exercise assessments Flashcards

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1
Q

CRF plays a major role in function and correlates strongly to

A

disease and lifespan

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2
Q

CRF tests identify

A

VO2 max

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3
Q

exercise professionals must be able to recognize indicators for test termination during CRF: signs of ___, ____, or ____ disease

A

cardiovascular, metabolic, pulmonary

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4
Q

indications for test termination (9)

A
  • no longer comfortable
  • skin becomes pale
  • fails to keep cadence for 20s+
  • inability to focus
  • faintness, dizziness, lightheaded
  • upset somach or vomiting symptoms
  • dysfunction in breathing
  • chest pain
  • side stitch, cramp, strain, fatigue
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5
Q

5 common CRF assessments

A

1 mile walk
12 min run
1.5 mile run
3 min step test
yo-yo beep test

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6
Q

1 mile walk test is a goof assessment for

A

novice, older, or significantly deconditioned clients

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7
Q

1 mile walk test equipment

A

1 mile course, stopwatch

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8
Q

1 mile walk test

A

client walks as quickly as possible for 1 mile
the trainer must immediately assess and record their heart rte at the finish line for use in equation

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9
Q

12 minute run test is a good assessment for

A

clients demonstrating higher CRF

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10
Q

12 min run test equipment

A

measured track, stopwatch

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11
Q

12 min run test

A

on a measured track, the client runs as quickly as possible for 12 mins; periods of walking and jogging are acceptable if the overall exertion is maximal
the trainer identifies the total distance covered in 12 mins

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12
Q

12 min distance (miles): <1
VO2 max:

A

<25

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13
Q

12 min distance (miles): 1.0-1.24
VO2 max:

A

25-33.7

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14
Q

12 min distance (miles): 1.25-1.49
VO2 max:

A

33.8-42.5

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15
Q

12 min distance (miles): 1.5-1.74
VO2 max:

A

42.6-51.5

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16
Q

12 min distance (miles): 1.75-2
VO2 max:

A

51.6-60.2

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17
Q

12 min distance (miles): >2
VO2 max:

A

> 60.2

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18
Q

1.5 mile run test is a good assessment for

A

fit clients with higher CRF

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19
Q

1.5 mile run test

A

on a measured track, the client must run as quickly as possible for 1.5 miles. periods of walking and jogging are acceptable if the overall exertion is maximal
the moment the client covers 1.5 mil, the trainer records the total time for completion which is used in an equation

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20
Q

3 minute step test is a good assessment for

A

novice or deconditioned clients who cannot perform a maximal effort test effectively

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21
Q

3 minute step test step height

A

16.25in

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22
Q

3 min step test

A

client steps ip and down on the step at a pace set by a metronome for 3 min (speed dictated by gender)
15 second recovery HR is taken within 5-20 secs following the test

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23
Q

yoyo beep test is a good assessment for

A

athletic clients with relatively high CRF who are adept at changes in direction and giving maximal effort

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24
Q

yo-yo beep test

A

the client sprints until failure via 20m shuttle runs between cones at a set metronome pace
10 sec recovery is given between attempts
number of shuttles completed is recorded

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25
Q

muscular fitness test includes assessments of

A

muscular strength, endurance, power, anaerobic capacity

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26
Q

strength balance ratios should be examined to reveal

A

limitations and areas prone to injury

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27
Q

muscle balance ratio goals
1. trunk flexors:extensors
2. hip flexors:extensors
3. shoulder flexors:extensors
4. knee flexors:extensors
5. shoulder int. rotator:ext. rotator
6. elbow extensors:flexors
7. ankle plantar flexors:dorsiflexors

A

1:1
1:1
2:3
2:3
3:2
1:1
3:1

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28
Q

risk for injury due to mechanical strain is ___ during strength assessments

A

elevated

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29
Q

4 common muscular strength assessments

A

multi-rep bench press
3-5 RM squat test
10 RM leg press test
pull up test

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30
Q

multi rep bench press test is a good assessment of upper body strength for

A

clients with adequate shoulder function

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31
Q

multi-rep bench press test

A

after a series of warm up sets the client presses ~85% of their max (5-7 rep) as many times as possible, not exceeding 8 reps
reps and weight achieved are used in the 3% formula

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32
Q

3% formula

A

[(0.03 x reps performed) + 1.0] x total weight
[(0.03 x Reps __________) + 1.0] x weight used __________ lb.
(__________ + 1.0) x __________ lb.
Estimated Bench Press 1RM = __________ lb.

