Pelvis, Sacrum, and Femur Flashcards

1
Q

Synarthrosis

A
  • No movement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Amphiarthrosis

A
  • Slightly moveable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Diathrosis

A
  • Freely moveable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Functional classification

A
  • Amount of movement allowed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Structural classification

A
  • Type of connective tissue that connects bone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Fibrous

A
  • United by fibrous connective tissue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cartilaginous

A
  • United by cartilage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Synovial

A
  • Multiple characteristics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Fibrous joints

A
  • No joint cavity
  • Bones united by fibrous CT
  • Length of fibers determines movement allowed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Syndesmosis

A
  • Fibrous, amphiarthrosis

- Ex: tibiofibular syndesmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cartilaginous joints

A
  • Lacks joint cavity

- Bones united by cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Synchondroses

A
  • United by hyaline cartilage (primary cartilaginous joint)
  • Usually temporary, synarthrosis
  • Examples: growth plates
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Symphysis

A
  • United by fibrocartilage (secondary cartilaginous joint)

- IVD and pubic symphysis, amphiarthrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Synovial joints include

A
  • All are diarthrosis joints
  • Articular capsule (2 layers)
  • Synovial cavity
  • Articular discs
  • Bursa
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Two layers of articular capsule (synovial joints)

A
  • Outer fibrous capsule

- Inner synovial membrane (secretes fluid)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Articular cartilage (hyaline)

A
  • Covers ends of bones in synovial joints
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Accessory ligaments of synovial joints

A
  • Capsular
  • Intracapsular
  • Extracapsular
  • (some classify capsular and extracapsular into the same group)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Bursa

A
  • Fluid filled sac (small amounts of fluid)

- Decreases friction between structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Synovial joints are classified according to

A
  • Shape of articular surfaces
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Types of bone (osteology)

A
  • Compact (cortical)

- Cancellous (trabecular, spongy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Compact (cortical) bone

A
  • Dense and solid

- White on x-ray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Cancellous (trabecular, spongy)

A
  • Lattice-shaped plates of bone
  • Highly vascular
  • Develop along stress lines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

More stress on cancellous bone leads to

A
  • More dense trabeculae to resist force and direction of loading
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Wolff’s Law (applies to both cortical and cancellous bone)

A
  • Bone will develop/remodel based on forces it experiences
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Forces applied to bone

A
  • Muscle contraction
  • Gravity
  • Impact loading
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Bone shapes

A
  • Short
  • Irregular
  • Flat
  • Long
  • Sesamoid
  • Accessory bones (ossicles)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Short bones

A
  • Cubed shape
  • Carpals and tarsals
  • Trabecular bone covered by cortical
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Irregular bones

A
  • Shapes are more complex

- Vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Flat bones

A
  • Plates of cortical bone with cancellous bone in between

- Ribs, cranial bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Long bones

A
  • Limbs of the extremities
  • Length > width
  • Curved
  • Hollow medullary shaft, fat marrow in the adult, cancellous bone at the ends
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Sesamoid bones

A
  • Round (oval)
  • Usually embedded in tendons
  • Patella
  • 1st metatarsophalangeal join
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Sesamoid bones function

A
  • Protect tendon

- Create mechanical advantage (alter angle of muscle pull)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Accessory bones (ossicles)

A
  • Extra bone or non-fused part of existing bone
  • Normal variants (not fractures)
  • Smooth, regular edges
  • Can become symptomatic
  • Example: Os trigonum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Lower extremity bone ossification

A
  • Ossify from cartilage to bone
  • Endochondral ossification
  • All lower extremity except tuft of distal phalanx (ungual tuberosity)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Long bones

A
  • Primary ossification center
  • Secondary ossification center
  • Epiphyseal plate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Primary ossification center

A
  • Around mid-shaft
  • Contributes to formation of diaphysis
  • Present at birth in all lower extremity long bones
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Secondary ossification centers

A
  • Ends of the long bones
  • All not present at birth
  • A long bone can have multiple
  • Epiphysis
  • Apophysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Epiphysis

A
  • Secondary ossification center that contributes to a joint
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Apophysis

A
  • Secondary ossification center for ligament/muscle attachment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Epiphyseal plate (Physis)

A
  • Cartilage plate between diaphysis and epiphysis
  • Allows for bone lengthening
  • Forms metaphysis and diaphysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Short bones

