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BDS Stage 1 > Anatomy theme 8 > Flashcards

Anatomy theme 8 Flashcards

1
Q

What does the external ear consist of ?

A

auricle , ext. auditory meatus and tympanic membrane

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2
Q

What does the middle ear consist of ?

A

ossicles and the muscles (stapedius and tensor tympani)

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3
Q

What is the epitympanic recess ?

A

small part of of the inner ear extends above the tympanic membrane as the epitympanic recess

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4
Q

Where is the tensor tympani muscle ?

A

in part of the pharyngotympanic tube

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5
Q

What are the ossicles ?

A

malleus , incus and stapes

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6
Q

Where is the inner ear found ?

A

medial to the tympanic cavity in the petrous temporal bone

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7
Q

What is the embryonic derivation of the tubotympanic recess ?

A

1st pouch

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8
Q

What is the embryonic derivation of malleus and incus ?

A

meckels cartilage - 1st pharyngeal, arch

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9
Q

What is the embryonic derivation of stapes ?

A

reicherts bar - 2nd pharyngeal arch

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10
Q

What are the 4 parts of the temporal bone ?

A

petromastoid part
squamous part
tympanic ring
styloid process

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11
Q

What is contained in the petromastoid portion ?

A

middle and inner ear

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12
Q

Where is the tympanic ring ?

A

the external part of the ext.auditory tibe

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13
Q

What are the formaina in the temporal bone ?

A 
jugular fo
carotid canal 
stylomastoid fo 
internal auditory meatus 
greater and lesser petrosal hiatus
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14
Q

What are the 4 walls of the middle ear ?

A

anterior
posterior
lateral
medial

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15
Q

What are the 2 openings on the anterior wall ?

A

pharyngotympanic tube - bigger

opening for the tensor tympani

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16
Q

What are the features of the medial wall of middle ear ?

A

promantory - formed from the undelrying cochlea
round window
oval window

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17
Q

Which opening is occupied by the footplate of the stapes ?

A 
oval window 
(fenestra vestibuli)
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18
Q

What are the features of the posterior wall of the middle ear ?

A

the pyramid - contains the stapedius - attached the Stapes

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19
Q

What are the features of the lateral wall of the middle ear ?

A

tympanic membrane and the epitympanic recess

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20
Q

What are the features of the malleus ?

A

Consists of a round head in the epitympanic recess
long process in the tympanic membrane
facet for the incus

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21
Q

Where does the tensor tympani insert ?

A

into the long process (manubrium) of the malleus

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22
Q

What are the features of the incus ?

A

long process
short process
facets for malleus and incus

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23
Q

What are the features of the stapes ?

A

head - facet for the incus

arch and flat oval base which occupies the oval window

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24
Q

Where does the stapedius muscle insert ?

A

tendon for the stapedius muscle inserts into the neck of the stapes

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25
Q

How do the ossicles enable us to hear ?

A

sound is funneled by the auricle and the external auditory meatus.
increases air pressure over the tympanic membrane
manubrium moves medially
head moves in antero-posterior direction
base of stapes pushes on the oval window

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26
Q

What are the functions of the ossicles ?

A

act as an impedance matching device
apply pressure to the oval window
work in a lever action
protect against loud sounds

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27
Q

What are the functions of tensor tympani and stapedius ?

A

modulate the frequency response

protect against loud sounds

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28
Q

The facial nerve leaves the brainstem as which 2 branches ?

A

nervus intermedius

motor root

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29
Q

How do the 2 roots enter the skull ?

A

they fuse and enter the petrous temporal bone through the internal auditory meatus

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30
Q

What does the facial nerve do in the petrous temporal bone ?

A

it travels in the facial canal

and bends at the epitympanic recess to give the geniculate ganglion

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31
Q

What are the branches of the geniculate ganglion ?

A

greater petrosal nerve

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32
Q

What does the greater petrosal nerve do ?

A

contains parasympathetic secretomotor axons to the pterygopalatine ganglion

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33
Q

What does the pterygopalatine ganglion supply ?

