New Neurobiology Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the RF pathways go into the Cerebellum ?

A

serotonergic

noradrenergic

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2
Q

How can you tell the difference between the serotonergic and noardrenergic pathways ?

A

serotonergic goes into corpus callosum

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3
Q

What is the nuclei and the role of the serotonergic pathways ?

A

Raphe nucleus magnus

sleep/mood and emotional behaviour

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4
Q

What is the nuclei and the role of the cholinerigc pathways?

A

Nucleus of meynert- basal forebrain

memeory learning

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5
Q

What is the nuclei and the role of the dopaminergic pathways ?

A

VTA

Act on D1/D2 receptors in the putamen circuit

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6
Q

What is the nuclei of the noradrenergic pathways ?

A

locus coereleus
attention
learning
memory and mood

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7
Q

What is the role of the anterior corticospinal tract ?

A

Proximal

decussates at the spinal chord level

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8
Q

What is the role of the lateral corticospinal tract ?

A

Distal musculature

decussates at the medulla

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9
Q

What is the role of the rubrospinal tract ?

A

excitation of flexors

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10
Q

What is the role of reticulospinal tract ?

A

flexors

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11
Q

What is the role of the tectospinal tract ?

A

orientation to visual stimuli- tracking

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12
Q

What is the role of the lateral vestibuospinal tract ?

A

antigravity muscles

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13
Q

What is the role of the medial reticulospinal tract ?

A

regulate head movements.

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14
Q

Where does the abducens lie ?

A

on the pons

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15
Q

What joins to the ponto-medullary junctions ?

A

VI
VII
VIII

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16
Q

What joins to the post olivary sulcus ?

A

IX
X
XI

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17
Q

What joins to the preolivary sulucus ?

A

XII

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18
Q

What is the nucleus ambiguus ?

A

IX
X
XI

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19
Q

What is the role of the inferior colliculus ?

A

Spatial localisation of sound

Sound travels to the MGN via the inferior colliculus in the auditory pathway

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20
Q

What is the role of the superior colliculus ?

A

involved in the optic pathway

fibres travel in the optic tract to the superior coliculus and the LGN

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21
Q

What is the role of the globus pallidus in relation to the thalamus ?

A

globus pallidus interior is inhibitory to the thalamus.

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22
Q

What is the striatum ?

A

composed of the caudate and the putamen

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23
Q

What is huntingtons disease a result of ?

A

loss of acetylcholinergic input to the striatum.

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24
Q

Where is the trochlear nerve located ?

A

on the dorsal side of the brainstem

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25
Q

What is the output of the fastigial nucleus ?

A

floculonodular lobe

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26
Q

What are the nuclei found in the vermis of the cerebellum ?

A

Fastigial nucleus

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27
Q

What are the nuclei found in the intermediate zone of the vermis ?

A

interposed nucleus

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28
Q

What are the nuclei found in the cerebellar hemispheres ?

A

Dentate nucleus

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29
Q

What are the nuclei found in the flocuonodular lobe ?

A

Fastigial nucleus

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30
Q

What do lesions to the spinocerbellum lead to ?

A

ataxia

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31
Q

What do lesions in the vestibulocerebellum lead to ?

A

staggering gait

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32
Q

What do lesions in the neocerbellum lead to ?

A

slow movement onset

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33
Q

How do the basal ganglia act ?

A

ipsilaterally

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34
Q

What are the basal ganglia ?

A
Putamen 
Globus Pallidus interior and exterior 
Sub thalamic 
Substantia nigra 
Caudate
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35
Q

What is the role of the basal ganglia ?

A

they tend to inhibit unwanted movements- the prevent unwanted movements

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36
Q

What is the basic feedback system that the basal ganglia are a part of ?

A

Basal ganglia to the cortex via the ventral anterior and ventral lateral nuclei of the thalamus

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37
Q

What is the striatum ?

A

caudate and putamen

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38
Q

What is the corpus striatum ?

A

caudate putamen and globus pallidus

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39
Q

What is the putamen circuit ?

A

subconscious execution of planned movements

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40
Q

What is the caudate circuit ?

A

cognitive planning of movement

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41
Q

What is parkinsons disease a result of ?

A

loss of dopamine from the substantia nigra - loss of nigrostriatal projections

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42
Q

Is parkinsons a hyperkinetic or hypokinetic disorder ?

A

hypokinetic

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43
Q

What is huntingtons disease a result of ?

A

loss of cholinergic input to the striatum

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44
Q

Is huntingtons a hyperkinetic or jypokinetic disorder ?

