Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CPT > musculoskeletal physiology > Flashcards

musculoskeletal physiology Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
NASM ® CPT flashcards
1
Q

organic components in bone

A

collagen, mineral elements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

bone includes ___% of calcium storage in the body

A

98

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

bones have vascular structures; they can

A

heal themselves, dynamic, changing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

component of bone: ___% calcium

A

37

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

component of bone: ___% phosphate

A

17

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

component of bone: ___% carbonate

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

component of bone: ___% collagen

A

33

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

component of bone: ___% potassium

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

component of bone: ___% sodium

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

component of bone: ___% magnesium

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

when daily calcium intake is insufficient, calcium stores are compromised and ____ declines over time

A

bone mineral density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

low BMD leads to

A

osteopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

if osteopenia is untreated, it leads to

A

osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

osteoporosis

A

bone disease which causes skeletal structures to become brittle and fragile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

osteoporosis can lead to

A

fractures, disability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

2 segments of skeleton

A

axial, appendicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

axial skeleton

A

skull, hyoid, vertebral column, rib cage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

appendicular skeleton

A

limbs and respective girdles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

bone length increases until

A

cartilage is ossified in the epiphyseal plates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

peak bone mass is attained at age

A

18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

epiphyseal plate

A

transverse cartilage plates located near the end of long bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

epiphyseal plates are responsible for

A

increases in vertical growth during childhood/adolescence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

long bones

A

arms and legs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

short bones

A

hands and feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

irregular bones

A

vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

flat bones

A

scapula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

BMD can be improved until age

A

30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

___, ___, ___ factors dictate the rate of decline of BMD; ____ is a key indicator

A

genetics, behavior, lifestyle
muscle strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

is there supporting evidence that weightlifting is dangerous to children

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

bone stress during play (jumping/landing) indicates ___ stress when compared to controlled weightlifting performed with 10RM resistance

A

greater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

intersection of two bones

A

joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

3 major types of joints

A

fibroid, cartilaginous, synovial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

synovial joint

A

uses synovial fluid to reduce frictional stresses and allow for considerable movement between the associated articulating bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

joints of the appendicular skeleton are mostly _____

A

synovial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

plane joint

A

allows bones to slide past eachother

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

plane joint examples

A

midcarpal, midtarsal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

pivot joint

A

allows rotation around an address

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

pivot joints are found in

A

neck and forearm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

hinge joint

A

allows extension and retraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

hinge joints are found in the

A

knees, elbows, fingers, toes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

condyloid joint

A

similar to ball and socket, less movement

42
Q

the ___ is a condyloid joint

A

wrist

43
Q

saddle joint

A

movement back and forth and up and down

44
Q

only saddle joint in the body

A

thumb

45
Q

ball and socket joint

A

radical movement in almost any direction

46
Q

ball and socket joints are found in the

A

shoulders and hips

47
Q

ligaments and tendons assisting providing

A

structural support to strengthen joints

48
Q

ligament

A

support internal organes, holds bone to bone

49
Q

tendon

A

muscle to bone

50
Q

3 types of muscle tissue

A

skeletal, cardiac, smooth

51
Q

muscle fascia

A

fibrous CT that encapsulates full muscles as well as bundles of fibers

52
Q

provide muscle shape and regulates tension/transfer of force across joint

A

muscle fascia

53
Q

nerve information is carried via

A

action potential

54
Q

action potential

A

wave-like electrical charge in a cell membrane that signals the cascade of events leading to a muscular contraction

55
Q

action potential current travels to

A

motor neurons, connect to specific fibers

56
Q

motor unit

A

motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates

57
Q

sliding filament theory: an action potential travels down ____ to stimulate the ____ to release calcium ions, which unlocks the bond between actin and troponin

A

t tubules
sarcoplasmic reticulum

58
Q

sliding filament theory: when troponin is moved due to calcium activity, ___ can attach to ___ forming a cross bridge via its myosin head

A

myosin, actin

59
Q

ATP is split at the ____ attachment site, which releases energy and allows the ___ head to pull the ___ to shorten/contract the muscle fiber

A

myosin-actin
myosin
actin

60
Q

a muscle fiber is either in a state of producing max tension or not producing any tension