A

nasal lacrimal and palatine mucous glands

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34
Q

What does the greater petrosal nerve do ?

A

travels in the hiatus of the greater petrosal nerve and joins the deep petrosal nerve to form the nerve of the pterygoid canal which enters the pterygopalatine fossa

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35
Q

What is the deep petrosal nerve a branch of ?

A

the superior cervical ganglion

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36
Q

What is the lesser petrosal nerve a branch of ?

A

glossopharyngeal

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37
Q

What does the lesser petrosal nerve do ?

A

joined by the tympanic branch of the IX to supply parasympathetic secretomotor axons to the parotid gland

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38
Q

What joins the lesser petrosal nerve at the tympanic plexus ?

A

a small branch from the geniculate ganglion joins the LPN at the promantory

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39
Q

How does the lesser petrosal nerve travel ?

A

in the petrous temporal bone and emerges at the hiatus of the lesser petrosal nerve to enter the FO.Ovale to provide preganglionic axons to the otic ganglion

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40
Q

Where does the nerve to stapedius emerge ?

A

arises distal to the geniculate ganglion and travels to stapedius

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41
Q

Where is the chorda tympani given off ?

A

in the petrous temporal bone

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42
Q

Where does the chorda tympani pass ?

A

over the tympanic membrane and ossicles to the infratemporal fossa
joins the lingual nerve

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43
Q

How does the chorda tympani enter the infratemporal fossa ?

A

through the petrotympanic fissure

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44
Q

What does the chorda tympani contain ?

A

parasympathetic preganglionic secretomotor axons to the submandibular ganglion
taste fibres for the anterior two thirds of the tongue

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45
Q

Where does the facial nerve emerge from the skull ?

A

the stylomastoid foramen

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46
Q

What branches does the facial nerve give off before passing into the parotid gland ?

A

branches to Post. Digastric and Stylohyoid

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47
Q

What does the facial nerve do in the parotid gland ?

A

gives off the temporal , zygomatic , buccal , mandibular and cervical branches to the muscles of facial expression

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48
Q

What does the inner ear do ?

A

concerned with reception of sound and balance

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49
Q

Where is the inner ear found ?

A

medial to the middle ear in the petrous temporal bone

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50
Q

What does the inner ear consist of ?

A

bony (osseous) labyrinth and a membranous labyrinth

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51
Q

What is the bony labyrinth ?

A

an interconnecting system of twisted canals filled with peri-lymph

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52
Q

What does the bony labyrinth do ?

A

consists of the vestibule , cochlea and the semilunar canals

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53
Q

What does the vestibule do ?

A

communicates with the round and oval windows

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54
Q

What is the cochlea ?

A

hearing organ

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55
Q

What are the semi-lunar canals ?

A

anterior , posterior and lateral

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56
Q

What is the membranous labyrinth ?

A

suspended in peri-lymph

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57
Q

What is the superior margin of the orbit made of ?

A

orbital plate of the frontal bone

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58
Q

What are the lateral margins of the orbit made of ?

A

zygomatic bone

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59
Q

What are the inferior margins of the orbit made of ?

A

zygomatic bone and maxilla

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60
Q

What are the medial margins of the orbit made of ?

A

frontal process of the maxilla and posteriorly the lacrimal bone

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61
Q

Which bone is the optic canal in ?

A

lesser wing of sphenoid

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62
Q

What does the optic canal transmit ?

A

optic nerve and the opthalmic artery

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63
Q

What is the superior orbital fissure ?

A

a cleft between the greater and lesser wings of sphenoid

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64
Q

What structures are transmitted by the superior orbital fissure ?

A 
lacrimal nerve 
frontal nerve 
trochlear nerve 
superior oculomotor 
nasociliary 
inferior oculomotor 
abducent
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65
Q

What is the inferior orbital fissure a cleft between ?

A

the greater wing of sphenoid

maxilla

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66
Q

What does the inferior orbital fissure transmit ?

A

opthalmic vein

orbital branch of the middle meningeal

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67
Q

What do the anterior and posterior ethmoidal foramina do ?