A

hyperkinetic

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45
Q

Describe the direct pathway ?

A

Dopmaine acts on D1 receptors in the striatum
this inhibits the globus pallidus interior
this reduces inhibition of the thalamus and increases cortical activity

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46
Q

Describe the indirect pathway ?

A

dopamine acts on D2 receptors
this inhibits the globus pallidus exterior
this reduces subthalamic inhibition
this excites the globus pallidus interior
this reduces thalamic and cortical excitation.

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47
Q

What are the alar lamina ?

A

sensory

lateral

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48
Q

What are the basal lamina ?

A

motor

medial

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49
Q

What are general somatic afferents ?

A

general sensation from skin, skeletal muscle , joint and bone

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50
Q

What are special somatic afferent ?

A

vision hearing and balance

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51
Q

What are general visceral afferent ?

A

visceral organs

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52
Q

What are special visceral afferent ?

A

taste and visceral sense

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53
Q

What are special visceral efferent

A

skeletal muscle from the pharyngeal arches

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54
Q

What are general somatic efferent ?

A

skeletal muscle from somites

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55
Q

What are general visceral efferent ?

A

Parasympathetic- muscles and glands

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56
Q

Where do cranial nerve I and II attach ?

A

diencephalon

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57
Q

Where do cranial nerve III-XII attach ?

A

brainstem

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58
Q

What are the entirely sensory cranial nerves ?

A

optic
olfactory
vestibulocohlear

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59
Q

What are the entirely motor cranial nerves ?

A
oculomotor
trochlear
abducens 
spinal accessory 
Hypoglossal
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60
Q

What are the sensory and motor cranial nerves ?

A

facial
trigeminal
vagus
Glossopharyngeal

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61
Q

What are the parasympathetic cranial nerves ?

A

oculomotor
glossopharyngeal
vagus
facial

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62
Q

What is the nucleus ambiguus ?

A

IX
X
XI muscles of the pharynx,larynx and soft palate

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63
Q

What is the edinger westphal nucleus ?

A

oculomotor

to the iris and ciliary muscles

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64
Q

What is the superior salivatory nucleus ?

A

lacrimal
submandibular
sublingual
VII

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65
Q

What is the inferior salivatory nucleus ?

A

parotid

IX

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66
Q

What is the nucleus of the solitary tract ?

A

VII IX and X

Anterior and posterior tongue and the epiglottis

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67
Q

What are the 3 primary brain vesicles ?

A

Prosencehalon
Mesencephalon
Rhomencephalon

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68
Q

What does the prosencephalon divide into ?

A

Diencephalon- thalamus

Tentencephalon- Cerebral hemispheres

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69
Q

What does the mesencephalon divide into ?

A

midbrain

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70
Q

What does the rhomebncepahlon divide into ?

A

metencephalon- pons and cerebellum

Myelencepahlon- medulla

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71
Q

What is the wall of the lateral ventricle ?

A

cerebral hemisphere

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72
Q

What is the wall of the third ventricle ?

A

thalamus

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73
Q

What is the wall of the IVth ventricle ?

A

pons and medulla

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74
Q

What is the wall of the cerebral aqueduct ?

A

midbrain

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75
Q

What does the opthalmic artery supply ?

A

retina

cranial dura

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76
Q

What is locked in syndrome ?

A

basillar artery- has pontine branhes- supply pons which is route for all ascending and descending pathways

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77
Q

What is the difference between dendrites and axons ?

A

dendrites- taper and have spines

axons- dont taper and dont have spines

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78
Q

What is the motor protein used in fast anterograde transport ?

A

kineisin

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79
Q

What protein coats neurotransmiter vesicles ready for exocytosis ?

A

clathrin

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80
Q

What is temporal summation ?

A

adding together of firing of many EPSPs from the same presynaptic neurone at high frequency to trigger an AP in the postsynaptic neurone

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81
Q

What is spatial summation ?

A

adding together of many EPSPs from many presynaptic neurones to trigger an AP

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82
Q

What are the modaliites carried by the DCML ?

A

fine touch
pressure
vibration
proprioception

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83
Q

What is carried by the pain and temperature and the anterolateral system ?

A

crude touch
pain
temperature

84
Q

Explain how synaptic strength can be altered ?

A

increase in synaptic use
activate PKC and Calcium modualting kinase
leads to increased intrcellular calcium
leads to second messenger
activate TFs and upregulate proteins- increased receptors on the post synaptic membrane- increased sensitivty to neurotransmitter

85
Q

What are some neurotransmitters that can activate the centrifugal pathway ?