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33
Q

multi-rep bench press test:
1RM can be estimated to obtain

A

bench press strength rating

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34
Q

bench press strength rating

A

estimated 1RM / body weight

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35
Q

3-5 RM squat test is a good assessment of lower-body strength for

A

clients familiar/practiced in the back squat and who are proficient performing heavily-loaded, compound lifts

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36
Q

3-5 RM squat test

A

client squats 90% of their max (4-5 reps)

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37
Q

3-5 RM squat test estimated 1RM can be used to obtain

A

back squat strength rating

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38
Q

10 RM leg press test is a good assessment for

A

novice clients not proficient in compound lifts that require stability

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39
Q

each rep of 10 RM leg press test is performed to ___ degree knee flexion

A

90

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40
Q

pull up test is a good assessment of

A

upper body pulling strength

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41
Q

pull up test

A

each rep starts with the arms fully extended, and the chin must pass the bar without leg assistance or momentum, hanging between reps is permitted

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42
Q

male pull up:
below average
average
above average

A

<7
8-10
>11

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43
Q

female pull up:
below average
average
above average

A

0
1
>1

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44
Q

a client who performs three push ups or one modified pull up is not being assessed for ___ but rather ____

A

endurance, strength

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45
Q

if the client cannot perform a single repetition of a movement in testing

A

the test is not appropriate

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46
Q

muscular endurance tests should always be above ___ reps

A

10

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47
Q

estimation errors are common during muscular endurance tests; common contributors include

A

inadequate practice
unclear scoring criteria, indiscriminate scoring
client is not used to the effort required
trainer allows movement compensations
trainer allows limited ROM

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48
Q

3 common muscular endurance tests

A

push up, modified pull up, abdominal curl up

49
Q

push up test is a good assessment of

A

upper body by pressing endurance relative to BW

50
Q

push up test

A

client performs as many push ups as possible until failure with strict form

51
Q

modified pull up test is a good assessment of

A

upper body pulling endurance relative to body weight

52
Q

modified pull up test

A

as many reps as possible until failure with strike form

53
Q

modified pull up males:
above average
average
below average

A

> 22
14-21
<14

54
Q

modified pull up females:
above average
average
below average

A

> 9
4-8
<4

55
Q

abdominal curl up test is a good assessment of

A

trunk endurance for most clients

56
Q

abdominal curl up test

A

as many reps as possible at a pace dictated by metronome (40 bpm) with strict form

57
Q

power

A

amount of work performed in a given time

58
Q

power is a key component in

A

functional health, especially older adults

59
Q

anaerobic capacity

A

measures the rate of power decline

60
Q

3 common muscular power and anaerobic capacity tests

A

non-countermovement vertical jump test, 30 second chair stand test, anaerobic power step

61
Q

non-countermovement vertical jump test

A

maximal effort vertical jump against a wall; 3 attempts given, highest jump is recorded

62
Q

vertical jump classification
age 21-25 males
above avg
avg
below avg

A

> 25.7
18.7-25.6
<18.7

63
Q

vertical jump classification
age 26-30 males
above avg
avg
below avg

A

> 25.2
18.6-25.1
<18.6

64
Q

vertical jump classification
age 21-25 females
above avg
avg
below avg

A

> 16.6
11.6-16.5
<11.6

65
Q

vertical jump classification
age 26-30 females
above avg
avg
below avg

A

> 16.4
11.6-16.3
<11.6

66
Q

30 second chair stand test

A

stand upright and sits fully back down as many times as possible in 30 seconds
90 degree knee flexion, arms across chest

67
Q

anaerobic power step test

A

client steps on and off a box as fast as possible for 60 sec
90 degree knee flexion