A

transmit the anterior and posterior ethmoidal nerves to the ethmoidal air sinuses

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68
Q

What are the attachments of levator palpebrae superioris ?

A

attaches to the roof of the orbit and the skin of the upper eyelid

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69
Q

What is the action of LPS ?

A

elevation of the upper eyelid

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70
Q

What muscle opposes the action of LPS ?

A

orbicularis oculi

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71
Q

What is the innervation of LPS ?

A

oculomotor

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72
Q

What are the attachments of superior rectus ?

A

arises from the tendinous ring and and inserts into the superior aspect of the eyeball

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73
Q

What are the actions of superior rectus ?

A

elevation
adduction
inward rotation at extreme adduction

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74
Q

What is the innervation of superior rectus ?

A

oculomotor

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75
Q

What are the attachments of inferior rectus ?

A

Arises from the tendinous ring and inserts into the posteroinferior aspect of the eyeball

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76
Q

What are the actions of inferior rectus ?

A

depression
adduction - towards the midline
outward rotation at extreme adduction

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77
Q

What is the innervation of inferior rectus ?

A

oculomotor

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78
Q

What are the attachments of lateral rectus ?

A

Arises from the tendinous ring and inserts into the lateral aspect of the eyeball

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79
Q

What are the actions of lateral rectus ?

A

abduction - away from the midline

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80
Q

What is the innervation of lateral rectus ?

A

abducens

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81
Q

What is the attachments of superior oblique ?

A

Doesn’t arise from the common tendinous ring - comes from a tendon above the common tendinous ring
passes through the trochlea
inserts into superoposterolateral aspect of eyeball

82
Q

What are the actions of superior oblique ?

A

depression
abduction
inward rotation at extreme abduction

83
Q

What is the innervation of superior oblique ?

A

trochlear

84
Q

What are the attachments of inferior oblique ?

A

arises from the floor of the orbit and inserts into the psoteroinferolateral aspect of they eyeball

85
Q

What are the actions of inferior oblique ?

A

elevation
abduction
outward rotation at extreme abduction

86
Q

What is the innervation of inferior oblique ?

A

oculomotor

87
Q

What are the 3 terminal branches of the opthalmic divsion of the trigeminal ?

A

nasociliary
lacrimal
frontal

88
Q

What does the lacrimal nerve do ?

A

passes to the lateral wall of the orbit and picks up postsynaptic fibres from the pterygopalatine ganglion and the zygomatic nerve.
goes to the lacrimal gland

89
Q

What does the frontal nerve do ?

A

It lies on LPS and divides into the supraorbital and the supratrochlear nerves

90
Q

How does the nasociliary nerve pass ?

A

passes anteromedially

91
Q

What are the branches of the nasociliary nerve ?

A 
ganglionic branches 
long ciliary nerve 
posterior ethmoidal nerve 
infratrochlear nerve 
anterior ethmoidal nerve
92
Q

What are the terminal branches of the nasociliairy nerve ?

A

infratrochlear and anterior ethmoidal nerves

93
Q

What does the anterior ethmoidal nerve do ?

A

supply the anterior ethmoidal cells

emerges as the external nasal nerve

94
Q

What are the 3 coats of the eyeball ?

A

fibrous coat
vascular coat
neural coat

95
Q

What does the fibrous coat consist of ?

A

sclera and the cornea

96
Q

What does the vascular coat consist of ?

A

choroid- venous/arterial
ciliary body- suspends the lens via the suspensory ligament and contains the ciliary muscle
iris

97
Q

What are the muscles found in the irris ?

A

constrictor pupillae

dilator pupillae

98
Q

What is the innervation of the constrictor pupillae ?

A

parasympathetic fibres of Oculomotor - from ciliary ganglion

99
Q

What is the innervation of dilator pupillae ?

A

sympathetic fibres

100
Q

What does the neural coat consist of ?

A

nervous layer - macula

101
Q

What is the lacrimal gland ?

A

a serous gland wrapped around the free border of the LPS creating 2 lobes

102
Q

How do tears wash over the eyelid and where do they go ?