A

glutamtate
enkephalin
glutamate

86
Q

How do opioids work ?

A

GABA inhibits internneurones in the centrifugal pathway

opioids inhibit GABA

87
Q

What do free nerve endings sense ?

A

pain

88
Q

What are the rapidly adapting receptors ?

A

Pacinian
meissners
some hair follicle receptors

89
Q

What are the slowly adapting receptors

A

merkel
ruffini
some hair follicle receptors

90
Q

What is area 1 and 3b ?

A

cutaneous stimuli

91
Q

What is area 2 ?

A

tactile proprioception and touch

92
Q

What is area 3 ?

A

proprioception

93
Q

What does the corticobulbar tract innervate ?

A

V
VII
XII
XI

94
Q

Describe the corticobulbar tract ?

A

bilateral to V and VII- upper face
contralateral to VII- lower face
Contralateral to II,IV and VI from frontal and parietal eye fields
Ipsilateral to XI
bilateral to XII except contralteral to genioglossus

95
Q

Where can you find the secondary somatosensory cortex ?

A

below the PSC

and above the lateral sulcus

96
Q

Where are the lesions present in the people who cant see but can react to objects ?

A

posterior to the LGN and the superior colliculus and PVC

97
Q

What senses balance and where is it ?

A

ampullae

semi circular canals

98
Q

What senses sound ?

A

organ of corti

99
Q

What are the otolith organs and what do they do

A

utricle and the saculale- tilting, changes in gravity and linear acceleration

100
Q

What are the roles of the prefrontal assocaition cortex >

A

integration of motor info

decision making

101
Q

What are the outputs of the supplementary cortex ?

A

corticospinal
corticobulbar
reticular formation
PMC

102
Q

What are the 2 roles of the posterior parietal cortex ?

A

planning

carrying out and modulation of movement

103
Q

What is the basal ganglia loop ?

A
posterior parietal cortex 
basal ganglia 
thalamus 
pre motor
supplementary motor cortex
primary motor cortex
104
Q

What is the cerebellar loop ?

A
posterior parietal cortex
pontine nuclei 
deep cerebellar nuclei
thalamus
premotor
supplementary motor 
primary motorcortex
105
Q

Where does the corticospinal tract originate from ?

A

upper medial part of the PMC

106
Q

What does the posterior parietal cortex do in addition to modification and planning ?

A

produces an internal model of movement

107
Q

What are the roles of the red nucleus and the inferior olive ?

A

adaptation of movements in response to external stimuli

108
Q

What are the roles of the climbing fibres ?

A

control of motor response

109
Q

What structure does huntingtons affect ?

A

globus pallidus exterior

110
Q

What are the structures involve in the reward pathway ?

A
VTA
Hippocampus 
Amygdala 
nucleus accumbens 
prefrontal cortex
111
Q

What are the inputs to the RF ?

A

spinal chord
cerebellum
CN
forebrain

112
Q

What are the functions of the RF ?

A
sleep 
CVS control 
Habituation 
pain modulation 
Somatic motror control- CPGs
113
Q

What happens in REM sleep ?

A

Paralysis of voluntary muscles

active brain

114
Q

What happens in non rapid eye movement sleep ?

A

lowering of body temperature, muscle movement and HR

115
Q

What is a ganglion ?

A

group of cell bodies in the PNS

116
Q

What is a nucleus ?

A

group of cell bodies in the CNS

117
Q

How can you determine the function of a neurone ?

A

neurotransmitter released
reaction to nuerotransmitter
shape

118
Q

What are glial cells ?

A

neuronal cells that dont carry impulses

119
Q

What are oligodendrocytes ?

A

myelinate several axons in the CNS

120
Q

What are schwann cells ?

A

myelinate single axons in the PNS

121
Q

What is the origin of mesoderm ?

A

mesenchyme

122
Q

What are the methods of visualising neurones ?

A

silver impregnation method

santiago ramon y cajal

123
Q

How does the silver impregnation method work ?

A

only 1% of cells in isolation can be seen

124
Q

How does santiago work ?

A

can see discrete neurones

subcellular organisations

125
Q

What are dendrites ?

A

receive and process information from cells that synapse with them
act as neural integrators

126
Q

What is known as the mater integrator ?

A

cerebellar purkinje cells

127
Q

What are the cerebral cortex and hippocampus composed of ?

A

pyramidal cells

128
Q

What is the composition of myelin ?