68
Q

flexibility is critical to

A

maintaining functional movement abilities, improving performance, reduce risk for injury

69
Q

flexibility testing is ___ specific while mobility resting examines _______

A

joint
cooperative movement capabilities of multiple joints

70
Q

___ or ____ can be used to measure flexibility/mobility, but ____ are useful

A

goniometer, floor mats with line patterns
visual assessments

71
Q

apley back scratch test

A

attempt to touch fingers together behind back

72
Q

muscles assessed in apley back scratch test

A

rotator cuff, deltoids, lats, triceps, shoulder capsule

73
Q

apley back scratch test scoring

A

1- good: fingers are touching
2- borderline: fingers are not touching but <2 in apart
3- needs work: fingertips are >2 in apart

74
Q

errors in apley back scratch testing:
upper humerus ______
lower humerus ______
lower humeral head _______
upper arm not fully_____
lower arm shoulder ____
lower arm scapula ____

A

rotates forward
angles outward
migrates forward
flexed
drops
wings out

75
Q

modified Thomas test

A

attempt to extend their leg to a position where the hamstring contacts the bench without moving the other leg

76
Q

muscles assessed in modified Thomas

A

hip flexors, hip capsule restrictions

77
Q

modified Thomas test scores

A

1-good: straight leg or flexed knee contact with bench
2-borderline: hamstring <1in
3-needs work: hamstring >1in

78
Q

trunk extension test

A

attempts to fully extend their arms while keeping the iliac crests at the top of their pelvic in contact with the ground

79
Q

muscles assessed in trunk extension test

A

hip flexors, abdominals

80
Q

trunk extension test scoring with suprasternal notch measurement

A

excellent: >12in
good: >8in
fair: >4in

81
Q

trunk extension test scoring with iliac crest measurement

A

good: hip remains on ground
borderline: <1 in
needs work: >1in

82
Q

trunk flexion test

A

attempts to reach as far as possible between their hips while seated on a bench

83
Q

muscles assessed in trunk flexion

A

lower back, erector spinae

84
Q

knee flexion test

A

attempt to pull their heel all the way to their glute while lying flat on the ground

85
Q

trunk flexion test scoring

A

good: alignment of the centers of shoulder and hip capsules
borderline: <1 in deviation between center of capsule
needs work: >1 in deviation between center of capsule

86
Q

muscles assessed in knee flexion test

A

quads, hip flexors

87
Q

knee flexion test scoring

A

good: heel touches glute without hip flexion
borderline: <1 in heel without hip flexion
needs work: >1 in with or without tip flexion

88
Q

active knee extension test

A

flex their hip as far as possible while keeping knee fully extended

89
Q

muscles assessed in active knee extension test

A

hamstrings

90
Q

active knee extension test scoring

A

good: lateral malleolus and the hip capsules
borderline: <3in deviation between center of capsule
needs work: >3 in deviation between center of capsule

91
Q

overhead squat test

A

perform a full overhead squat while being assessed eat each joint, starting at the feet, for movement compensations

92
Q

common errors in OH squat test

A

heels turn in
knees in or out
hip ab/adduction
excess dorsiflexion or heels rise
arching or rounding of the back
PPT
arms bend and/or fall forward
shoulder blades wing

93
Q

OH squat: feel externally rotate
potential tightness
potential weakness

A

soleus, lateral gastroc
medial gastroc, tibialis post.

94
Q

OH squat: feet flatten
potential tightness
potential weakness

A

peroneal complex
tibialis post.