A
  • Ossification center is at the bone center
  • Not all are present at birth
  • Most have 1 (not all)
  • Can use for radiographical age determination
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Pelvic girdle

A
  • Coxal bones
  • Ilium, Ishium, Pubis
  • Often includes coccyx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Pelvic girdle articulation

A
  • Articulates posteriorly with the sacrum

- Forms the pelvic skeleton or pelvic ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Pelvic girdle function

A
  • Strong and rigid
  • Connects vertebral column to lower extremity
  • Weight/force transfer
  • Muscle attachment
  • Protect and support pelvic/abdominal viscera
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Sacrum

A
  • Wedge shaped bone
  • Formed by 5 fused vertebrae
  • Forms a primary curviture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Male vs. female sacrum

A
  • Male: longer/narrower
  • Female: shorter wider
  • Rudimentary disc can persist
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Characteristics of sacrum

A
  • Base is superior: articulates with L5 (weight-bearing)

- Apex is inferior: articulates with coccyx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Sacral promontory

A
  • Anterior edge of S1

- Included in base of sacrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

4 anterior and 4 posterior sacral foramina

A
  • Ventral and dorsal rami pass through
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Superior articular process (of sacrum)

A
  • Articular facet faces posteriorly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Auricular surface (of sacrum)

A
  • Lateral aspect that articulates with auricular surface of ilium
  • Has ridges and depressions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Auricular surface (of sacrum) forms

A
  • Synovial joint

- Part of sacroiliac joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Sacral tuberosity

A
  • Posterior aspect of lateral surface
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Sacral tuberosity forms

A
  • Syndesmosis with ilium

- Ligament attachment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Bony landmarks of sacrum are remnants of

A
  • Vertebral components
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Transverse lines (ridges)

A
  • Fused bodies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Sacral crests

A
  • Located posteriorly
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Median sacral crest

A
  • Fused spinous processes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Intermediate sacral crest

A
  • Medial side of posterior foramina

- Fused superior/inferior articular processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Lateral sacral crest

A
  • Lateral to posterior sacral foramina

- Fused transverse processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Sacral alae

A
  • Lateral projections

- Remnant of S1 TPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Sacral groove

A
  • Between median and intermediate crest

- Fused laminae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Sacral hiatus

A
  • Opens into the sacral canal

- Formed by unfused S5 lamina

64
Q

Spinal nerves that exit sacral hiatus

A
  • S5

- Co1

65
Q

Sacral cornu

A
  • Lateral margins of sacral hiatus
66
Q

Coccyx base

A
  • Articulates with sacral apex

- Apex is inferior

67
Q

Coccygeal cornu

A
  • Remnant of superior articular processes of Co1

- Ligaments connect with sacral cornu

68
Q

Coccyx function

A
  • Doesn’t support weight

- Muscles and ligaments attach

69
Q

Coxal bone (os coxae, hip bone)

A
  • 3 separate bones

- Separated by triradiate cartilage until fusion

70
Q

Coxal bone (os coxae, hip bone) articulate with

A
  • Sacrum posteriorly (sacroiliac joint)
  • Contralateral coxal bone anteriorly (pubic symphysis)
  • Femur laterally (acetabofemoral joint, hip)
71
Q

Iliac crest

A
  • Superior border of ilium
72
Q

Anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)

A
  • Palpable anterior end of iliac crest
73
Q

Posterior superior iliac spine (PSIS)

A
  • Palpable posterior end of iliac crest

- Visible as a dimple on back

74
Q

Iliac tubercle

A
  • Posterior to ASIS
75
Q

Posterior gluteal line

A
  • Anterior to PSIS

- Extends to a PIIS

76
Q

Anterior gluteal line

A
  • From between ASIS and iliac tubercle to greater sciatic notch
77
Q

Inferior gluteal line

A
  • Between ASIS and AIIS to greater sciatic notch
78
Q

Ischial tuberosity

A
  • Palpable posterior/inferior aspect of ischium

- Bears weight when sitting

79
Q

Acetabulum

A
  • Cup like depression formed by the 3 bones
80
Q

Superior border of acetabulum

A
  • Body of ilium
81
Q

Posterior inferior border of acetabulum

A
  • Body of ischium
82
Q

Anterior inferior border at acetabulum

A
  • Pubis
83
Q

Lunate surface of acetabulum

A
  • Crescent shaped articular surface
84
Q

Acetabular fossa

A
  • Central depression
  • Formed mostly by body of ischium
  • Non-articular
85
Q