A

all or none principle

61
Q

two types of motor unit firing patterns

A

synchronized, asynchronous

62
Q

synchronized firing

A

employed during high-output demands involving fast-twitch fibers and warranting significant fiber recruitment

63
Q

asynchronous firing

A

employed during endurance activities involving slow-twitch fibers which conserve motor unit potential, allowing prolonged work

64
Q

agonist-antagonist relationships help facilitate

A

smooth force production

65
Q

agonist-antagonist relationship

A

one muscle contracts while the muscle on the opposite side of the joint relaxes

66
Q

agonist

A

muscle that contracts/shortens during a given exercise

67
Q

antagonist

A

muscle that relaxes and lengthens during a given exercise to accommodate contraction of the agonist

68
Q

isotonic

A

tension remains constant while joint angles change

69
Q

concentric

A

occurs during the acceleration phase of a lift as the muscle shortens

70
Q

eccentric

A

occurs during the deceleration phase of a lift as the muscle lengthens

71
Q

isometric

A

tension is created but no joint angle changes

72
Q

isokinetic

A

involves a constant speed of movement

73
Q

type I muscle fiber

A

slow twitch oxidative

74
Q

type I fibers are suited for

A

prolonged aerobic work, highest capillary and mitochondrial densities

75
Q

type IIA fibers

A

fast-twitch, oxidative-glycolytic

76
Q

type IIA fibers posess

A

intermediate power output capabilities

77
Q

type IIA fibers provide support during

A

intense strength.power work and prolongs exercise

78
Q

type IIX fibers

A

fast-twitch glycolytic

79
Q

which fiber has the highest power output

A

IIX

80
Q

type IIX provide support during

A

intense strength/power activities

81
Q

size principle

A

muscle fiber types are recruited sequentially based on their size and force output capacities

82
Q

order of size of muscle fibers

A

type I–>IIA–>IIX

83
Q

postural muscles maintain higher concentrations of type

A

I

84
Q

example of muscle with type I

A

soleus

85
Q

movers tend to have greater type ___ concentration

A

II

86
Q

example of muscle with type II

A

biceps

87
Q

muscles with greater quantities of type II fibers experience greater changes in response to

A

hypertrophy training

88
Q

which of the following is NOT a type of muscle tissue found in the body
a. Rigid muscle
b. Cardiac muscle
c. Smooth muscle
d. Skeletal muscle

A

a

89
Q

Which of the following helps to prevent osteoporosis?
a. Weight-bearing activities
b. Adequate calcium intake
c. Adequate vitamin D intake
d. All of the above

A

d

90
Q

Which of the following is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum to facilitate a muscle fiber contraction?
a. Magnesium
b. Calcium
c. Iron
d. Sodium

A

b

91
Q

Which of the following is the antagonist muscle during a seated leg extension?
a. Quadriceps
b. Calves
c. Hip flexors
d. Hamstrings

A

d

92
Q

Which of the following contraction types occur during the acceleration phase of a given lift and causes joint angle and muscle shortening?
a. Eccentric
b. Isokinetic
c. Isometric
d. Concentric

A

d

93
Q

Which muscle fiber type has the greatest resistance to fatigue?
a. Type I
b. Type IIA
c. Type IIX
d. Type III

A

a

94
Q

Which muscle would have the highest percentage of slow-twitch fibers?
a. Biceps
b. Quadriceps
c. Pectoralis
d. Soleus

A

d

95
Q

bones contain 98% of ___ storage in the body

A

calcium

96
Q

bone length increases until cartilage is ossified in the ____ of long bones

A

epiphyseal plates

97
Q

to increase force production in a muscle motor unit firing rate, ___, and/or synchronicity must be increased

A

recruitment

98
Q

True or False? Ligaments attach muscles to bones while tendons attach bones to bones within a joint.

A

false

99
Q

True or False? Concerns have been raised over weightlifting performed by children due to the potential risk of damage to epiphyseal plates, but there is no clear evidence supporting this theory

A

true

100
Q

True or False? Based on the size principle, type IIA fibers are generally recruited first during an exercise due to their metabolic versatility

A

false

101
Q

Identify at least three types of bones found in the human body

A

long bone
short bone
irregular bone
flat bone

102
Q

identify at least three types of synovial joints in the body

A

plane
pivot
ball and socket
hinge
condyloid

CPT (36 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions