Final Exam Prep Flashcards

1
Q

Which muscles are involved with eye movement?

A

6 skeletal muscles (control them voluntarily):
1.lateral rectus
2.medial rectus
3.inferior rectus
4. superior rectus
5. superior oblique
6. inferior oblique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Lateral rectus

A

Controlled by abducens VI: Moves eye laterally, abducts the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Medial rectus

A

Controlled by oculomotor (III). Moves eye medially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

called rectus because….

A

They go straight back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

inferior rectus

A

controlled by: oculomotor (III)
moves eye down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

all eye muscles except the ____ move back to the common tendinous ring

A

inferior oblique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cornea

A

can be transplanted without fear of rejection because it has no blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

superior rectus

A

controlled by oculomotor (III): moves eye up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

all cranial nerves involved in eye movement move through…

A

superior orbital fissure:
cranial nerves that go through this structure are:
oculomotor iii
trochlear iv
abducens vi
and ophthalmic division of v

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

superior oblique

A

controlled by trochlear iv: depresses eye and turns it laterally

innervates an eye muscle that loops through a pulley-shaped ligament in orbit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

inferior oblique

A

controlled by oculomotor iii: moves the eye up and laterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

CN5

A

Trigeminal
stimulates the lacrimal gland, mucous membranes, and the submaxillary and sublingual glands. Provides sensory innervation to the face.
Largest cranial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

decubitus ulcer

A

pressure sores, result from skin breakdown. common in older patients with fragile skin. Its common in areas of bony processes, ischial tuberosities, greater trochanter, sacrum. This is why we do turns every 2 hours. if peron isnt moved, can get skin breakdown. very careful with diabetic patients who have less skin sensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

stages of decubitus ulcers

A
  1. skin is unbroken, but inflamed and red
  2. skin is broken down to epidermis or dermis
  3. ulcer extends to subcutaneous fat layer. gets down pretty deep. infections can spread easily
    4.Ulcer spreads down to muscle or bone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Third degree burn

A

1.caused by a burn that spreads below the follicles,

  1. burns all the way through the dermis below the follicles.

3.no more progenitor stem cells left.

4.may need skin graft.

5.also called a full thickness burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Basal cell carcinoma

A

1.cancer in the basal cells.

2.least likely to metastasize.

3.least malignant, slow growing.

4.Fully cured by surgical excision in 99% of cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

basal cell carcinoma occurs in

A

the basal cell layer of the epidermis. Stratum basale. caused by UV radiation. Most common (80% of skin cancers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

describe basal cell carcinoma

A

stratum basale cells proliferate, invading dermis and subcutaneous tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

appearance of basal cell carcinoma

A

most often on sun exposed areas of the face. look like shiny dome-shaped nodules that develop a central ulcer with a pearly beaded edge.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma

A

1.second most common type of skin cancer.

2.comes from keratinocytes of the stratum spinosum. likely to grow rapidly and metastasize.

  1. if caught early and removed surgically or by radiation therapy, the chance of complete cure is good

4.keratinocytes break through basal layer of the epidermis, doesnt have basement membrane cap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

appearance of squamous cell carcinoma

A

scaly, reddened papule, (small rounded elevation). most often on head (scalp, ears, lower lip) and hands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

why is basal cell carcinoma unlikely to metastasize?

A

basal cells have built-in ability to make fibers and proteins tend to seal themselves off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Why is it bad for keratinocytes and other epidermal cells to break into the dermis?

A

cancerous epidermal cells lose their positional information. They grow out of control and enter the bloodstream.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

melanoma

A

cancer or melanocytes. most dangerous skin cancer. highly metastatic and resistant to chemotherapy. Accounts for 1% of skin cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

why is melanoma likely to metastasize?

A

melanocytes naturally have the ability to produce cytoplasmic extensions. so theyre quick to invade other tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

function of cytoplasmic extensions on melanocytes

A

transfer melanin granules to keratinocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

neoplasm

A

new growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what kind of skin cancer accounts for most skin cancer deaths?