Acetabular fossa contains

A
  • Ligamentum teres femoris

- Fat

86
Q

Acetabular notch

A
  • Between inferior ends of lunate surface
87
Q

Acetabular rim

A
  • Raised edge of the acetabulum
88
Q

Iliac fossa

A
  • Pelvic surface of ala of ilium
89
Q

Iliac tuberosity

A
  • Roughened area on medial surface
  • Posterior to fossa
  • Superior to auricular surface
90
Q

Auricular surface

A
  • Smooth surface on medial aspect (does have ridges and depressions_
  • Forms synovial joint
  • Inferior to iliac tuberosity
  • Posterior to iliac fossa
91
Q

Iliopectineal eminence (iliopubic eminence)

A
  • Junction of iliac body with superior pubic ramus
92
Q

Obturator groove

A
  • Superior edge of obturator foramen
93
Q

Greater sciatic foramen

A
  • Passageway to gluteal region
94
Q

Greater sciatic foramen boundaries

A
  • Anterior (anterolateral): greater sciatic notch (ilium)
  • Superior: anterior sacroiliac ligaments
  • Inferior: Ischial spine and sacrospinous ligament
  • Posterior (posteromedial) sacrotuberous ligament
95
Q

Greater sciatic foramen anterior (anterolateral) boundary

A
  • Greater sciatic notch (ilium)
96
Q

Greater sciatic foramen superior boundary

A
  • Anterior sacroiliac ligaments
97
Q

Greater sciatic foramen inferior boundary

A
  • Ischial spine

- Sacrospinous ligament

98
Q

Greater sciatic foramen posterior (posteromedial) boundary

A
  • Sacrotuberous ligament
99
Q

Lesser sciatic foramen

A
  • Passageway to gluteal region/perineum
100
Q

Lesser sciatic foramen boundaries

A
  • Anterior: lesser sciatic notch (ischium)
  • Anterior/inferior: ischial tuberosity
  • Anterior/superior: ischial spine
  • Superior: sacrospinous ligament
  • Posterior: sacrotuberous ligament
101
Q

Lesser sciatic foramen anterior boundary

A

Lesser sciatic notch (ischium)

102
Q

Lesser sciatic foramen anterior/inferior boundary

A
  • Ischial tuberosity
103
Q

Lesser sciatic foramen anterior/superior boundary

A
  • Ischial spine
104
Q

Lesser sciatic foramen superior boundary

A
  • Sacrospinous ligament
105
Q

Lesser sciatic foramen posterior boundary

A
  • Sacrotuberous ligament
106
Q

Obturator foramen

A
  • Passageway to medial thigh

- Mostly covered by obturator membrane

107
Q

Obturator canal

A
  • Superior opening between obturator membrane and superior pubic ramus
108
Q

Ischial spine and sacrotuberous ligament separate

A
  • Greater and lesser sciatic foramina
109
Q

Proximal femur (proximal epiphysis) parts

A
  • Head
  • Neck
  • Greater trochanter
  • Lesser trochanter
  • Intertrochanteric line
  • Intertrochanteric crest
110
Q

Proximal femur (proximal epiphysis) head

A
  • Articulates with lunate surface of acetabulum

- Contains fovea capitis femoris

111
Q

Proximal femur (proximal epiphysis) neck

A
  • Contains Retinacular foramen

- Openings for retinacular vessels from the trochanteric anastomsis

112
Q

Proximal femur (proximal epiphysis) greater trochanter

A
  • Palpable, lateral projection
  • Attachment site for muscles
  • Contains trochanteric fossa
113
Q

Proximal femur (proximal epiphysis) lesser trochanter

A
  • Posteromedial projection for iliopsoas muscle attachment
114
Q

Proximal femur (proximal epiphysis) intertrochanteric line

A
  • Faint ridge on the anterior surface of the femur
  • Runs between the trochanters
  • Site of muscle and ligament/capsule attachment
115
Q

Proximal femur (proximal epiphysis) intertrochanteric crest

A
  • Prominent ridge on the posterior surface between the trochanters
  • Contains quadratic tubercle
116
Q