A

70-80% lipids

20% protein

129
Q

What are the connections between axon terminals and axons ?

A

axoaxonic- axon terminal and axon
axosomatic- axon terminal and cell body
axodendritic- axon terminal and dendrites

130
Q

What are the small process on axons ?

A

terminal boutons

boutons en passant

131
Q

What are the types of axonal transport ?

A

fast anterograde
slow anterograde
fast retrrograde

132
Q

What is fast anterograde transport ?

A

between the cell body and axon terminals
transport organelles , synaptic vesicles and neurotrnasmitters
use kinesins and microtubules

133
Q

What is slow anterograde transport ?

A

moves soluble substances to the axon terminal

134
Q

What is fast retrograde ?

A

axon terminal to cell body
dyneins
return matter to the cell bod for the building of new constituents

135
Q

What is passive propagation ?

A

static membrane characteristics

properties dont change in signalling

136
Q

What is active propagation ?

A

active electrical propertis that change with signalling

137
Q

What is the absolute refractory period ?

A

second AP cant be triggered no matter how big the stimulus is

138
Q

What is the relative refractory period ?

A

suprathreshold stimulus can trigger AP

139
Q

What is important about the Refractory period ?

A

determines the direction of action potential as sodium channels are closed on one side

140
Q

Which axons have the greatest conductance velocity ?

A

large myelinated

141
Q

What are electrical synapses ?

A

fastest synapse
no chemical transduction
bi directional

142
Q

Which cells have electrical synapses ?

A

cardiomyocytes

143
Q

What are chemical synapses ?

A

neurotransmittere
rely on chemical transduction
unidirectional

144
Q

What are gap jucntions ?

A

protein pores between 2 adjacent cells
made of connexon
no contact with the ECF

145
Q

What are ionotropic receptors ?

A

directly linked to ion channels

faster

146
Q

What are metabotropic receptors ?

A

GPcr that rely on a second messenger

147
Q

What is the active zone ?

A

the site of neurotransmitter release

148
Q

What are the 2 types of SNARE proteins ?

A

V snare and T snare

149
Q

What are V snare proteins ?

A

vesicle membrane proteins - used in docking
leads to calcium induced exocyosis
clathirin induced endocytosis

150
Q

What are T snare proteins ?

A

target membrane proteins

voltage gated calcium channels trigger release

151
Q

What is the difference between an AP and an EPSP ?

A

AP is non decremental and EPSP is

AP is all or non v rest to 30 and EPSP is v rest to threshold

152
Q

What are IPSPs?

A

inhibitory ion channels that use GABA
lead to passage of chloride and hyperpolariation
difficult to generate an AP

153
Q

What are the divisions of the diencephalon ?

A

thalamus

hypothalamus

154
Q

What are the steps in neuralation ?

A
Ectoderm thickens to form neural plate
Lateral margins elevate to form the neural crests
neural groove 
margins fuse to form the neural tube 
cranial and caudal neurpores
155
Q

What is anenecephaly ?

A

failure of cranial neuropores to fuse

156
Q

What is spina bifida ?

A

failure of the caudal neurpores to close

157
Q

What are the derivatives of CNCs

A
Adrenal medlla 
odontoblasts 
parafollicualr cells of thyroid 
autonomic ganglia 
melanocytes
158
Q

What is the origin of microglia ?

A

mesodermal

haemaotpoietic stem cell

159
Q

Where is brocas area ?

A

inferior frontal gyrus

160
Q

What are the causes of stroke ?

A

85% - ischarmia

15% haemorrhage

161
Q

What are the branches of the internal carotid artery ?

A

Anterior choroidal
anterior and middle cerebral
anterior and posterior comunicating
opthalmic

162
Q

What are the branches of the vertebral artery ?

A

anterior and posteiror spinal
posterior inferior cerebellar
medullary branches

163
Q

What are the branches of the basillar artery ?

A

superior cerebellar
posterior cerebral
anterior inferior cerbelalr
pontine

164
Q

What is the pattern of CSF flow ?

A
lateral ventricles 
interventricular fo
third ventricles 
cerebral aqueduct 
4th ventricles 
median and lateral apertures 
subarachnoid space 
arachnoid villi 
superior sagittal sinus
165
Q

What are the roles of the CSF ?

A

cushioning
stable ionic environment
float
get rid of wastes

166
Q

What does the right side of the brain control ?

A

left side of the body

167
Q

What is TACS ?