A

tears drain medially and into the lacrimal sac and then the nasolacrimal duct and the inferior meatus

103
Q

Where does the parasympathetic supply to the lacrimal gland come from ?

A

from the pterygopalatine ganglion
the greater petrosal nerve and the deep petrosal nerve fuse to form the nerve of the pterygoid canal. Postganglionuc fibres enter the orbit though the inferior orbital fissure as the zygomatic nerve

104
Q

Where does the zygomatic nerve pass ?

A

through the inferior orbital fissure

105
Q

What does the ciliary ganglion do ?

A

provides innervation to the dilator and constrictor pupillae

106
Q

What is the parasympathetic root of the ciliary ganglion ?

A

from the oculomotor nerve to the constrictor pupillae

107
Q

What is the sympathetic root of the ciliary ganglion ?

A

arises from the internal carotid and opthalmic artery plexus and supplies the dilator pupilale muscle

108
Q

What is the sensory root of the ciliary ganglion ?

A

from the nasociliary nerve and the iris and the cornea and the long ciliary nerves

109
Q

What are the branches of distribution of the ciliary ganglion ?

A

short ciliary nerves

110
Q

What is intramembranous ossification ?

A

mesoderm to bone

111
Q

What is endochondral ossification ?

A

cartilage to bone

112
Q

How does the cranial vault form ?

A

intramembraneous ossification

113
Q

How does the cranial base form ?

A

endochondral ossification

114
Q

What is the boundary between the anterior and middle cranial fossa ?

A

lesser wings of sphenoid
anterior clinoid processes
jugum sphenoidale

115
Q

What are the boundary between the middle and posterior cranial fossae ?

A

superior border of the petrous temporal bone
posterior clinoid processes
dorsum sellae

116
Q

What are the features of the anterior cranial fossa ?

A

crista galli
cribriform plate
orbital plate of frontal bone

117
Q

What are the features of the middle cranial fossa ?

A 
Jugum sphenoidale 
sella turcica 
pituitary fossa 
optic canal 
Fo. Lacerum 
Superior orbital fissure 
Fo.Rotundum 
Fo. Ovale 
Fo.Spinosum 
Hiatus for the greater and lesser petrosal nerves
118
Q

What are the features of the posterior clinoid fossa ?

A 
Clivus 
Fo. Magnum 
Hypoglossal canal 
jugular Fo
Internal auditory meatus 
Internal occipital protuberance
119
Q

Which cranial nerves emerge in the anterior cranial fossa ?

A

olfactory

120
Q

Which cranial nerves emerge in the middle cranial fossa ?

A 
optic 
oculomotor 
trochlear 
trigeminal 
abducens
121
Q

Which cranial nerves emerge from the posterior cranial fossa ?

A 
Facial 
vestibulocochlear 
glossopharyngeal 
vagus 
spinal accessory 
hypoglossal
122
Q

What are the 3 layers of the meninges ?

A

dura mater
arachnoid mater
pia mater

123
Q

What are the 4 parts of the dura mater ?

A

falx cerebri
falx cerebelli
diaphragma sella
tentorium cerebelli

124
Q

What does the falx cerebri do ?

A

hangs down into the cranial cavity and separates the 2 cerebral hemispheres

125
Q

What does the falx cerebelli do ?

A

separates the right and left cerebellar hemispheres

126
Q

What is the diaphragma sellae do ?

A

a small fold between the anterior and posterior clinoid processes

127
Q

What are the 2 spaces between the meningeal layers ?

A

extradural space

subarachnoid space

128
Q

What is the extradural space ?

A

space between the dura and the bone

129
Q

What is the subarachnoid space ?

A

below the arachnoid mater and is filled with CSF

130
Q

Do venous sinuses contain valves?

A

no

131
Q

What do the dural venous sinuses do ?

A

drain blood from the brain into the internal jugular vein and the jugualr foramen

132
Q

What does the superior sagittal sinus drain into ?

A

the confluence

133
Q

What does the inferior sagittal sinus do ?

A

turns into the straight sinus as it approaches the tentorium cerebelli

134
Q

What is the transverse sinus ?

