermia

A

Dantrolene (muscle relaxant)
Cooling

146
Q

what are the 3 types of hyperthermia disorders?

A

serotonin syndrome
neuroleptic malignant syndrome
malignant hyperthermia

147
Q

What is the mesolimbic pathway?

A

Pleasure and reward pathway.
can be a positive effect (addicted to exercise) or negative (addicted to drugs or gambling)

148
Q

Differentiate between anxiety and depression

A

Depression is a lack of energy, anxiety is an excessive amount of energy.

149
Q

What are the forms of Depression?

A

Dysthymia
Psychosis: delusionals/hallucinations
PPD
Seasonal affective disorder (SAD): decrease in melatonin
Bipolar disorder: switching from depression to anxiety

150
Q

what are the forms of anxiety?

A

Generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)
OCD
PTSD
Social phobia

151
Q

List the four categories of antidepressant medications in order of treatment severity.

A
  1. SSRIs
  2. SNRIs (selective serotonin-NE reuptake inhibitors)
  3. TCAs (named for cyclic molecule repeated x3)
  4. MAOIs
152
Q

What is the black box warning on all antidepressants?

A

Can have an increased risk of suicidal ideation (first 1-2 months). Not used to dealing with increase in serotonin, norepi, dopamine

153
Q

SSRI mechanism of action

A

Inhibitor of SERT

154
Q

SNRI mechanism of action

A

Inhibit SERT and NET

155
Q

what are SNRI’s used for?

A

Used for major depression and pain disorders (trigeminal neuralgia)

156
Q

TCA mechanism of action

A

Inhibit SERT, NET, some anticholinergic effects, some effects on dopamine

157
Q

Why are TCA’s less common?

A

They have more side effects

158
Q

MAOI mechanism of action

A

prevent breakdown of monoamines, a lot more present in the synapse

159
Q

Why are MAOI’s rarely used?

A

Rarely used due to lethal drug interactions (need to know everything the pt is taking, including botanical agents)
Refractory depression

160
Q

List alternative therapies for depression.

A
  • Psychotherapy - talk therapy
  • Electroconvulsive therapy
    Useful for BPD or other types of severe depression
    Reestablish normal electrical pathways in the brain
  • St. John’s wort
    Top selling botanical agent in the US
    Don’t need a prescription
161
Q

What are histamines?

A

fast acting establishers of allergic reaction symptoms:
mucus secretion, capillary dilation, allergic response including itching, hay fever and anaphylaxis

Fall 2024 (86 decks)

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