A

main artery to a hemisphere damgaed

left hemipshrer affected- right MCA affected - right hemipiaresis

168
Q

What is locked in syndrome

A

basillar artery affected
ascending and descending pathways gone
hemiplegia, sensory neglect and loss

169
Q

DRAK

A

dyneins- retrograde

kinesins- anterograde

170
Q

What is the equivalent of A-alpha fibres

A

1a and 1b

171
Q

What is the equivalent of A-beta fibres ?

A

II

172
Q

What is the equivalent of a-delta fibres ?

A

III

173
Q

What is the equivalent of C fibres ?

A

IV

174
Q

What are the modalities carried by the DCML ?

A

fine touch
pressure
vibration
proprioception

175
Q

How is synaptic strength altered ?

A

increased use of AMPA and NMDA receptors
activate PKC and calcium calmodulating kinase
increase calcium
acts as a second messenger
activates TFs
upregualtes proteins- insert on post synaptic membrane
increased sensitivity

176
Q

What is the pain and temperature system in the trigeminothalamic system ?

A

enter pons through trigeminal ganglion
small myelinated and unmyelinated descend to synapse in the spinotrigeminal complex in medulla
2nd order neurones synapse in ventral posterior medial nucleus of the thalamus
3rd order to the primary somatosensory cortex

177
Q

What are nociceptors and where are they found ?

A

free nerve endings

skin joints and bone

178
Q

What are A-delta and C fibres stimulated by

A

A-delta stimulated by mechanical stimuli

C fibres stimulated by chemical and mechanical stimuli

179
Q

What is the gate control theory of pain ?

A

non painful input closes gates to painful input

prevent sensation to the CNS

180
Q

What is muscle spindle length controlled by ?

A

gamma motoneurones

181
Q

What does the myotactic reflex do ?

A

excites flexor

inhibit extensor

182
Q

What is the inverse reflex ?

A

inhibit muscle
activate antagonist
slower- extra synapse- inhibitory internerurone

183
Q

What is the stimuli for withdrawal reflex ?

A

type III afferents- pain

184
Q

What do hair follicle receptors detect ?

A

motion and direction

185
Q

What do meissners corpuscles detect ?

A

tap flutter

186
Q

What do merkel cells detect ?

A

touch

187
Q

What do ruffini corpuscles detect ?

A

skin stretch

188
Q

What is nucleus ambiguus ?

A

IX
X
XI
muscles of the pharynx, larynx and the doft palate

189
Q

What is the nucleus of the solitary tract ?

A

VII
IX and X
tongue and epiglottis

190
Q

What does serotonin do ?

A

released from raphe nucleus

desends to the spinal chord acts on inhibitory interneurons in laminae II

191
Q

What does enkephalin do ?

A

acts on opioid receptors in centrifugal pathway

192
Q

What is the jaw jerk reflex ?

A

muscle spindle to mesencephalic of V
to motor of V
masseter

193
Q

What does the jaw unloading reflex do ?

A

golgi

inhibit contraction- stop teeth crashing together

194
Q

Where are the cell bodies of cochlear nerve ?

A

spiral ganglion

195
Q

What do vibrations on the tympanic membrane do ?

A
vibration of the stapes on the oval window 
waves in the cochlea- fluid movement 
vibration in the basilar membrane 
rubs off tectorial membrane 
K channels open 
influx of K 
trigger Ca - vesicle movement
196
Q

Where do 2nd order neurones in the cochlear nucleus go to

A

MGN via the inferior colliculus

197
Q

Where does the vestibular pathway go ?

A

medial longitudinal fasciulus

198
Q

Chewing is initiated by ?

A

voluntary control
reflex activity
rhyhtmical signals to the masticatory muscles

199
Q

Where is the CPG ?

A

pontine reticular nucleus

200
Q

What is the process of mastication ?

A

food taken in
rhythmic mastication initiated
receptors in oral cavity feedback about hardness
to the motor nucleus of V and CPG

201
Q

What does the CPG activate ?

A

premotoneurones

motor nucleus of V

202
Q

What does the motor nucleus of V do ?

A

send rhythmical signals to mastication muscles

203
Q

Where does feedback from the bolus go to ?

A

motor nucleus of V

Reticular formation

204
Q

What is the limbic system ?

A

anterior cingualte cortex
amygdala
hippocampus
hypothalamus

205
Q

What is the function of the hypothalamus ?

A

endocrine
sexual
homeostasis

206
Q

What are the functions of the amygdala ?

A

reward
fear
emotional learning

207
Q

What are the structures of the reward system ?

A
VTA
prefrontal cortex
amygdala
hippocampus
nucleus accumbens