95
Q

OH squat: heel rise
potential tightness
potential weakness

A

soleus
anterior tibialis

96
Q

OH squat: hip abduct
potential tightness
potential weakness

A

piriformis, iliopsoas, sartorius, biceps femoris
adductors, semitendinosis, semimembranosis

97
Q

OH squat: hip adduct
potential tightness
potential weakness

A

adductors, medial hamstring
gute max, med

98
Q

OH squat: hips internally rotate
potential tightness
potential weakness

A

medial hamstring, TFL, IT band, glute med
deep glute hip rotator

99
Q

OH squat: lumbar hyperextension
potential tightness
potential weakness

A

iliopsoas, lumbar erectors, lats, quadratus lumborum
gluteals, rectus abdominis, obliques

100
Q

OH squat: lumbar flexion
potential tightness
potential weakness

A

obliques, hamstrings, rectus abdominal, adductor Magnus
iliposoas, lumbar erectors, lats, quadratus lumborum

101
Q

OH squat: protruded abdomen
potential tightness
potential weakness

A

iliospsoas, lumbar erectors, quadrados lumborum
rectus abdominis, obliques, glute max, transverse abdominis

102
Q

OH squat: arms forward
potential tightness
potential weakness

A

lats, pecs, upper abdominals
infraspinatus, teres minor, mid trap

103
Q

OH squat: elbows bent
potential tightness
potential weakness

A

pec major, lats
infraspinatus, teres minor, mid trap

104
Q

OH squat: shoulder blade wing
potential tightness
potential weakness

A

pec major, serrates anterior
mid traps, rhomboids

105
Q

Which of the following cardiorespiratory fitness tests would be the best choice for a novice, poorly conditioned client?
a. Yo-Yo beep test
b. 12 minute run test
c. 3 minute step test
d. 1.5 mile run test

A

c

106
Q

Which of the following VO2max values would be considered average for a male in his 20s?
a. 35 ml/kg/min
b. 44 ml/kg/min
c. 48 ml/kg/min
d. 55 ml/kg/min

A

b

107
Q

Which of the following should have a strength balance ratio of 1:1?
a. Knee flexors: Knee extensors
b. Shoulder flexors: Shoulder extensors
c. Trunk flexors: Trunk extensors
d. All of the above are correct

A

c

108
Q

Which of the following contributes to the high prevalence of estimation errors during a muscular endurance test?
a. Inadequate practice of the movement involved
b. The criteria used for scoring each repetition performed is not made clear
c. The trainer allows movement compensations during repetitions and still counts them as correct
d. All of the above are correct

A

d

109
Q

Which of the following has been devised to assess muscular power among older adults?
a. The countermovement vertical jump test
b. The 3 minute step test
c. The 30-second chair stand test
d. The modified pull-up test

A

c

110
Q

Which of the following assesses tightness in the lower back?
a. The trunk extension test
b. The modified Thomas test
c. The trunk flexion test
d. The knee flexion tes

A

c

111
Q

the ___ test for assessing cardiorespiratory fitness requires the client to sprint until failure via 20m shuttle runs at a pace set by a metronome

A

yo-yo beep

112
Q

during the anaerobic power step test the client must step on and off a box as fast as possible for ___ seconds

A

60

113
Q

true or false: the 10 RM leg press test is the optimal lower-body strength assessments for advanced clients who can lift significant weight

A

false

114
Q

true or false: a client who performed two push ups during the push up test for muscular endurance is not actually being assessed for endurance, but rather strength

A

true

115
Q

true or false: the Apley back scratch test assesses tightness in the rotator cuff, shoulder capsule, and latissimus dorsi

A

true

116
Q

using the 3% formula, estimate. clients 1RM bench press who performed the Multi-rep bench press test using 215lbs for 8 reps

A

265 lbs

117
Q

identify at least three signs that a cardiorespiratory fitness test should be terminated for the clients safety

A

a. the subject no longer feels comfortable performing the test
b. the subject’s skin becomes pale
c. the cadence cannot be met for >20 sec
d. the subject loses their ability to focus
e. the subject experiences faintness, dizziness, lightheadedness, an upset stomach, vomiting symptoms, chest pain, difficulty breathing, a side stitch, cramping, or significant strain with fatigue

118
Q

identify the potential tightness involved for each of the following observations during the overhead squat assessment
a. the hips adduct
b. the abdomen protrudes
c. the arms are bent

A

a. adductors (groin), medial hamstrings
b. iliopsoas (hip flexors), lumbar erectors, quadratus lumborum
c. pectoralis major, latissimus dorsi