A

melanoma. Only about 1% of skin cancers, but 85-90 % of all skin cancer deaths.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

melanoma caused by

A

Mutations occur in the DNA of a melanocyte, which has the ability to produce cytoplasmic extensions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

stratum spinosum named for

A

pointy ends: protruding cell processes that join cells together via a desmosome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

melanoma can begin wherever there is

A

pigment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

melanomas can appear from

A

pre-existing moles approximately 1/3. looks like spreading brown to black patch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

melanomas are likely to metastasize to

A

lymph and blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

key to surviving melanoma

A

early detection. survival rates decline with increasing thickness of the melanoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

ABCDE

A

Asymetrical
Border:irregular border
Color:2 or more colors
Diameter: diameter greater than a pencil eraser head
Evolution or elevation:is it growing upward or elevated?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Alopecia areata

A

Autoimmune disorder where immune system attacks the hair follicles. Results in hairless patches.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

alopecia

A

absence of hair from areas of the body that normally have hair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

decubitus ulcer cause

A

Interference with blood supply. Caused by continuous pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

etiology of alopecia areata

A

1.immune system targets hair follicles which disrupts the normal hair life cycle.

2.alopecia areata disrupts hair growth leading to hair loss.

  1. thought to be caused by genetic and environmental factors like, stress, and viral infections and certain medications.

4.Has no cure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

vitiligo etymology

A

a vine winding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

vitiligo

A

most prevalent skin pigmentation disorder. caused by a loss of melanocytes and uneven dispersal of melanin. unpigmenetd light spots are visible surrounded by normally pigmented areas

Can happen to anyone.
Patches of no pigmentation.

Is autoimmune disorder where immune system incorrectly attacks melanocytes.

80% of all autoimmune cases are in women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

why do some people have darker skin than others?

A

darker skin: delivery of lots of melanosomes into keratinocytes in stratum spinosum. more resistant to UV radiation. less likely to get cancer. need more sunlight for vitamin d needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

mole

A

benign growth of melanocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

everyone has the same number of

A

melanocytes. only type and amount of melanin that varies producing different skin tones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Hair bulge and hair bulb

A

Bulge: hold progenitor stem cells around where arrector pilli muscle attaches.
Hair bulb: holds hair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Functions of epithelial tissues

A

covering and lining membranes,

glandular epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

function of covering and lining epithelium

A
  1. Makes outer layer of skin
  2. lines body cavities
  3. covers organs and walls of organs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

function of glandular epithelium

A

fashions glands of body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

t/f:nearly all substances given off or received by the body must pass through an epithelium?

A

nearly all substances given off or received by the body must pass through an epithelium?
TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

roles of epithelium

A
  1. protection
  2. absorption
  3. Filtration
  4. excretion
  5. secretion
  6. sensory reception
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

five distinguishing characteristics of epithelium

A
  1. apical basal polarity
  2. specialized contacts
  3. supported by connective tissue
  4. avascular but innervated
  5. regeneration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

apical surface:

A

not attached to surrounding tissue. Exposed to either outside of the body or cavity of internal organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

basal surface attached to

A

attached to underlying connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

simple epithelia

A

single cell layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

where is simple epithelia found?

A

where absorption, filtration and secretion occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

stratified epithelia

A

two or more cell layers stacked on top of one another. where protection is important. Skin surface, lining of mouth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

squamous, cuboidal columnar

A
  1. squamous: flat, disc shaped
  2. cube shaped
  3. column shaped
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

stratified epithelia are named after

A

shape of cells in apical layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

endothelium

A

inner covering. Single layer of squamous cells that line the walls of the heart, blood vessels and lymphatic vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

mesothelium

A

found in serous membranes lining ventral body cavity and covering its organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

capillaries consist exclusively of

A

endothelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

functions of simple cuboidal epithelium

A

secretion and absorption. Ducts of glands and kidney tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

simple columnar epithelium

A

absorption and secretion. has dense microvilli on absorptive cells

has tubular glands that secrete mucus containing intestinal juice. some have cilia that move substances along

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

simple columnar epithelium location

A

lines digestive tract from stomach to rectum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

pseudostratified columnar epithelium function

A

secretes or absorbs substances. Lines most of the respiratory tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

most widespread of the stratified epithelium

A

stratified squamous epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

describe stratified squamous epithelium

A

free squamous surface cells, cells of deeper layers are cuboidal or columnar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

where is stratified squamous epithelium found?