Trochanteric fossa

A
  • Depression on medial surface of greater trochanter

- Attachment for obturator externus

117
Q

Quadrate tubercle

A
  • Square shaped bump on the intertrochanteric crest

- Quadratus femoris attachment

118
Q

Quadrate tubercle

A
  • Square shaped bump on the intertrochanteric crest

- Quadratus femoris attachment

119
Q

Parts of the femur shaft

A
  • Linea aspera
  • Pectineal line
  • Popliteal surface
  • Nutrient foramen
120
Q

Parts of the linea aspera (shaft of femur)

A
  • Medial lip
  • Lateral lip
  • Intermediate lip
121
Q

Linea aspera

A
  • Ridge found on the posterior shaft

- Site of muscle attachment

122
Q

Medial lip of linea aspera is continuous with

A
  • Spiral line

- Medial supracondylar line

123
Q

Spiral line

A
  • Connects medial lip with intertrochanteric line
124
Q

Medial supracondylar line

A
  • Inferior continuation of medial lip (to the adductor tubercle)
125
Q

Lateral lip of linea aspera continuous with

A
  • Gluteal tuberosity

- Lateral supracondylar line

126
Q

Gluteal tuberosity

A
  • Superior continuation of lateral lip

- Can be enlarged (3rd trochanter)

127
Q

Lateral supracondylar line

A
  • Inferior continuation of lateral lip (to the lateral epicondyle)
128
Q

Intermediate lip

A
  • Can occasionally be seen superiorly
129
Q

Pectineal line

A
  • Ascends toward lesser trochanter

- Muscle attachment

130
Q

Popliteal surface

A
  • Posterior, distal aspect of femur shaft
131
Q

Nutrient foramen

A
  • Opening for nutrient artery
  • Angled superiorly
  • Most commonly around midshaft (varies) on the linea aspera
132
Q

Distal femur articulates with

A
  • Patella

- Tibia

133
Q

Parts of the distal femur

A
  • Medial condyle
  • Lateral condyle
  • Patellar surface
  • Intercondylar notch (fossa)
  • Intercondylar line
134
Q

Medial condyle of femur contains

A
  • Medial epicondyle

- Adductor tubercle

135
Q

Medial epidondyle of femur

A
  • Medial prominence on medial aspect of medial condyle

- MCL attaches

136
Q

Adductor tubercle of femur

A
  • Superior aspect of medial condyle

- Muscle attachment

137
Q

Lateral epicondyle of femur

A
  • Lateral prominence on lateral aspect of lateral condyle

- LCL attaches

138
Q

Patellar surface of femur

A
  • Anterior surface that articulates with the patella
139
Q

Intercondylar Notch (fossa) of femur

A
  • Posterior depression between the condyles

ACL and PCL attach

140
Q

Intercondylar line of femur

A
  • Faint line at the superior aspect of intercondylar notch

- Oblique popliteal ligament attaches

141
Q

Ossification of pelvis

A
  • Primary centers appearance
  • All 3 pelvic bones begin to fuse at age 13-18 at the acetabulum
  • Complete fusion by age 18
142
Q

Ischiopubic ramus fuses

A
  • By age 8
143
Q

Ilium (ala) ossification

A
  • 9th fetal week
144
Q

Ischium (body) ossification

A
  • 4th fetal month
145
Q

Pubis (superior ramus) ossification

A
  • 4-5th fetal month
146
Q

Secondary ossification centers of pelvis

A
  • Most appear around puberty

- Usually females before males

147
Q

Examples of secondary ossification centers of pelvis

A
  • AIIS
  • Acetabulum
  • Ischial tuberosity
  • Iliac crest
  • Pubic symphysis
148
Q

Examples of primary ossification centers of pelvis

A
  • Ilium
  • Ischium
  • Pubis
  • Ischiopubic ramus
149
Q

Most secondary ossification centers of pelvis fuse by

A
  • Early 20s (15-25)
150
Q

Ossification of femur

A
  • Primary ossification center appearance
  • Mid-shaft 7th fetal week
  • Secondary ossification center appearance
151
Q

Secondary ossification centers of femur

A
  • Femoral condyles
  • Femoral head
  • Greater trochanter
  • Lesser trochanter
152
Q

Femoral condyles ossification

A
  • Right after birth

- Fuses ~ 20 yrs

153
Q

Femoral head ossification

A
  • By 1st yr

- Fuses ~ 18-19 yrs

154
Q

Greater trochanter of femur ossification

A
  • Around age 4

- Fuses ~ 18 yrs

155
Q

Lesser trochanter of femur ossification

A
  • Between 12-14, varies

- Fuses ~ 16-17yrs