A

passes laterally from the confluence and becomes the sigmoid sinus as it passes to the petrous temporal bone

135
Q

What is the sigmoid sinus ?

A

continues medially from the petrous ridge to the jugular fo. All blood drains into the sigmoid sinus

136
Q

What are the cavernous sinuses ?

A

lie in the body of the sphenoid on either side of the sella tursica - draineed by the superior and inferior petrosal sinuses

137
Q

What does the superior petrosal sinus do ?

A

drains into the cavernous sinus

138
Q

What does the inferior petrosal sinus do ?

A

drains directly into the internal jugular vein

139
Q

What is the arterial supply of the brain ?

A

vertebral and the internal carotid arteries

140
Q

How does the internal carotid artery enter the posterior cranial fossa ?

A

through the carotid canal

141
Q

How does the vertebral artery enter the posterior cranial fossa ?

A

foramen magnum

142
Q

What are the structural buttresses of the skull ?

A

ares of bone that are the most structurally stable and are the least likely to break

143
Q

What does the buttress system do ?

A

absorbs and transmits forces applied to the facial skeleton to protect fragile bony areas

144
Q

What does the CSF do ?

A

supports the brain and absorbs the energy of impact

145
Q

What do the dural reflections do ?

A

support the brain and transmit the wieght of the rbain to the skull

146
Q

What do the dural venous sinuses do ?

A

involved in temperature regulation by cooling arterial blood and protects against transient changes in venous pressure

147
Q

What are the 4 types of haemorrhages ?

A

extradural
subarachnoid
subdural
intracerebral

148
Q

What are extradural haemorrhages ?

A

between the dura mater and the bone - rupturing of the middle meningeal artery

149
Q

What are subdural haemorrhages ?

A

bleeding into the subdural space - rupturing of the superior cerebral veins

150
Q

What are subarachnoid haemorrhages ?

A

bleeding into the subarachnoid space such as aneurysms and angiomas

151
Q

What are intracerebral haemorrhages ?

A

bleeding into the brain itself - eg . middle cerebral artery

152
Q

What are typical routes of infection spread ?

A

tissue planes
venous
lymphatic
direct erosion

153
Q

What are some of the spaces that infection either intraoral or extraoral can spread to from a 3rd man molar ?

A 
sublingual space 
submental space 
submandibular space 
pterygomandibular space 
peritonsillar space 
parotid space
154
Q

Describe the route of infection spread from a 3rd mandibular molar ?

A

periapical abcess - in the roots of molar
breaks through on the lingual side
enters the sublingual space
spread backward - ludwigs angina

155
Q

What can infections erode ?

A

basiocciput

enter the mediastinum

156
Q

What is the second route of infection spread ?

A

from submandibular space
into lateral pharyngeal space
retropharyngeal space

157
Q

What are the severe consequences of infection if left untreated ?

A

airways obstruction
intracranial spread
septicaemia

158
Q

Describe a route of infection spread from the cavernous sinus ?

A

from the cavernous sinus into the emissary veins and the into the infraorbital vein into the facial vein

159
Q

Describe a second route of infection from the cavernous sinus ?

A

from the cavernous sinus into the pterygoid plexus of veins and into the RM vein

160
Q

What bones does the orbital plate of the zygomatic bone articulate with ?

A

frontal bone
zygomatic process of the temporal bone
maxilla
greater wing of sphenoid

161
Q

Name the foramina located in the greater wing of sphenoid ?

A

foramen ovale , rotundum and spinosum

162
Q

What bones does the maxilla articulate with ?

A 
zygomatic bone 
palatine bone 
ethmoid bone 
inferior concha 
frontal bone 
lacrimal bone 
nasal bone
163
Q

Which extraocular muscles dont arise from the common tendinous ring ?

A

LPS and superior oblique

164
Q

Why does swallowing help reduce pressure difference?

A

pain develops on either side of the tympanic membrane
swallowing is accompanied by contraction of salpingopharyngeus
this opens the auditory tube
equalises the pressure on either side of the tympanic membrane

165
Q

What are the functions of the mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve ?