A

wear and tear. External surface of the skin. Extends a little into every body opening that is continuous with the skin. Outer layer is keratinized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

stratified cuboidal epithelium found in

A

ducts of larger glands. sweat glands and mammary glands. Rare. Two layers of cuboidal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

stratified columnar epithelium location

A

Pharynx, male urethra. lining glandular ducts. Transition areas. Junctions between other types of epithelia. Only apical layer is columnar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

transitional epithelium

A

forms lining of hollow urinary organs. stretches. Apical cell shape varies on degree of distension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

gland

A

one or more cells that secretes a particular product

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

fundamental types of epithelial tissues

A
  1. simple squamous epithelium
  2. simple cuboidal epithelium
  3. simple columnar epithelium
  4. pseudostratified columnar epithelium
  5. stratified squamous epithelium
  6. stratified cuboidal epithelium
  7. stratified columnar epithelium
  8. transitional epithelium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

basal lamina made of

A

made of glycoprotein secreted by epithelial cells. Adhesive supporting sheet. Faces epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

reticular lamina

A

has fine network of collagen fibers, faces the connective side

76
Q

neuromuscular junction

A

where a motor unit meets a muscle. place where synaptic knob hovers over a special area called a motor ends plate

Innervated skeletal muscle

77
Q

why does motor end plate wind back and forth?

A

To increase the surface area so we can have more ligand-gated sodium channels

78
Q

motor end plate

A

made of ligand gated receptors on the sarcolemma. ACh binds to ligand gated sodium channels and causes influx of sodium into neighboring cell

79
Q

Anatomy of neuromuscular junction . Include cellular level details for the motor neuron and the muscle fibers it innervates.

A
  1. The action potential arrives at the axon terminal of the motor neuron
    2.Voltage gated Ca 2+ channels open. Ca 2+ enters the axon terminal, moving down it’s electrochemical gradient.
  2. Ca2+ entry causes ACh (a neurotransmitter) to be released by exocytosis

4.ACh diffuses across the synaptic cleft and binds to ACh receptors on the sarcolemma.

  1. ACh binding opens chemically gated ion channels that allow the simultaneous passage of Na+ into the muscle fiber and K+ out of the muscle fiber. More Na+ ions enter than K+ ions exit, which causes a local change in membrane potential called the end plate potential
  2. ACh effects are terminated by its breakdown in the synaptic cleft by acetylcholinesterase and diffusion away from the junction
80
Q

epimysium

A

surrounds groups of fascicles together

81
Q

deep fascia

A

wraps in and around groups of muscles and organs above the epimysium

82
Q

perimysium

A

around each fascicle

83
Q

fasicle

A

groups of muscle cells together

84
Q

sarcoplasm

A

cytoplasm of a muscle fiber

85
Q

sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

Same as endoplasmic reticulum. Important for synthesis of proteins. Does normal endoplasmic reticulum stuff in muscle fibers and around myofibrils, but it becomes an important storage location for calcium.

86
Q

difference between sarcoplasm and cytoplasm?

A

sarcoplasm has large amounts of glycogen and myoglobin (red pigment that stores oxygen)

87
Q

Why is the sarcoplasmic reticulum important?

A
  1. protein synthesis
  2. helps store calcium
    calcium is important to the signaling pathways that leads to muscle contractions taking place
88
Q

Sarcolemma

A

Plasma membrane of a muscle fiber

89
Q

Myofibrils

A

Rod-like bundle of contractile filaments (myofilaments) found in muscle fibers (cells)

90
Q

Myofilaments

A

Filament that constitutes myofibrils. Of two types: actin and myosin.

91
Q

compact bone:

A

compact bone:
-On outer surface of bone
-Made of osteons (look like tree stumps)
-On the surface and end of long bones where bone is packed very close together
-replaces the immature spongy bone duing intramembranous ossification
-diaphysis made of mostly compact bone

92
Q

osteons

A

unit of bone, interconnecting canals in microscopic structure of adult compact bone

93
Q

trabeculae

A

pointy parts in spongy bone. Allows bone to be lighter. Looks random but arranged along stress lines

94
Q

stress lines

A

Help distribute stress evenly on a bone reducing the risk of fractures or injuries. help bear weight. Lines formed in response to mechanical stress

95
Q

pagetic bone

A

has abnormally high ratio of spongy bone to compact bone. Reduced mineralization causes weakening of the bones

96
Q

Describe the roles of osteoclasts and osteoblasts

A

during bone remodeling (controlled by hormones like growth hormone, estrogen, testosterone, calcium ion levels in blood):

  1. osteoclasts: bone is resorbed by osteoclasts. Breaks down at the ends.In endosteum. Remove bone from inner surface of the diaphysis
  2. osteoblasts add bone by appositional growth (on the sides)(bones grow in width). Osteoblasts in the periosteum add bone matrix to the outside of the diaphysis.
  3. Bone is resorbed by osteoclasts at the center.
97
Q

osteoprogenitor cells found in

A

The inner osteogenic layer next to the bone surface contains osteoprogenitor cells (primitive stem cells that give rise to most bone cells).

98
Q

osteocytes

A

mature bone cells that occupy lacunae, maintain matrix. Connected to eachother by central canal and canaliculi.

99
Q

What role does each cell type play in bone remodeling?
osteoclasts,
osteoprogenitor cells,
osteoblasts,
osteocytes

A

osteoclasts: responsible for breaking down or resorbing old or damaged bone tissue
osteoprogenitor cells. Release enzymes that help dissolve the mineralized matrix of bone. after old bone is resorbed…. osteoblasts

Osteoprogenitor cells: also called osteogenic cells, are mitotically active stem cells found in the membranous periosteum and endosteum. In growing bones they are flattened or squamous cells. When stimulated, these cells differentiate into osteoblasts, while others persist as osteoprogenitor cells.

osteoblasts: produce proteins and other substances that form the new bone matrix. Which eventually mineralizes to become new bone tissue. bone-forming cells that secrete the bone matrix. Like their close relatives, the fibroblasts and chondroblasts, they are actively mitotic. The unmineralized bone matrix they secrete includes collagen (90% of bone protein) and calcium-binding proteins that make up the initial unmineralized bone, or osteoid. As described later, osteoblasts also play a role in matrix calcification.When actively depositing matrix, osteoblasts are cube shaped. When inactive, they resemble the flattened osteoprogenitor cells or may differentiate into bone lining cells. When the osteoblasts become completely surrounded by the matrix being secreted, they become osteocytes.

osteocytes:mature bone cells that occupy spaces (lacunae) that conform to their shape.
Osteocytes monitor and maintain the bone matrix.
They also act as stress or strain “sensors” and respond to mechanical stimuli (bone loading, bone deformation, weightlessness).
Osteocytes communicate this information to the cells responsible for bone remodeling (osteoblasts and osteoclasts) so that bone matrix can be made or degraded as mechanical stresses dictate. Osteocytes can also trigger bone remodeling to maintain calcium homeostasis as we will see shortly.

100
Q

Bone remodeling process

A

1.Osteoblasts and osteoclasts work together in a bone remodeling cone.

2.Breaks down bone in front (osteoclasts)
Osteoclasts release calcium phosphate in bloodstream, break down collagen into Amino acids. Called the cutting core

  1. Osteoprogenitor cells: in middle or reversal zone
  2. In reversal zone, you have reversal cells. In transition zone between osteoclasts and osteoblasts
  3. In back, the cone is using osteoblasts to lay down collagen and calcium phosphate. Angiogenesis also occurs which is the creation of new arteries and veins. In compact bone, central canal is also being created. Creating new nerves and new lymphatic vessels
101
Q
  1. Describe how an action potential is initiated in a neuron. How does it propagate down the axon? What processes are involved with the release of neurotransmitters from synaptic knobs. Discuss the key role of IPSPs and EPSPs in the propagation (or lack thereof) of an action potential.
A

Excitatory post synaptic potentials must build at axon hillock and surpass threshold value. -55 mv

-depolarization & repolarization

-depolarization happens after -55mv threshold value is reached. voltage gated sodium ion channels open and Na goes into the cell raising the voltage. gets more positive until +30 mV

-repolarization starts to occur once +30 mv is reached. Na channels close and K channels open. charge becomes lowe because positively charged K is leaving the axon. Trying to lower charge to get closer to resting potential . goes past -70 resting value and results in hyperpolarization. Hyperpolarization occurs because channels are slow to close