A 
motor to the muscles of mastication 
tensor veli palatini 
tensor tympani 
anterior belly of digastric 
mylohyoid.
Sensory to the skin over the cheek and parotid gland and the lingual gingivae
166
Q

What does the superior sagittal sinus drain into ?

A

transverse sinus and the confluence of sinuses

167
Q

Where is the cavernous sinus located ?

A

in a groove in the body of sphenoid

168
Q

What artery passes medial to the cavernous sinus ?

A

internal carotid artery

169
Q

Which cranial nerves run close to the internal carotid artery ?

A 
oculomotor 
abducens 
opthalmic 
maxillary 
trochlear
170
Q

What would damage to the facial nerve cause ?

A

facial paralysis
loss of taste sensation in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue
loss of the stapedius relfex
loss of lacrimal gland secretion

171
Q

Between which meningeal layers does CSF flow ?

A

between the arachnoid and the pia mater

172
Q

What are the roles of the CSF ?

A

transmit some of the weight of the brain to the skull

shock absorber

173
Q

What do the posterior ethmoidal air cells drain into ?

A

superior meatus

174
Q

Where does the frontal sinus drain into ?

A

superior meatus

175
Q

What blood vessels does the superior orbital fissure transmit ?

A

orbital branch of the middle meningeal

superior opthalmic vein

176
Q

What are the boundaries between the anterior and middle cranial fossa ?

A

lesser wings of sphenoid
anterior clinoid prcoesses
jugum sphenoidale

177
Q

What are the boundaries between the middle and posterior cranial fossa ?

A

superior borders of the petrous ridge
posterior clinoid processes
dorsum sellae

178
Q

What bones forms the floor of the middle cranial fossa ?

A

temporal and sphenoid

179
Q

What is medial to the cavernous sinus ?

A

internal carootid artery

abducnets

180
Q

What is lateral to the cavernous sinus ?

A

oculomotor
trochlear
opthalmic
v2

181
Q

What is superior to the tentorium cerebelli ?

A

occipital lobe

cerebellum

182
Q

What is inferior to the tentorium cerebelli ?

A

brainstem

183
Q

What are the 4 types of intracranial haemorrhage ?

A

extra dural
sub dural
sub arachnoid
intra cerebral

184
Q

What forms the superior margin of the orbit ?

A

orbital plate of the frontal bone

lesser win og sphenoid

185
Q

What forms the inferior margin of the orbit ?

A

orbital plate of the maxilla
zygomatic bone
small part of paaltine bone

186
Q

What forms the medial margin of the orbit ?

A

lacrimal bone
ethmoid bone
body of sphenoid

187
Q

What is the posterior wall of the orbit made from ?

A

body and greater wing of sphenoid

188
Q

What is the action of LPS ?

A

closes the upper eyelid

189
Q

What is the action of superior rectus ?

A

Elevation
adduction
inward rotation at extreme adduction

190
Q

What is the action of inferior oblique ?

A

Elevation
abduction
outward rotation at extreme abduction

191
Q

What is the action of superior oblique ?

A

depression
abduction
inward rotation at extreme abduction

192
Q

What is the action of superior oblique ?

A

depression
abduction
inward rotation at extreme abduction

193
Q

What is the action of laterla rectus ?

A

abduction

194
Q

What is the action of superior rectus ?

A

elevation
adduction
inward rotation at extreme adduction

195
Q

What is the action of inferior rectus ?

A

deprssion
adduction
outward rotation at extreme adduction

196
Q

Which of the branches of V1 is medial ?

A

nasocilairy

197
Q

Obliques tend to ?

A

abduct

198
Q

Rectuses tend to ?

A

adduct except LR- abduction

199
Q

How can infection spread to the cranium from a maxillary canine ?

A

erode maxilla
superior opthalmic vein
cavernous sinus

200
Q

What do the parasympathetic postganglionic axons of the ciliairy ganglion supply ?

A

constrictor pupillae

ciliary muscle- alter the shape of the lens

BDS Stage 1 (39 decks)

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