  • hyperpolarization is fixed by NaK pump. pumps 3 Na out and two K into resitablish the concentration gradient
  • Absolute refractory period: axon cannot be stimulated to send a message. Occurs when cell is being depolarized up until the cell approached its resting membrane potential during repolarization. Cnat pass any more signals

-relative refractory period: Takes a stronger stimulus to send impulse. Occurs from hyperpolarization to where its reaching resting membrane potential

-at the end of the axon terminals in the synaptic knob. Voltage gated Ca2+ ion channels are activated. influx of Ca2+ causes vesicles with Neurotransmitters like ACh to travel accross the synaptic cleft and bind to ligandgated Na channels in neighboring neuron, passing signal along. The way you stop ACh transmission is with the help of acetycholineesterase. Enzyme that breaks down Ach

102
Q

What role do osteoclasts play in bone remodeling?

A
  1. resorb old bone or damaged bone by releasing enzymes that help dissolve the mineralized matrix of bone
103
Q

What role do osteoprogenitor cells play in bone remodeling?

A
  1. Also called osteogenic cells
  2. Mitotically active stem cells
  3. Some can differentiate into osteoblasts, while others stay as osteoprogenitor cells.
104
Q

Location of osteoprogenitor cells?

A

membranous periosteum and endosteum. In growing bones they are flattened or squamous cells.

105
Q

Role of osteoblasts during bone remodeling

A
  1. Make proteins and other substances that make the bone matrix, which eventually mineralizes to become new bone
  2. Actively mitotic
106
Q

Role of osteocytes in living bone tissue

A

1.mature bone cells that occupy spaces (lacunae) that conform to their shape
2. monitor and maintain matrix. Act as stress sensors and respond to mechanical stimuli. (bone loading, bone deformation, weightlessness ). Can trigger repair or remodeling

107
Q

What are the specialized contacts of epithelial tissue

A

except for glandular epithelium, epithelial cells fit cosely to make continous sheets. Joined by tight juctions and desmosomes.

108
Q

Types of bones

A

Long,
Short,
Flat,
Irregular

109
Q

Epiphysis

A

Ends of long bones, have spongy bone, covered by articular cartilage

-site of bone lengthening in children
-spongy bone in epiphysis

110
Q

Diaphysis

A

Shaft, mostly compact bone

111
Q

Articular cartilage

A

Made of hyaline cartilage, lets bones slide against each other

112
Q

Periosteum

A

-Thin layer of cells underneath dense connective tissue.

  • Fibrous layer around outside of bone

-not on joint surfaces

-helps nourish the bone

113
Q

Endosteum

A

Lines inner bone cavities
Connective tissue membrane that covers internal bone surfaces. Helps with bone remodeling and repair.

114
Q

Medullary cavity

A

Contains yellow or red bone marrow. In middle of bone.

115
Q

Bone marrow

A

Hematopoiesis occurs here. Gives rise to formed elements of blood

116
Q

Osteogenic layer

A

Inner layer of periosteum

-has osteoprogenitor cells

-has osteoclasts and osteoblasts

117
Q

Central canal

A

Canal in center of each osteon that has small blood vessels and nerve fibers that serve the osteon’s cells

118
Q

Perforating canals

A

Connect blood and nerve supply of central canals. At right angle of central canals.

119
Q

Endochondral ossification

A

Bone develops by replacing hyaline cartilage

120
Q

Intramembranous ossification

A

Bone develops from a fibrous membrane

121
Q

Which bones form by endochondral ossification?

A

All bones below the base of the skull, except for clavicles

122
Q

Why is endochondral ossification more complex than intramembranous ossification?

A

Hyaline cartilage must be broken down as ossification proceeds

123
Q

Fascia

A

Layers of fibrous tissue covering and separating muscle

124
Q

Tendon

A

Cord of dense regular connective tissue attaching muscle to bone

125
Q

Aponeuroses

A

Flat, sheet like tendons that attach muscles to bone, or attach muscles to muscles

126
Q

Triad

A

a structure formed by the interface between a T-tubule and 2 terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR).

Helps control muscle contractions

127
Q

Motor neurons leave through which root?

A

Ventral root

128
Q

Myasthenia gravis

A

autoimmune disorder that attacks ligand gated sodium channels that bind ACh.

Starts in face, causing partial paralysis of facial muscles

Usually stops at face.
Can sometimes lead to early mortality.

129
Q

How to fix myasthenia gravis

A

How to fix: immune suppressants
Some drugs affect acetylcholinesterase in synaptic cleft, ach stays longer to find ligand gated sodium channels in receiving muscle cell

130
Q

Botulism

A

Disrupts nerve muscle communication

when a person eats food contaminated with botulinum toxin or the spores, the toxin gets in the blood stream and travels to neuromuscular junctions. the botulinum toxin blocks the release of ACh and prevents communication between motor neurons and muscle fibers resulting in paralysis. Affects breathing, swallowing and movement.

131
Q

Rigor mortis

A

muscle stiffness caused by chemical changes in muscles, without oxygen the cells can’t make ATP needed for muscle contractions.
Muscles can’t relax and become rigid

132
Q

Creatine phosphate

A

back up source of energy in cells. quick source of energy
creatine phosphate donates a P to ADP making ATP. Provides quick boost of energy.

133
Q

Role of glycogen in muscle contraction

A

can be broken down into ATP

134
Q

Cellular respiration role in muscle contraction

A

glucose and oxygen are consumed to make large amounts of ATP.

135
Q

Lactic Acid

A

made during high intensity physical activity where cells may not receive enough oxygen to meet the energy demands needed for muscle contraction

136
Q

Isotonic muscle contraction

A

Under load, the muscle is actually going to shrink or lengthen under the load. The muscle itself changes length. Lifting a weight and the muscle length changes

137
Q

Isometric contraction

A

Does not change length
Holding a weight in place

138
Q

Muscle tone

A

level of contraction or tension present in a muscle when the muscle is at rest. All muscle is always partially contracted

139
Q

Fast twitch fibers and slow twitch fibers

A

Fast glycolytic, slow oxidative.
Endurance training increases slow oxidative fibers (red has myoglobin, helps make ATP)

Sprinting training develops what kind of fibers?
White glycolytic fibers

140
Q

Multi unit smooth muscle

A

each individual muscle fiber is innervated by its own nerve. controls movement where coordination is not necessary..found in arrector pili muscles, airways to lungs and large arteries.

141
Q

Visceral smooth muscle

A

in walls of hollow organs
involuntary moves food through peristalsis. important in digestion, circulation and urination

142
Q

Peristalsis

A

Smooth muscle contracts in wave-like motion to push substances down

143
Q

Calmodulin

A

calcium binding protein. Helps regulate the timing and strength of muscle contraction.

144
Q

Norepinephrine

A

especially important in smooth muscle tissue regulation. released by adrenal glands in response to stress. modulates muscle tone and contractility. binds to the adrenergic receptors in smooth muscle cells

145
Q

Origin

A

Attachment of a muscle that remains relatively fixed during muscle contraction

146
Q

Insertion

A

Movable attachment of a muscle

147
Q

Agonist

A

Muscle that bears the major responsibility for effecting a particular movement. A prime mover

148
Q

Antagonist

A

Muscle that opposes the movement of another muscle

149
Q

Synergists

A

Aids action of prime mover by doing same movement or by stabilizing joints

150
Q

Epidermis

A

Superficial layer of skin composed of stratified squamous keratinized epithelium

151
Q

Dermis

A

Layer of skin below the epidermis. Made of mostly dense irregular connective tissue

The dermis has connective tissue, blood vessels, oil and sweat glands, nerves, hair follicles, and other structures. It is made up of a thin upper layer called the papillary dermis, and a thick lower layer called the reticular dermis.

152
Q

Hypodermis/ subcutaneous layer

A

Has adipose tissue.
mostly fat and connective tissue. Cushions underlying organs and bones. Gives insulation and fuel storage. Has vessels that help nourish skin

153
Q

Melanin is produced in which layer of the epidermis?

A

Stratum basale

154
Q

Stratum basale

A

Source of new cells for epidermal growth

155
Q

Stratum spinosum

A

Gets name from spinelike extensions of keratinocytes.The spines do not exist in living cells. Cells shrink while holding tight their many desmosomes.

Dendritic cells are most abundant here.

156
Q

Stratum granulosum

A

Keratinazation begins here

157
Q

Stratum lucidum

A

Only found in thick skin like palms and soles of feet rows of few flat dead keratinocytes

158
Q

Stratum corneum

A

outermost layer
made of dead skin cells, acts as barrier that prevents dehyyand regulates body temperature

159
Q

Keratin

A

Fibrous protein found in the epidermis, hair and nails. Makes structures hard and water resistant.

160
Q

Melanin

A

Dark pigment formed by cells called melanocytes. Imparts color to skin and hair.

161
Q

Melanosomes

A

Membrane bound granules that make melanin. Melanin is then transferred out via spider legs

162
Q

Pheomelanin

A

Colors red hair

163
Q

Eumelanin

A

Produces brown and black colors

164
Q

Langerhans dendritic cells

A

Engulf antigens , migrate to lymph nodes and present the antigen to T cells. Found in skin

165
Q

Merkel cells

A

Plugged into epidermis with sensory neurons connected to them
Pressure receptors

166
Q

Papillary layer of dermis

A

Superficial 20% called papillary dermis. Made of mostly loose areolar connective tissue.holds things that help protect if dermis is breached.

Has: mast cells, macrophages and fibroblasts

-mast cells: initiate inflammatory response. Helps bring WBCs. Release histamine release heparin. Help mediate inflammation response.
-Macrophages
-fibroblasts:help lay down collagen, elastic fibers, new reticular fibers. Help hold damaged area together

167
Q

Reticular layer of dermis

A
  1. Bottom 80% of dermis:
    Very strong. Made of mostly dense irregular connective tissue. Fibers overlap in multiple directions. Called reticular dermis .
    Creates tension lines (tension lines are general direction that collagen fibers go) if cut is parallel to tension lines, then the wound will close up reapproximate. If you cut perpendicular to tension lines, the wound gapes.

Surgeons try to cut parallel to tension lines.

168
Q

Hair root

A

Hair root:embedded in hair follicle
anchors hair follicle in place

169
Q

Hair bulb

A

hair bulb: rounded structure that contains living cells for making new hair

170
Q

Hair shaft

A

hair shaft: visible part that extends above the skin’s surface.

171
Q

Sebaceous glands

A

Attached to hair follicles,
Holocrine glands. (Glandular cells inside are constantly dividing) Glandular cells inside form sebum.

172
Q

Sebum

A

Lipid protein rich substance. Keeps epidermis and hair health

173
Q

Apocrine sweat glands

A

Apocrine sweat glands that release into axillary areas and groin
produce milky secretion. has odor after coming into contact with skin bacteria.

174
Q

Arrector pili muscles

A

small muscles attached to hair that contract in response to cold Temp, fear or emotional stress. cause hair to stand on end creating goosebumps

175
Q

Holocrine glands

A

Burst, sebaceous

176
Q

Role of integumentary system in body temperature regulation

A

sweat glands in skin produce sweat which evaporates and helps cool the body down

when body becomes too cold, arrector pili muscles in the skin contract causing the hair to stand on end and creating an insulating layer of air around the body. Blood vessels in the skin constrict to reduce blood flow.

177
Q

First degree burn

A

Only epidermis is damaged

178
Q

Second degree burn

A

Epidermis and upper region of dermis is damaged

179
Q

Third degree burn

A

Damages the entire thickness of the skin, entire epidermis and dermis
Usually require skin grafting

180
Q

4th degree burn

A

Burn that affects epidermis, dermis subcutaneous tissue, muscle and even bone

181
Q

Autograft

A

Skin graft from the same person

182
Q

Allograft

A

Most common type of transplant.
Transplant from different individuals of the same species. ABO blood group antigens must be assessed

183
Q

Xenograft

A

Tissue or organ taken from a different species

184
Q

Spongy bone

A

spongy bone:
-On inside of bone
- filled with trebeculae (unit of spongy bone) (spike shaped structures)
-filled with bone marrow
-spongy bone gets strong by remodeling trabeculae laid down on stress lines
-found in epiphysis

185
Q

Dendritic cells are most abundant in?

A

Stratum spinosum